General Physics I Mock Exam - 3821 Verified Questions

General Physics I Mock Exam

Course Introduction

General Physics I is an introductory course that covers the fundamental principles of classical physics, including mechanics, motion, forces, energy, momentum, and the properties of matter. The course emphasizes problem-solving and critical thinking skills by exploring topics such as kinematics, Newtons laws of motion, work and energy, circular motion, and torque. Laboratory experiments are often integrated to provide practical experience with physical concepts and measurement techniques. This course is designed for students pursuing science, engineering, or related fields, laying the groundwork necessary for advanced studies in physics and other technical disciplines.

Recommended Textbook College Physics A Strategic Approach 3rd Edition by Randall D. Knigh

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30 Chapters

3821 Verified Questions

3821 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Representing Motion

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Sample

Questions

Q1) A large school district has 300 school buses. If each school bus is used 3.0 hours each day, the average speed of the school buses is 15 mi/h, and the fuel economy of the buses is 10 mi/gal. How much does it cost to run these buses for 22 school days if gasoline costs $4.10 a gallon?

A) $60,000

B) $120,000

C) $180,000

D) $240,000

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following numbers is the smallest?

A) 15 × 10^-3

B) 0.15 × 10⁰

C) 0.00015 × 10³

D) 0.00000015 × 10⁶

Answer: A

Q3) Express the result of the following calculation to the proper number of significant figures: 50.19 - 7966 × 10^-3.

Answer: 42.22

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the acceleration of an object is zero, then that object cannot be moving.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) An object moves 15.0 m north and then 11.0 m south. Find both the distance it has traveled and the magnitude of its displacement.

A) 4.0 m, 26.0 m

B) 26.0 m, 4.0 m

C) 26.0 m, 26.0 m

D) 4.0 m, 4.0 m

Answer: B

Q3) An object moving in the +x direction experiences an acceleration of +2.0 m/s². This means the object

A) travels 2.0 m in every second.

B) is traveling at 2.0 m/s.

C) is decreasing its velocity by 2.0 m/s every second.

D) is increasing its velocity by 2.0 m/s every second.

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child sits on a merry-go-round, 1.5 meters from the center. The merry-go-round is turning at a constant rate, and the child is observed to have a radial acceleration of 2.3 m/s². How long does it take for the merry-go-round to make one revolution?

Q2) A projectile is fired at an angle above the horizontal at a location where g = 9.8 m/s². The initial x and y components of its velocity are 86.6 m/s and 50 m/s respectively. At what angle was the projectile fired above the horizontal?

A) 45°

B) 60°

C) 30°

D) 90°

E) 75°

Q3) You walk \(33 \mathrm {~m}\) to the north, then turn 60° to your right and walk another \(45 \mathrm {~m} .\) How far are you from where you originally started?

A) 68 m

B) 39 m

C) 75 m

D) 35 m

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) An astronaut weighs 99 N on the Moon, where the acceleration of gravity is 1.62 m/s². How much does she weigh on Earth?

A) 16 N

B) 61 N

C) 99 N

D) 600 N

E) 440 N

Q2) An object that weighs 75 N is pulled on a horizontal surface by a horizontal pull of 50 N to the right. The friction force on this object is 30 N to the left. What is the acceleration of the object?

A) 0.27 m/s²

B) 1.1 m/s²

C) 2.6 m/s²

D) 11 m/s²

Q3) A bucket is being lowered by a very light rope with a constant downward velocity. The tension in the rope must be

A) equal to the weight of the bucket.

B) greater than the weight of the bucket.

C) less than the weight of the bucket.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws

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Sample Questions

Q1) Three boxes rest side-by-side on a smooth, horizontal floor. Their masses are 5.0 kg, 3.0 kg, and 2.0 kg, with the 3.0-kg mass in the center. A force of 50 N pushes on the 5.0-kg box, which pushes against the other two boxes. What magnitude force does the 5.0-kg box exert on the 3.0-kg box?

A) 0 N

B) 10 N

C) 25 N

D) 40 N

E) 50 N

Q2) A baseball player is running to second base at 5.03 m/s. When he is 4.80 m from the plate he goes into a slide. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the player and the ground is 0.180, and the coefficient of static friction is 3.14. What is his speed when he reaches the plate?

A) 4.47 m/s

B) 2.89 m/s

C) 1.96 m/s

D) 2.56 m/s

E) He stops before reaching the plate.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A curved portion of highway has a radius of curvature of 65 m. As a highway engineer, you want to bank this curve at the proper angle for a steady speed of 22 m/s.

