General Physical Science Test
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Course
Introduction
General Physical Science provides a broad overview of the fundamental concepts and principles in physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy. Designed for non-science majors and those seeking a foundational understanding of the physical world, this course explores topics such as the nature of matter and energy, forces and motion, the structure and dynamics of the Earth, weather and climate, and the universe beyond our planet. Emphasis is placed on the application of scientific reasoning, problem-solving skills, and real-world connections, enabling students to appreciate the relevance and impact of science in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Chapter 1: Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object's weight would be different on Earth and on the Moon.Which of the following would also be different?
A) Mass density
B) Mass
C) Length
D) Volume
E) None of these
Answer: E
Q2) On a computer,a megabyte of memory is ______________ bytes.
Answer: one million (10<sup>6</sup>)
Q3) The standard unit of length,the meter,is now defined with reference to A) a meridian on the Earth.
B) the French meter.
C) the speed of light.
D) a platinum-iridium bar.
E) a member of the royal family.
Answer: C
Q4) In the metric system,a penny might be called a(n)______________ dollar. Answer: centi-
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is true for deceleration?
A) The acceleration is in the direction opposite the motion.
B) The acceleration is zero.
C) The acceleration is necessarily negative.
D) The velocity remains constant.
Answer: A
Q2) A ball is thrown up in the air with an initial velocity of 58.8 m/s upward.How long does it take the ball
a. to go up?
b. to come down after reaching maximum height?
Answer: a.6.0 s
b.6.0 s
Q3) Because of air resistance,an object falling a great distance may reach a ______________ velocity.
Answer: terminal
Q4) Speed is a(n)______________ quantity.
Answer: scalar
Q5) The SI unit of centripetal acceleration is ______________. Answer: meters per second squared (m/s<sup>2</sup>)
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Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newton's third law of motion states that the force pair acting on different objects consists of two forces that
A) are under the influence of gravity. B) are equal and in the same direction. C) always produce an acceleration.
D) are equal and in opposite directions.
Answer: D
Q2) In an equation,the symbol m generally stands for A) inertia.
B) torque.
C) momentum.
D) mass.
E) meters.
Answer: D
Q3) G (big G)is not a(n)______________,as g (little g)is.
Answer: acceleration
Q4) A 6.0-kg object exerts a force of 8.0 N on a 2.0-kg object.What is the magnitude of the force on the 6.0-kg object?
Answer: 8.0 N
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Chapter 4: Work and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a 6-kg object increases its potential energy by 180 J,approximately how has its position changed?
A) It has risen vertically 3 m.
B) It has fallen vertically 3 m.
C) It has risen vertically 30 m.
D) It has moved horizontally 30 m.
Q2) Currently,in the United States,which fuel is utilized to produce the majority of electrical power?
A) Oil
B) Natural gas
C) Coal
D) Nuclear
Q3) Work in the amount of 280 J is done in lifting an object a distance of 4.0 m in a time of 7.0 s.
a. How much force did it take to lift the object?
b. What was the power input?
Q4) The sum of the kinetic energy and potential energy is called ______________ energy.
Q5) Kinetic and potential energies are forms of ______________ energy.
Q6) In changing from one form to another,energy is always ______________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ______________ is an ultra-hot collection of electrically charged particles.
A) gas
B) liquid
C) plasma
D) solid
Q2) The Fahrenheit scale has a ______________ degree size than the Celsius scale.
Q3) A temperature of degrees 5 Fahrenheit is equivalent to _____ Kelvin.
A) 258.2
B) 278.0
C) -15.0
D) -268.0
Q4) For every natural process,the entropy of the universe
A) is destroyed.
B) decreases.
C) increases.
D) remains constant.
Q5) An ideal gas is confined to a container with an adjustable volume.If the number of molecules and the temperature are held constant,by what factor will the volume change when the pressure is tripled?
Page 7
Q6) How much heat is necessary to change 20 g of ice at -10°C into water at 20°C?
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Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following radiations has the smallest frequency?
A) Infrared
B) Visible
C) Ultraviolet
D) X-rays
Q2) The intensity of a 70-dB whistle is doubled.What is the new decibel level?
Q3) Light waves travel fastest in
A) water.
B) glass.
C) a vacuum.
D) air.
E) none of these; they travel at the same speed in all these media.
Q4) Wave frequency is inversely proportional to A) amplitude.
B) period.
C) wave velocity.
D) all of these.
