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General Pathology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles underlying disease processes. The course explores key concepts such as cell injury and adaptation, inflammation, tissue repair, hemodynamic disorders, immune responses, neoplasia, and genetic and environmental factors that influence disease. Through examining the mechanisms and morphological manifestations of disease at the cellular and tissue levels, students gain a foundational understanding necessary for clinical medicine and further studies in specialized pathology fields.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1036 Page 2
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10 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Columnar bronchial epithelium irritated by chronic exposure to cigarette smoke changes into stratified squamous epithelium.This change is an example of:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Degeneration
Answer: D
Q2) Enlargement of the heart caused by hypertension is a result of:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Dysplasia
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following blood components has fibrinolytic activity and can lyze thrombi?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Complement membrane attack complex
D) Plasmin
E) Prostaglandin
Answer: D
Q2) A bacterial throat infection ("strep throat")is associated with a white exudate surrounded by reddened mucosa.This is an example of:
A) Serous inflammation
B) Fibrinous inflammation
C) Abscess
D) Gangrene
E) Ulcerative inflammation
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE)attached to mast cells?
A) Hay fever (allergic rhinitis)
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Polyarteritis nodosa
E) Ankylosing spondylitis
Answer: A
Q2) All the following are lymphokines produced by macrophages or T cells except:
A) Interleukins
B) Immunoglobulins
C) Interferons
D) Tumor necrosis factor
E) Colony-stimulating factors
Answer: B
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Q1) Many tumors secrete their own growth factors.This form of stimulation is called:
A) Autocrine
B) Heterocrine
C) Paracrine
D) Endocrine
E) Exocrine
Q2) A lung tumor that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:
A) Lymphatics
B) Nerves
C) Blood vessels
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
E) Pleural fluid
Q3) Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Infrared light
C) X-rays
D) Radon
E) Gamma rays
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most congenital malformations in humans are:
A) Of unknown cause
B) Related to infection during pregnancy
C) Caused by physical agents
D) Caused by drugs
E) Caused by environmental pollution
Q2) All the following are routinely used in prenatal diagnosis except:
A) Ultrasound
B) Chorionic villus biopsy
C) Fetal skin biopsy
D) Amniotic fluid analysis
E) Maternal blood analysis
Q3) The X-linked bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of factor VIII is called:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Hemosiderosis
D) Hemochromatosis
E) Hemorrhagic fever
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs is most affected by venous embolism?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Liver
E) Kidneys
Q2) Red infarcts are typically found in the:
A) Spleen
B) Heart
C) Kidney
D) Thyroid
E) Small intestine
Q3) Iron deficiency anemia develops most often as a result of:
A) Hematemesis
B) Hematuria
C) Metrorrhagia
D) Hemothorax
E) Hemopericardium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common form of arterial hypertension is considered to be:
A) Essential or idiopathic
B) Caused by kidney disease
C) Caused by adrenal cortical hyperactivity
D) Secondary to adrenal medullar tumors
E) Secondary to the narrowing of the aorta
Q2) Which is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
Q3) Rheumatic carditis is typically preceded by:
A) Streptococcal throat infection
B) Staphylococcal skin infection
C) Gonococcal arthritis
D) Coxsackie B virus myositis
E) Influenza
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Q1) Pleural tumors are usually associated with:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Pyothorax
D) Pleural effusion
E) Empyema
Q2) Attacks of intrinsic asthma may be precipitated by all the following except:
A) Exercise
B) Bronchial infection
C) Aspirin
D) Corticosteroids
E) Psychological stress
Q3) Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by:
A) Granuloma formation
B) Abscess formation
C) Lobar pneumonia
D) Acute bronchitis
E) Acute bronchiolitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microcytic hypochromic anemia with low hemosiderin stores in the bone marrow will respond favorably to treatment with:
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B 2
C) Folic acid
D) Iron
E) Selenium
Q2) The most common symptom of lymphomas is:
A) Lymph node enlargement
B) Infection
C) Fever
D) Pruritus
E) Sweating
Q3) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atrophic gastritis is characterized by:
A) Xerostomia
B) Achlorhydria
C) Gastric hyperacidity
D) Achalasia
E) Reflux esophagitis
Q2) The changes typical of Crohn's disease are found most often in the:
A) Anus
B) Rectum
C) Sigmoid colon
D) Transverse colon
E) Terminal ileum
Q3) The most common tumor of the salivary glands is:
A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D) Adenocarcinoma of major ducts
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
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Q1) Which of the following serum enzymes is the most reliable marker of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Amylase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) Yellow cholesterol gallstones are typically found in association with:
A) Hemochromatosis
B) Viral hepatitis
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Chronic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
E) Obesity
Q3) In cirrhosis the surface of the liver is:
A) Smooth and shiny
B) Smooth but fatty
C) Dark brown and rough
D) Nodular
E) Covered with fibrin or pus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functionally most pancreatic carcinomas are characterized by:
A) Hyperinsulinism
B) Excess of glucagon
C) Hypergastrinemia
D) Excess of amylase
E) No hormonal symptoms
Q2) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
Q3) The most prominent histologic feature of chronic pancreatitis is:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Fibrosis
D) Ongoing necrosis
E) Apoptosis
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Q1) All the following are renal complications of diabetes except:
A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)
C) Arteriolar hyalinosis
D) Papillary necrosis
E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
Q2) The most common malignant tumor of the urinary tract is:
A) Renal cell carcinoma
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Carcinoma of the renal pelvis
D) Carcinoma of the ureter
E) Carcinoma of the urinary bladder
Q3) All the following findings are typical of membranous nephropathy except:
A) Proteinuria
B) Pyuria
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Edema
E) Deposits of immunoglobulin G in the glomeruli
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Q1) An infertile man was found to have no scrotal testicles.The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Klinefelter's syndrome
B) Polyorchidism
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Orchitis
E) Epididymo-orchitis
Q2) Which of the following testicular tumors may cause premature puberty?