(a) What banking angle should you specify for this curve?

(b) At the proper banking angle, what normal force and what friction force does the highway exert on a 750-kg car going around the curve at the proper speed?

Q2) A satellite encircles Mars at a distance above its surface equal to 3 times the radius of Mars. If g_m is the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of Mars, what is the acceleration due to gravity at the location of the satellite?

A) g_m/9

B) 0

C) g_m

D) g_m/3

E) g_m/16

Q3) Two identical tiny balls of highly compressed matter are 1.50 m apart. When released in an orbiting space station, they accelerate toward each other at 2.00 cm/s². What is the mass of each of them? (G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m²/kg²)

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Express the angular speed of an old 33 1/3 rpm LP in rad/s.

Q2) Consider the sun and its largest planet Jupiter. On the line joining them, how far from the center of the sun is their center mass? Is it within or outside the sun? (Jupiter-sun distance is 778 × 10⁶ km, diameter of the sun is 1.4 × 10⁶ km, the sun is 1000 times as massive as Jupiter)

Q3) Two forces produce equal torques on a door about the door hinge. The first force is applied at the midpoint of the door; the second force is applied at the doorknob. Both forces are applied perpendicular to the door. Which force has a greater magnitude?

A) the first force (at the midpoint)

B) the second force (at the doorknob)

C) The two forces are equal.

Q4) A cylinder of radius 8.0 cm rolls 20 cm in 5.0 s without slipping. Through how many degrees does the cylinder turn during this time?

Q5) Three small masses are positioned at the following coordinates: 3.0 kg at (3.0 m, 2.0 m); 4.0 kg at (0.0 m, -1.0 m); and 5.0 kg at (5.0 m, -7.0 m). What are the coordinates of the center of mass (or center of gravity) of this system?

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Chapter 8: Equilibrium Ad Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) An irregularly shaped object that is 10 m long is placed with each end on a scale. If the scale on the right reads \(96 \mathrm {~N}\) while the scale on the left reads \(71 \mathrm {~N} \text {, }\) how far from the left end is the center of gravity of this object?

A) 5.7 m

B) 7.4 m

C) 4.3 m

D) 14 m

Q2) A 5.00-m-long uniform ladder, weighing 200 N, rests against a smooth vertical wall with its base on a horizontal rough floor, a distance of 1.20 m away from the wall. The coefficient of static friction between the ladder and the floor is 0.200. How far up the ladder, measured along the ladder, can a 600-N person climb before the ladder begins to slip?

A) 1.50 m

B) 1.26 m

C) 1.05 m

D) 3.95 m

E) 4.56 m

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) A small car meshes with a large truck in a head-on collision. Which of the following statements concerning the magnitude of the average force during the collision is correct?

A) The truck experiences the greater average force.

B) The small car experiences the greater average force.

C) The small car and the truck experience the same average force.

D) The force experienced by each one is inversely proportional to its mass.

E) The force experienced by each one is directly proportional to its mass.

Q2) Jennifer hits a stationary 0.20-kg ball, and it leaves her racket at 40 m/s. Time-lapse photography shows that the ball was in contact with the racket for 40 ms.

(a) What average force did the ball exert on the racket?

(b) What is the ratio of this force to the weight of the ball?

Q3) A 24.5-kg child is standing on the outer edge of a horizontal merry-go-round that has a moment of inertia of \(989 \mathrm {~kg} \cdot \mathrm { m } ^ { 2 }\) about a vertical axis through its center and a radius of 2.40 m. The entire system (including the child) is initially rotating at 0.180 rev/s. Find the angular velocity if the child moves to a new position 1.10 m from the center of the merry-go-round.

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Chapter 10: Energy and Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) A railroad car collides with and sticks to an identical railroad car that is initially at rest. After the collision, the kinetic energy of the system

A) is the same as before.

B) is half as much as before.

C) is one third as much as before.

D) is one fourth as much as before.

E) is one quarter as much as before.

Q2) A 1.0-kg object moving in a certain direction has a kinetic energy of 2.0 J. It hits a wall and comes back with half its original speed. What is the kinetic energy of this object at this point?

A) 2.0 J

B) 1.0 J

C) 0.50 J

D) 0.25 J

E) 4.0 J

Q3) How high a hill would a 75-kg hiker have to climb to increase her gravitational potential energy by 10,000 J?

Q4) How fast must a 6.0-kg cat run to have a kinetic energy of 150 J?