Q5) The relationship of wave speed,wavelength,and frequency is given by
Page 8
Q6) A pendulum has how many natural frequencies?
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Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) FM radio reception may be blocked by buildings because the wavelengths are too short to be ______________ around buildings.
Q2) The waveform of interfering waves is described by the principle of ______________.
Q3) An object is placed 10 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens.The lens has a focal length of f = 5 cm.Where is the image formed?
A) 3.3 cm to the left of the lens
B) 3.3 cm to the right of the lens
C) 10 cm to the left of the lens
D) 10 cm to the right of the lens
Q4) A light wave traveling in air strikes a plane mirror surface at an angle of 30° relative to the normal.The wave is reflected at an angle of
A) 30° relative to the surface.
B) 30° relative to the normal.
C) 60° relative to the normal.
D) none of these.
Q5) A diamond is said to have "fire" because of ______________.
Q6) For total internal reflection,light is reflected and none is ______________.
Q7) ______________ waves cannot be polarized.
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n)______________,electrons do not move freely.
Q2) An insulator has a positive electric charge of 8 × 10 -17 C.How many electrons were added or removed?
A) 500 electrons removed
B) 20 electrons removed
C) 500 electrons added
D) 20 electrons added
Q3) According to the law of poles,like poles ______________.
Q4) A steady current of 0.15 A exists in a wire for 20 s.
a. How much net charge passes by a point in the wire?
b. How many electrons does this charge represent?
Q5) A step-down transformer has more windings on the ______________ coil.
Q6) A(n)______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of +1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> coulomb.
Q7) The unit for current is the A) ampere.
B) ohm.
C) coulomb.
D) volt.
Page 10
Q8) AC voltage may be stepped up or stepped down using a(n)______________.
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of electrons in a hydrogen atom is ______________.
Q2) The most important force in the hydrogen atom is
A) the nuclear force.
B) the gravitational force.
C) the electromagnetic force.
D) none of these.
Q3) Which of the following principal quantum number values is impossible?
A) 2.5
B) 16
C) 3
D) 1
Q4) Tripling the frequency of a photon would ______________ its energy.
Q5) In the Bohr model,the higher the value of n,the farther from the nucleus the electron is located.In the quantum model,the higher the value of n,the farther from the nucleus the electron ______________ is located.
Q6) The development of physics since about 1900 is called A) neoclassical physics.
B) Newtonian physics.
C) classical physics.
D) modern physics.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diameter of the average atom is about ______________ m.
Q2) When an alpha particle hits a \({ } _ { 19 } ^ { 39 } \mathrm {~K}\)
Nucleus,one of the products is a proton.The other product is
A) \({ } _ { 18 } ^ { 36 } \mathrm { Ar }\)
B) \({ } _ { 17 } ^ { 38 } \mathrm { Cl }\)
C) \({ } _ { 20 } ^ { 42 } \mathrm { Ca }\)
D) none of these.
Q3) A scientist named ______________ discovered the proton in 1919.
Q4) An exoergic reaction
A) absorbs energy.
B) requires a high temperature.
C) releases energy.
D) occurs only in stars.
Q5) Which of the following is a transuranium element?
A) Am
B) Pa
C) Ra
D) Tc
Q6) The number of neutrons available to cause fission in a nuclear reactor is adjusted by inserting or withdrawing the ______________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater amount of substance in a solution is generally called the A) salt.
B) solute.
C) molar concentrate.
D) solvent.
Q2) About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element?
A) Helium
B) Iron
C) Hydrogen
D) Silicon
Q3) The element ______________ was the gas used in the Hindenburg.
Q4) In 1869,a major event in the history of chemistry occurred; it was the A) discovery of the law of definite proportions.
B) discovery of the octet rule.
C) discovery of the law of conservation of mass.
D) development of the periodic table.
Q5) In a given period,the element of Group ______________ has the lowest ionization energy.
Q6) The formula for sulfuric acid is _________________.
Q7) The alkali metals have ______________ valence electron(s).
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Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the formula of a compound formed from the ions M<sup>1+</sup> and X<sup>3-</sup>?
A) M<sub>3</sub>X
B) MX<sub>3</sub>
C) MX
D) None of these
Q2) Element A,mass 10.00 g,reacts exactly with 2.00 g of element B to form 12.00 g of compound AB.If 5.00 g of element A is reacted with 2.00 g of element B to form the same compound,what mass of compound AB will be formed?
