Course Introduction
General Pathology
Final Exam Questions
General Pathology is the study of the fundamental mechanisms of disease at the cellular, tissue, and systemic levels. This course explores the processes underlying cellular injury, inflammation, healing, and neoplasia, as well as disorders related to immune response, hemodynamics, and genetic mutations. Students will learn to recognize how normal physiological processes are disrupted by pathological agents and conditions, forming a foundational understanding crucial for subsequent studies in specific disease entities and clinical medicine. The course also introduces laboratory techniques and diagnostic tools used to investigate pathological changes in human tissues.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1036
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20520
Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibition of ATP production by hypoxia causes all the following except:
A) Increased production of lactic acid in the cytoplasm
B) Degranulation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Dilatation of rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Swelling of the mitochondria
E) Alkalinization of the hyaloplasm
Answer: E
Q2) Which type of necrosis is found in granulomas of tuberculosis?
A) Coagulation necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Fibrinoid necrosis
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granulomas consist of all the following cells except:
A) Lymphocytes
B) Macrophages
C) Epithelioid cells
D) Giant cells
E) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following blood components has fibrinolytic activity and can lyze thrombi?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Complement membrane attack complex
D) Plasmin
E) Prostaglandin
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amyloid A formed in response to chronic infections is typically deposited in all the following organs except the:
A) Brain
B) Rectum
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Adrenals
Answer: A
Q2) For the diagnosis of AIDS,it is important to test the patient for antibodies to:
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the stomach has the highest incidence in:
A) England
B) Japan
C) United States
D) Israel
E) France
Q2) A lung tumor that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:
A) Lymphatics
B) Nerves
C) Blood vessels
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
E) Pleural fluid
Q3) The incidence of which cancer has been rising in the United States during the past 20 years?
A) Carcinoma of the lung
B) Carcinoma of the liver
C) Carcinoma of the stomach
D) Carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Malignant brain tumors
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are considered possible causes of the TORCH syndrome except:
A) Toxoplasma
B) Rubella virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Alcohol
Q2) Children born with a fragile X chromosome suffer from:
A) Muscle weakness
B) Blindness
C) Spinal cord deformities
D) Mental retardation
E) Glucose intolerance
Q3) Trisomy of chromosome 21 is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Down's syndrome
D) WAGR (Wilms' tumor,aniridia,genital malformations,mental retardation)syndrome
E) Congenital retinoblastoma
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oncotic edema caused by reduction of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma is a typical feature of chronic failure of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Lung
D) Liver
E) Thyroid
Q2) All the following arc examples of edema except:
A) Anasarca
B) Ascites
C) Hydrothorax
D) Hematopericardium
E) Periorbital swelling
Q3) Most arterial emboli that cause cerebral infarcts originate from the:
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Cerebral veins
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
Q2) Myocardial infarction is accompanied by typical biochemical changes.Elevation of which enzyme in the blood occurs first after the occlusion of a coronary artery?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Lactate dehydrogenase
E) Acid phosphatase
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung infection that develops in patients who have heart failure and pulmonary edema is called:
A) Interstitial pneumonia
B) Hypostatic pneumonia
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E) Lobar pneumonia
Q2) Fibrin-rich hyaline membranes and protein-rich intra-alveolar edema are features of:
A) Atelectasis
B) Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD)in adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C) Emphysema
D) Bronchiectasis
E) Aspiration pneumonia
Q3) All the following lung lesions have been linked to asbestos exposure except:
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Pleural fibrosis and plaques
D) Lung cancer
E) Mesothelioma
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consumption of platelets associated with widespread hemorrhages is a feature of:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Q2) Epstein-Barr virus,a possible cause of Burkitt's lymphoma,has a predilection for infecting:
A) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) Plasma cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) Eosinophils
Q3) The most common form of leukemia in children younger than the age of 5 years is:
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E) Plasma cell leukemia
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obstructive ileus may be caused by all the following except:
A) Gallstones
B) Fecaliths
C) Volvulus
D) Incarceration of intestinal loops in a hernia sac
E) Spinal cord injury
Q2) Which of the following diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?
A) Diabetes
B) Radiation enteritis
C) Pancreatic insufficiency
D) Celiac sprue
E) Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
Q3) The best serologic marker of colonic carcinoma is:
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) Carcinoembryonic antigen
C) Chorionic gonadotropin
D) Alkaline phosphatase
E) Acid phosphatase
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gallbladder carcinoma is:
A) More common in females than in males
B) More often squamous than adenocarcinoma
C) More often invading the intestine than the liver
D) More common in young people than in old people
E) More often accompanied by jaundice than carcinoma of the common bile duct
Q2) Which aspect of cirrhosis accounts for the development of esophageal varices?
A) Portal hypertension
B) Decreased level of fibrinogen in blood
C) Retention of sodium
D) Low osmolality of the plasma
E) Hypersplenism
Q3) Which of the following serum enzymes is the most reliable marker of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Amylase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreas can be divided into several parts,the largest of which is the:
A) Endocrine part
B) Tail
C) Head
D) Body
E) Accessory part
Q2) Primary diabetes mellitus is:
A) Caused by viral infection
B) Immune mediated
C) Multifactorial
D) Typically a disease of childhood
E) Caused by pancreatic tumors
Q3) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are renal complications of diabetes except:
A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)
C) Arteriolar hyalinosis
D) Papillary necrosis
E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
Q2) A solid renal tumor of a 4-year-old child was histologically composed of immature cells reminiscent of fetal tubules.This tumor represents a(n):
A) Renal cell adenoma
B) Renal cell carcinoma
C) Wilms' tumor
D) Interstitial cell fibroma
E) Teratoma
Q3) All the following findings are typical of membranous nephropathy except:
A) Proteinuria
B) Pyuria
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Edema
E) Deposits of immunoglobulin G in the glomeruli
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following testicular tumors may cause premature puberty?