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Using Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) For a certain ideal Carnot engine, the hot reservoir is 35 C° higher than the cold reservoir. If this engine is to have an efficiency of 20%, what must be the temperature of the hot reservoir?

A) 70.0 K

B) 140 K

C) 175 K

D) 210 K

E) 245 K

Q2) Which two temperature changes are equivalent?

A) 1 K = 1 F°

B) 1 F° = 1 C°

C) 1 C° = 1 K

D) none of the above

Q3) If the efficiency of a Carnot engine were to be 100%, the heat sink would have to be

A) at absolute zero.

B) at 0°C.

C) at 100°C.

D) infinitely hot.

Q4) What is absolute zero on the (a) Celsius scale and (b) on the Fahrenheit scale?

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Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 0.40- \(m ^ { 3 }\) gas tank holds 7.0 moles of ideal diatomic nitrogen gas at a temperature of \(290 \mathrm {~K}\) The atomic mass of nitrogen is \(14.0 \mathrm {~g} / \mathrm { mol }\) . What is the pressure of the gas? (R = 8.31 J/mol K, 1 atm = 101 kPa)

A) 42 atm

B) 37 atm

C) 32 atm

D) 27 atm

E) 22 atm

Q2) A compression at a constant pressure of 200 kPa is performed on 8.00 moles of an ideal monatomic gas. The compression reduces the volume of the gas from \(0.200 \mathrm {~m} ^ { 3 }\) to \(0.120 \mathrm {~m} ^ { 3 }\) How much work was done by the gas during this process?

A) -16 kJ

B) 16 kJ

C) -40 kJ

D) 40 kJ

E) 0 kJ

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 200-kg flat-bottomed boat floats in fresh water, which has a density of 1000 kg/m³. If the base of the boat is 1.42 m wide and 4.53 m long, to what depth is the bottom of the boat submerged when it carries three passengers whose total mass is 257 \({~kg} \text { ? }\)

A) 7.10 cm

B) 7.53 cm

C) 7.95 cm

D) 8.52 cm

Q2) Consider a brick that is totally immersed in water, with the long edge of the brick vertical. The pressure on the brick is

A) the same on all surfaces of the brick.

B) greatest on the face with largest area.

C) greatest on the top of the brick.

D) greatest on the sides of the brick.

E) greatest on the bottom of the brick.

Q3) A wooden raft has a mass of 55 kg. When empty it floats in water (density \(\left. 1000 \mathrm {~kg} / \mathrm { m } ^ { 3 } \right)\) with 64% of its volume submerged. What maximum mass of sand can be put on the raft without sinking it?

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Chapter 14: Oscillations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identical balls oscillate with the same period T on Earth. Ball A is attached to an ideal spring and ball B swings back and forth to form a simple pendulum. These systems are now taken to the Moon, where g = 1.6 m/s², and set into oscillation. Which of the following statements about these systems are true? (There could be more than one correct choice.)

A) Both systems will have the same period on the Moon as on Earth.

B) On the Moon, ball A will take longer to complete one cycle than ball B.

C) On the Moon, ball B will take longer to complete one cycle than ball A.

D) On the Moon, ball A will execute more vibrations each minute than ball B.

E) On the Moon, ball B will execute more vibrations each minute than ball A.

Q2) A spaceship captain lands on an unknown planet. Before venturing forth, he needs to find out the acceleration due to gravity on that planet. All he has available to him is some thin light string, a stopwatch, and a small 2.75-kg metal ball (it was a rough landing). So he lets the ball swing from a 1.5-m length of the string, starting at rest, and measures that it takes 1.9 s for it to swing from the place where he released it to the place where it first stops as it reverses direction. What is the acceleration due to gravity on this planet?

Q3) If a pendulum makes 12 complete swings in 8.0 s, what are its (a) frequency and (b) period?

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) An elephant can hear sound with a frequency of 15 Hz. What is the wavelength of this wave if the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s?

Q2) A rope with a total mass of 25.0 kg is tied to a tree on one side of a 125-m wide ravine. You are pulling on the other end of the rope with a force of 415 N. If you pluck the rope at your end, how long will it take the pulse to travel across the ravine to the tree?

Q3) A certain factory whistle can be heard up to a distance of 2.5 km. Assuming that the acoustic output of the whistle is uniform in all directions, how much acoustic power is emitted by the whistle? The threshold of human hearing is 1.0 × 10^-12 W/m².