A) 7.00 g
B) 6.00 g
C) 17.00 g
D) 12.00 g
Q3) The formula for nickel(II)nitrate would be ______________.
Q4) The preferred name of NiS is
A) nickel(III) sulfide.
B) nickel(II) sulfide.
C) nickel(I) sulfide.
D) nickel sulfide.
Q5) The formula mass for C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> is ______________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen,bursts into flame,and forms an oxide is called a(n)______________ reaction.
Q2) When the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at the same rate,the reaction is said to have reached ______________.
Q3) In general,fast reactions
A) are exothermic.
B) are endothermic.
C) have low activation energies.
D) have high activation energies.
Q4) How many atoms are in 1.00 mol of Mg?
A) 24.3
B) 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
C) 24.3 × 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
D) 24.3 × 10<sup>23</sup>
Q5) A neutral aqueous solution has a pH of ______________.
Q6) State which element is oxidized and which is reduced in the reaction Al + 3F<sub>2</sub> 2AlF<sub>3.</sub>
Q7) Complete and balance the equation: Al + HCl ? ____________________
Q8) The formula for the hydronium ion is ______________.
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saturated hydrocarbon contains only ______________ bonds,and its hydrogen content is at a maximum.
Q2) A monomer may be repeated many times in the formation of a chainlike molecule called a(n)______________.
Q3) Draw the structural formula for 1,1-dimethylcyclopropane.
Q4) We get sucrose and water if we chemically combine
A) fructose and maltose.
B) glucose and fructose.
C) maltose and lactose.
D) glucose and lactose.
Q5) Which compound has three hydroxyl groups?
A) Ethylene glycol
B) Ethanol
C) Cholesterol
D) Glycerol
Q6) The continuous-chain alkane with the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub> is named ______________.
Q7) The main component of the cell walls of plants is the carbohydrate called ______________.
Q8) The hydrocarbon symbolized by a square is called ______________.
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) If it is 1:00 P.M.EST in Washington,D.C.,what is the time in Denver,Colorado,the longitude of which is 30° more westerly?
A) 9:00 A.M. MST
B) 11:00 A.M. MST
C) 3:00 P.M. MST
D) Noon. MST
Q2) The parallel that is a great circle is the ______________.
Q3) The ______________ angle is measured between the horizon and the line of sight to the object.
A) declination
B) altitude
C) inclination
D) zenith
Q4) Which two of the following places are nearest to each other??Place A at latitude 20°N,longitude 90°W?Place B at latitude 30°N,longitude 90°W?Place C at latitude 30°N,longitude 75°W?Place D at latitude 20°N,longitude 75°W
Q5) The Sun is at the autumnal equinox on ______________.
Q6) Determine the maximum altitude of the Sun on December 22 for an observer located at 30°N.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Great White Spot is a feature of ______________.
Q2) The apparent displacement in the direction of light coming from a star because of Earth's orbital motion is called the ______________.
Q3) Planets in a planetary system other than the solar system
A) have never been detected.
B) have been detected.
C) are an impossibility.
D) are universally present.
Q4) According to today's classification system,how many major planets are there in the solar system?
A) 10
B) 9
C) 8
D) 11
Q5) Earth's albedo is ______________.
Q6) Which of the following planets moves the slowest in its orbit around the Sun?
A) Earth
B) Mars
C) Venus
D) Mercury
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Halley's Comet returns about every ______________ years.
A) 4
B) 12
C) 1000
D) 10,000
E) 76
Q2) The full moon by definition occurs
A) for only a day.
B) for 7-3/8 days.
C) only for an instant.
D) only once every month.
Q3) A high tide is occurring at Charleston,South Carolina (80°W,33°N).At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring?
A) 100°E
B) 80°E
C) 60°E
D) 40°E
E) 20°E
Q4) Because Jupiter's four large moons were discovered by Galileo,they are called ______________ moons.
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an irregular galaxy that can be seen from the Southern Hemisphere?
A) The Crab Nebula
B) The Sagittarius Dwarf
C) The Small Magellanic Cloud
D) The Horsehead Nebula
Q2) The angular measurement in hours,minutes,and seconds from the celestial prime meridian eastward is called _______________.
A) sundial
B) protractor
C) declination
D) right ascension
Q3) The two major types of nebulae are
A) emission nebulae and dark nebulae.
B) bright nebulae and dark nebulae.
C) bright nebulae and reflection nebulae.