A) Seminoma
B) Yolk sac carcinoma
C) Teratoma
D) Leydig cell tumor
E) Sertoli cell tumor
Q3) The most common cause of prostatic enlargement in 60- to 70-year-old men is:
A) Prostatitis
B) Urethral obstruction
C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
D) Prostatic adenoma
E) Prostatic carcinoma
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Q1) Inflammation of the fallopian tubes is called:
A) Cervicitis
B) Endometritis
C) Salpingitis
D) Oophoritis
E) Vulvovaginitis
Q2) Endometrial hyperplasia is typically a result of prolonged exposure to:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Thyroid hormones
D) Estrogen
E) Progesterone
Q3) Which of the following is part of the external female genitalia?
A) Vagina
B) Vulva
C) Cervix
D) Endometrium
E) Fallopian tube
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Q1) All the following are features of fibrocystic disease of the breast except:
A) Fibrosis
B) Cystic change
C) Epithelial cell proliferation
D) Adenosis
E) Cystosarcoma
Q2) All the following are used successfully in the treatment of breast cancer except:
A) Antiestrogen drugs
B) Cytotoxic drugs
C) Surgery
D) Radiation therapy
E) Hypnosis
Q3) The breast secretes milk in response to hormonal stimulation with:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
E) Aldosterone
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
Q2) Amenorrhea and galactorrhea are typically produced by tumors that are classified as:
A) Pituitary carcinoma
B) Somatostatinoma
C) Glucagonoma
D) Prolactinoma
E) Corticotropic adenoma
Q3) What is the color of adrenal adenoma typically found in Cushing's syndrome?
A) White
B) Red
C) Blue
D) Yellow
E) Black
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes predisposes the skin to:
A) Tumors
B) Autoimmune diseases
C) Infections
D) Hyperplasia
E) Hyperpigmentation
Q2) Ringworm lesions are caused by:
A) Worms
B) Parasites
C) Fungi
D) Bacteria
E) Viruses
Q3) Measles present with:
A) Maculopapular rash
B) Vesicular eruption
C) Billions eruption
D) Disseminated furunculosis
E) Ulcerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aseptic necrosis of bones may be caused by all the following except:
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Thrombotic occlusion of a nutrient artery
C) Trauma
D) Bacteria
E) Drugs
Q2) Which vitamin is essential for the formation of bones?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q3) Subcutaneous nodules composed of a central area of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by macrophages and lymphocytes are typical of:
A) Infectious arthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Gout
E) Rickets
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Q1) The transmission of impulses from the nerve to the striated muscle at the neuromuscular junction is mediated by the release of:
A) Adrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Cholinesterase
D) Norepinephrine
E) Acetaldehyde
Q2) Following wallerian degeneration,the nerve function is restored by the:
A) Regeneration of dendrites from the perikaryon
B) Regeneration of the axon from the peripheral parts of the transected nerve
C) Regeneration of the axon from the proximal portion of the transected axon
D) Loss of the perikaryon
E) Loss of the Nissl substance
Q3) Skeletal muscles are:
A) Composed of either type I (slow)or type II (fast)fibers
B) Composed of rapidly dividing cells
C) Composed of nondividing cells that can be stimulated to enter mitosis by a variety of cytokines
D) In close contact with nerves
E) Major storage site of calcium and phosphate
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Q1) The most common location of glioblastoma multiforme is:
A) Cerebral hemisphere
B) Pons
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
E) Spinal cord
Q2) In Parkinson's disease,which part of the brain shows depigmentation?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Occipital cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Substantia nigra
E) Medulla oblongata
Q3) Multiple plaques of demyelination visible by CT scanning are typical of:
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) Huntington's disease
C) Viral encephalitis
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Brain abscess
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Q1) Which of the following is found in all patients with glaucoma?
A) Myopia
B) Mydriasis
C) Hypermetropia
D) Opacities of the lens
E) Increased intraocular pressure
Q2) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
Q3) Allergic conjunctivitis is typically mediated by:
A) T lymphocytes
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
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Q1) The most typical feature of Ménière's disease is:
A) Deafness
B) Vertigo
C) Strabismus
D) Otosclerosis
E) Acoustic hallucinations
Q2) Which of the following tumors may cause vertigo?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Schwannoma of the VIII nerve
D) Neurilemoma of the VII nerve
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q3) Otosclerosis involves all the following except:
A) Malleus
B) Incus
C) Stapes
D) Oval window
E) Acoustic nerve
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