A) 0.079 mW

B) 0.026 mW

C) 0.26 mW

D) 0.79 mW

E) 2.6 mW

Q4) A certain siren radiates sound uniformly in all directions. At a distance of 17 m from the siren, the intensity level is 49 db. How many watts of power does this siren put out? The threshold of human hearing is 1.0 × 10^-12 W/m².

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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two tuning forks have frequencies of 440 and 522 Hz. What is the beat frequency if both are sounding simultaneously?

A) 962 Hz

B) 481 Hz

C) 82 Hz

D) 55 Hz

E) 41 Hz

Q2) An organ pipe closed at one end and open at the other end has two successive harmonics with frequencies of 2170 Hz and 2790 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the pipe?

Q3) A violin with string length 32 cm and string density \(1.5 \mathrm {~g} / \mathrm { cm }\) resonates in its fundamental with the first overtone of a 2.0-m organ pipe with one end closed and one end open. What is the tension in the string if the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s?

A) 1000 N

B) 110 N

C) 450 N

D) 4100 N

E) 56 N

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Light of the same wavelength passes through two diffraction gratings. One grating has 4000 lines/cm, and the other one has 6000 lines/cm. Which grating will spread the light through a larger angle in the first-order pattern?

A) the 4000-line grating

B) the 6000-line grating

C) Both gratings spread the light the same.

Q2) A 500-nm-wavelength beam of light illuminates a soap film with air on both sides and an index of refraction 1.33. If the beam of light is incident normally on the film, what is the minimum thickness of the film to make the reflected light enhanced in brightness?

A) 47.0 nm

B) 74.0 nm

C) 94.0 nm

D) 152 nm

E) 268 nm

Q3) Red light with a wavelength of 650 nm travels from air into a liquid with an index of 1.33. What are the frequency and wavelength of the light in the liquid? (c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s)

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Ray Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A wrench is placed at 30 cm in front of a diverging lens with a focal length of magnitude 10 cm. What is the magnification of the wrench?

A) 0.25

B) -0.25

C) 0.67

D) -0.67

E) 4.0

Q2) A 3.0-cm tall statue is 48 cm in front of a convex lens having a focal length of magnitude 20 cm.

(a) Is the image of the statue real or virtual?

(b) How far is the image from the lens?

(c) Is the image upright or inverted?

(d) How tall is the image?

Q3) A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of magnitude 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm in front of the mirror on the mirror's axis. Where is the image located?

A) 12 cm behind the mirror

B) 12 cm in front of the mirror

C) 60 cm behind the mirror

D) 60 cm in front of the mirror

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Optical Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) The objective lens of a microscope has a focal length of 2.4 mm and the eyepiece has an angular magnification of 15. The object is positioned 0.060 mm beyond the focal point of the objective. The focal point of the eyepiece is positioned at the real image formed by the objective. The near point of the microscope user is at 25 cm. What is the distance between the objective lens and the eyepiece?

A) 98 mm

B) 102 mm

C) 107 mm

D) 111 mm

E) 115 mm

Q2) A little known fact is that both Robinson Crusoe and Friday wore eyeglasses. As it so happens, Robinson Crusoe was farsighted while Friday was nearsighted. Whose eyeglasses did they use whenever they wanted to start a fire by focusing the sun's rays?

A) Robinson Crusoe's

B) Friday's

C) Both would work equally well.

D) Both actually worked, but Friday's was a little bit better.

E) Neither's worked, but fortunately they were in possession of matches.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) A conductor is placed in a steady external electric field. Which of the following statements are correct for this situation? (There could be more than one correct choice.)

A) The electric field is zero inside the conductor.

B) All the free electrons go to the surface of the conductor.

C) The surface of the conductor is neutral.

D) The electric field just outside the surface of the conductor is perpendicular to the surface.

E) None of the above statements are correct.

Q2) A thin spherical copper shell of radius 9.5 cm carries an excess charge of -4.2 nC. How many excess electrons are on (a) the outer surface of the shell, and (b) the inner surface? (e = 1.60 × 10^-19C)

Q3) How far apart should two protons be if the electrical force of repulsion on each one is equal to its weight on the earth? (k = 1/4 ₀ = 9.0 × 10⁹ N m²/C², e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C, m_proton = 1.67 × 10^-27 kg)

Q4) If a point charge of -30 µC experiences an electrostatic upward force of 27 mN at a certain location in the laboratory, what are the magnitude and direction of the electric field at that location?