D) reflection nebulae and emission nebulae.
Q4) Familiar groups of stars that are part of a constellation or parts of different constellations are called ______________.
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Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Q1) The absolute moisture content of the air is 7.7 g/ft<sup>3</sup> on a day when the air temperature is 75°F.What is the relative humidity?
Q2) The rate at which the temperature decreases with altitude is called the ______________.
Q3) Doppler radar is replacing conventional radar in weather forecasting because A) it can measure wind speeds.
B) Doppler radar is widely used in police cars.
C) it is cheaper.
D) government agencies are required to use the latest equipment.
Q4) A barometer that does not use mercury is a(n)______________ barometer.
Q5) On a particular day,the air temperature is 75°F.If lowering the air temperature by 9° would cause the air to be saturated,what is the relative humidity?
Q6) When the relative humidity is 100%,the air temperature is equal to A) the lapse rate.
B) 100°F.
C) the dew point temperature.
D) none of these.
Q7) The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is called its ______________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air pollution results from ______________ combustion of ______________ fuels.
Q2) Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
A) Uranium
B) Oil
C) Coal
D) Gas
Q3) When the dew point is below 0°C,which of the following is likely to form?
A) Sleet
B) Snow
C) Hail
D) Dew
Q4) Changes in Earth's thermal balance by decreasing the transparency of the atmosphere to insolation can result from ______________ pollution.
Q5) Hurricanes derive their energy from ______________.
Q6) Smog is a mixture of smoke and A) fog.
B) CO<sub>2.</sub>
C) O<sub>2.</sub>
D) CO.
Q7) A common fuel impurity in fossil fuels is ______________.
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Q1) Longitudinal seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.
Q2) The point of the initial energy release of an earthquake is called the A) shadow zone.
B) subduction zone.
C) focus.
D) epicenter.
Q3) The basic mechanism for plate movement is thought to be A) earthquake surface waves.
B) the tidal force of the Moon.
C) convection cells in the asthenosphere.
D) earthquake body waves.
Q4) The lithosphere is
A) a collection of plates separated by oceans.
B) a collection of close-fitting plates.
C) viscous, flowing magma.
D) a solid, unbroken, spherical shell.
Q5) The three principal types of mountain building are fold,volcanic,and
Q6) S seismic waves can travel only through ______________ material.
Q7) A(n)______________ fault occurs as the result of expansive forces.
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Q1) Which igneous rock has light color (high silica content)and large grains (coarse texture)?
A) Gabbro
B) Granite
C) Rhyolite
D) Basalt
Q2) Crater Lake,atop Mount Mazama in Oregon,occupies a volcanic
A) caldera.
B) fissure.
C) vent.
D) fumarole.
Q3) Orthoclase and plagioclase are the two major types of ______________.
Q4) James Hutton formulated the concept of A) catastrophism.
B) superposition.
C) plate tectonics.
D) uniformitarianism.
Q5) The ratio of a mineral sample's weight to the weight of an equal volume of water is called the mineral's ______________.
Q6) The hardest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is named ______________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Q1) At the end and along the sides of a glacier,the sediment deposits may form ridges known as ______________.
Q2) Greenland and Antarctica are covered with glacial ice sheets called ______________ glaciers.
Q3) Regions on Earth that have the driest climates are known as ______________.
Q4) About what percent of Earth's surface is covered with water?
A) 70%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 30%
Q5) A loop-like bend in a river channel is called a(n)______________.
Q6) The downslope movement of soil and rock under the influence of gravity is known,in general,as ______________.
Q7) The most important climatic factors that affect the rate of chemical weathering are heat and ______________.
Q8) The shallowly submerged areas that border the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
Q9) Frost wedging is a common type of ______________ weathering.
Q10) Seamounts with flat tops are known as ______________.
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Q1) The oldest algal fossils are found on the continent of ______________.
Q2) Archaeopteryx fossils are those of a prehistoric A) bird.
B) crinoid.
C) trilobite.
D) ground sloth.
Q3) Eons are divided first into A) eras. B) periods.
C) millennia. D) epochs.
Q4) Lead that comes from radioactive decay is called ______________ lead.
Q5) The Mesozoic era began about how many million years ago?
A) 3
B) 545
C) 245
D) 65
Q6) Lack of knowledge of the phenomenon called ______________ led Lord Kelvin to an incorrect estimate of the age of Earth.
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Q7) Carbon dating was used to establish the age of the Shroud of ______________.