A) Seminoma
B) Yolk sac carcinoma
C) Teratoma
D) Leydig cell tumor
E) Sertoli cell tumor
Q2) Most carcinomas of the prostate:
A) Present with symptoms of cystitis
B) Present early in their course with urinary obstruction
C) Invade early into the urethra
D) Occur in the peripheral part (posterior lobe)of the prostate
E) Tend to secrete androgens
Q3) Genital herpes typically presents as:
A) Painful prostatic enlargement
B) Epididymitis
C) Infertility
D) Urethral papilloma
E) Vesicles on the penis
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16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women with carcinoma of the endometrium are at an increased risk of developing carcinoma of the:
A) Ovary
B) Vulva
C) Adrenals
D) Liver
E) Lung
Q2) In addition to the stage of the tumor,the most important prognostic factor for women with endometrial carcinoma is:
A) Age
B) Presence of endocrine risk factors
C) Obesity
D) Hypertension
E) History of irregular menstrual periods
Q3) Most tumors of the endometrium are:
A) Benign
B) Premalignant
C) Composed of striated muscle cells
D) Found in postmenopausal women
E) Found in prepubertal girls
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of breast masses has an accuracy of:
A) 100%
B) 95%
C) 75%
D) 50%
E) 25%
Q2) If a woman has a family history of cancer (i.e. ,her mother and her sister had cancer of the breast),her chances of developing breast cancer are:
A) The same as in any other woman
B) Somewhat increased (1 to 2 times)
C) Slightly increased (2 to 3 times)
D) Significantly increased (5 to 6 times)
E) Very high and she will inevitably develop breast cancer
Q3) All the following are features of fibrocystic disease of the breast except:
A) Fibrosis
B) Cystic change
C) Epithelial cell proliferation
D) Adenosis
E) Cystosarcoma
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is:
A) Pituitary adenoma
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid hyperplasia
D) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome
Q2) What is the color of adrenal adenoma typically found in Cushing's syndrome?
A) White
B) Red
C) Blue
D) Yellow
E) Black
Q3) The C cells of the thyroid secrete:
A) Thyroglobulin
B) Thyroxin
C) Triiodothyronine
D) Calcitonin
E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preinvasive carcinoma of the sun-exposed skin is called:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Basal cell carcinoma
E) Mycosis fungoides
Q2) Which of the following pigmented lesions has the highest propensity to progress to malignant melanoma?
A) Ephelis
B) Lentigo
C) Dermal nevus
D) Blue nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
Q3) The most common epithelial malignant tumor of the face is:
A) Fibroma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Malignant melanoma
E) Lymphoma
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases has the highest incidence among postmenopausal women?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteomalacia
D) Achondroplasia
E) Osteomyelitis
Q2) Bowlegs,craniotabes,and rachitic rosary in a growing child are signs of:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Vitamin B deficiency
D) Vitamin D deficiency
E) Vitamin A deficiency
Q3) The extracellular organic matrix of bones is called:
A) Osteon
B) Osteoid
C) Osteoblast
D) Osteocyte
E) Osteoclast
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Botulism,a disease caused by a toxin from Clostridium botulinum,is marked by:
A) Tetany
B) Convulsions
C) Paralysis of muscles
D) Loss of sensation
E) Hypercalcemia
Q2) The most common histologic type of soft tissue sarcoma in adults is:
A) Liposarcoma
B) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Leiomyosarcoma
E) Synovial sarcoma
Q3) Following wallerian degeneration,the nerve function is restored by the:
A) Regeneration of dendrites from the perikaryon
B) Regeneration of the axon from the peripheral parts of the transected nerve
C) Regeneration of the axon from the proximal portion of the transected axon
D) Loss of the perikaryon
E) Loss of the Nissl substance
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22
Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Parkinson's disease,which part of the brain shows depigmentation?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Occipital cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Substantia nigra
E) Medulla oblongata
Q2) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by corneal transplantation?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Meningococcal meningitis
E) Parkinson's disease
Q3) St.Louis encephalitis is transmitted by:
A) Dust inhalation
B) Mosquito bites
C) Tick bites
D) Sexual contact
E) Kissing
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is the most important cause of cataracts?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Anthracosis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Gout
E) Hyperthyroidism
Q2) Allergic conjunctivitis is typically mediated by:
A) T lymphocytes
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q3) Hard exudates,macular stars,and papilledema caused by arterial hypertension are best diagnosed by:
A) Measuring the intraocular pressure
B) Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus
C) Measuring of the pupillary reflexes
D) Measuring the vision with vision charts
E) Biopsy of the cornea
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tumors may cause vertigo?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Schwannoma of the VIII nerve
D) Neurilemoma of the VII nerve
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q2) The most typical feature of Ménière's disease is:
A) Deafness
B) Vertigo
C) Strabismus
D) Otosclerosis
E) Acoustic hallucinations
Q3) Earwax is secreted by:
A) Lacrimal glands
B) Ceruminous glands
C) Auditory ossicles
D) Cochlea
E) Eustachian tube
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