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Electric Potential

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Q1) Two large parallel plates are separated by 1.0 mm of air. If the potential difference between them is 3.0 V, what is the magnitude of their surface charge densities? ( ₀ = 8.85 × 10^-12C²/N m²)

A) 2.7 × 10^-8 C/m²

B) 1.6 × 10^-4 C/m²

C) 5.3 × 10^-8 C/m²

D) 3.3 × 10^-4 C/m²

Q2) Two tiny grains of sand having charges of 4.0 C and -4.0 C are situated along the x-axis at x₁ = 2.0 m and x₂ = -2.0 m. What is electric potential energy of these grains relative to infinity? (k = 1/4 ₀ = 9.0 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)

A) -36 mJ

B) 36 mJ

C) 0 J

D) -72 mJ

E) 72 mJ

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Chapter 22: Current and Resistance

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Q1) A 25-m wire of diameter 0.30 mm draws 0.499 A when connected across a 3.0-V potential difference.

(a) What is the resistance of the wire?

(b) What is the resistivity of the material from which the wire is made?

Q2) A jeweler needs to electroplate gold, having an atomic mass of 196.97 g/mol, onto a bracelet. He knows that the charge carriers in the ionic solution are singly-ionized gold ions, Au⁺, and has calculated that he must deposit \(0.20 \mathrm {~g}\) of gold to reach the necessary thickness. How much current does he need to plate the bracelet in 3.0 hours? (e = 1.60 × 10^-19 C, N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ atoms/mol)

A) 9.1 mA

B) 540 mA

C) 33 A

D) 1800 mA

Q3) If a charge of 11.4 C passes through a computer in 1.75 min, what is the average current through the computer?

Q4) What potential difference is required across an 8.0- resistor to cause 2.0 A to flow through it?

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Chapter 23: Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) A capacitor C is connected in series with a resistor R across a battery and an open switch. If a second capacitor of capacitance 2C is connected in series with the first one, the time constant of the new RC circuit will be

A) the same as before.

B) larger than before.

C) smaller than before.

D) variable.

Q2) When two or more different capacitors are connected in series across a potential source, which of the following statements must be true? (There could be more than one correct choice.)

A) The total voltage across the combination is the algebraic sum of the voltages across the individual capacitors.

B) Each capacitor carries the same amount of charge.

C) The equivalent capacitance of the combination is less than the capacitance of any of the capacitors.

D) The potential difference across each capacitor is the same.

E) The capacitor with the largest capacitance has the most charge.

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Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) When a current-carrying wire is in your right hand, with your thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers point opposite to the direction of the magnetic field lines.

B) When a current-carrying wire is in your right hand, with your thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers point in the direction of the magnetic field lines.

C) When a current-carrying wire is in your left hand, with your thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers point in the direction of the magnetic field lines.

Q2) A flat circular coil having 57 turns of very thin wire has a diameter of 9.5 cm and carries 7.2 A of current. ( ₀ = 4 × 10^-7 T m/A)

(a) What is the strength of the magnetic field at the center of the coil?

(b) If the same length of wire were used to make a coil with twice the original diameter, how large would the magnetic field at the center be when it carried the same current as before?

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26

Chapter 25: EM Induction and Em Waves

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Q1) A flat circular loop having one turn and radius 5.0 cm is positioned with its plane perpendicular to a uniform 0.60-T magnetic field. The area of the loop is suddenly reduced to essentially zero in 0.50 ms. What emf is induced in the loop?

Q2) A conductor is formed into a flat loop that encloses an area of \(1.0 \mathrm {~m} ^ { 2 }\) The plane of the loop is oriented at a 30.0° angle with the xy-plane. A uniform time-varying magnetic field is oriented parallel to the z-axis. If the emf induced in the loop is 25.0\({~V}\) what is the rate at which the magnetic field strength is changing?

A) 29 T/s

B) 22 T/s

C) 50 T/s

D) 13 T/s

Q3) Unpolarized light is incident upon two ideal polarizing filters that do not have their transmission axes aligned. If \(19 \%\) of the light passes through this combination, what is the angle between the transmission axes of the two filters?

A) 52°

B) 72°

C) 0°

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Page 27

Chapter 26: AC Electricity

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Q1) What is the self-inductance of an ideal solenoid that is 300 cm long with a cross-sectional area of 1.00 × 10^-4 m² and has 1000 turns of wire? ( ₀ = 4 × 10^-7 T m/A)

A) 4.19 nH

B) 4.19 pH

C) 4.19 H

D) 41.9 nH

E) 41.9 µH

Q2) What is the phase angle between the voltages of the inductor and capacitor in a RLC series circuit?

A) 0°

B) 45°

C) 90°

D) 180°

E) 270°

Q3) A transformer is a device that normally

A) operates on either dc or ac. B) operates only on ac.

C) operates only on dc.

Q4) At what frequency does a 10- F capacitor have a reactance of 0.12 k ?

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Chapter 27: Relativity

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Q1) During a reaction, a reactant loses 4.8 × 10^-28 kg of mass. How many joules of energy are released? (c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s)

A) 4.3 × 10^-11 J

B) 1.4 × 10^-19 J

C) 1.6 × 10^-36 J

D) 5.3 × 10^-45 J

Q2) How fast must a meter stick move, relative to the frame of the observer making the measurement, so its length will be measured to be 0.60 m?

A) 0.40c

B) 0.60c

C) 0.70c

D) 0.80c

E) 0.90c

Q3) If the mass of a 1.0-kg book could be entirely converted into electrical energy, how many kW h of energy would that generate? (c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s)

Q4) How fast (in terms of the speed of light) should a moving clock travel if it is to be observed by a stationary observer as running at one-half its normal rate?

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Chapter 28: Quantum Physics

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Q1) Gamma rays are photons with very high energy. What is the wavelength of a gamma-ray photon with energy 7.7 × 10^-13 J? (c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s)

A) 2.6 × 10^-13 m

B) 3.9 × 10^-13 m

C) 3.1 × 10^-13 m

D) 3.5 × 10^-13 m

Q2) A monochromatic light beam is incident on the surface of a metal having a work function of 2.50 eV. If a 1.0-V stopping potential is required to make the electron current zero, what is the wavelength of light? (c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J)

A) 355 nm

B) 423 nm

C) 497 nm

D) 744 nm

Q3) A metal surface has a work function of 2.50 eV. What is the longest wavelength of light that will eject electrons from the surface of this metal? (1 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J, c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J s)

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules

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Q1) Given that the binding energy of the hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV, what is the energy when it is in the n = 5 state?

A) 2.72 eV

B) -2.72 eV

C) 0.544 eV

D) -0.544 eV

Q2) The shortest wavelength of a photon that can be emitted by a hydrogen atom, for which the initial state is \(n = 12 ,\) is closest to which one of the following values?

\(\left( c = 3.0 \times 10 ^ { 8 } \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s } \right.\) \(h = 6.626

\times 10 ^{- 34} \mathrm {~J} \cdot \mathrm { s }\) \(\left. 1 \mathrm { eV } = 1.60

\times 10 ^ { - 19 } \mathrm {~J} \right)\)

A) 92 nm

B) 82 nm

C) 72 nm

D) 62 nm

E) 52 nm

Q3) Write out the electron configuration for the ground state of the phosphorus atom, which has 15 electrons.

Q4) What is the energy (in electron-volts) of the n = 3 state of atomic hydrogen?

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics

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Q1) The radius R of a nucleus of mass number A is given by R = R₀ A^1/3, where R₀ = 1.2 × 10^-15 m, calculate the density of a nucleus that has contains 57 protons and 82 neutrons. The mass of a nucleon (proton or neutron) is 1.67 × 10^-27 kg.

Q2) Rubidium \(^{87}_{37}\) Rb is a naturally occurring isotope that undergoes ^- decay. What isotope is the product of this decay?

A) \(^{87}_{36}\) Kr

B) \(^{87}_{38}\) Kr

C) \(^{87}_{37}\)Rb

D) \(^{87}_{36}\) Sr

E) \(^{87}_{38}\)Sr

Q3) Consider the fusion reaction: \(^{2}_{1}\)H + \(^{2}_{1}\)H + \(^{2}_{1}\)H

\(^{4}_{2}\)He + \(^{1}_{1}\) H + \(^{1}_{0}\) n

The know atomic masses are \(^{2}_{1}\)H: 2.01410 u \(^{4}_{2}\)He: 4.00260 u \(^{1}_{1}\) H: 1.00783 u \(^{1}_{0}\) n: 1.008665 u where 1 u = 1.6605 × 10-27 kg. What mass of deuterium fuel, \(^{2}_{1}\)H, is used up in producing \(5.6 \times 10^{15} \mathrm {~J}\) of energy by this reaction?

Q4) How many protons, neutrons, and nucleons are there in a carbon-14 nucleus?

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