General Microbiology Question Bank
Course Introduction
General Microbiology offers a comprehensive introduction to the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers core concepts such as microbial cell biology, metabolism, genetics, growth, and the roles of microbes in the environment, industry, and human health. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques used in the isolation, identification, and study of microorganisms, as well as current issues in microbiology such as antibiotic resistance and biotechnological applications. This foundational course prepares students for advanced studies in biological sciences and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wanda is receptive to the nurse's teaching.In reinforcing the prevalence of microbes in our environment,the nurse describes the experiments of Louis Pasteur.Pasteur hypothesized that microbes were in the air and dust.Through experiments using swan-necked flasks,he disproved the concept of ________.
A)spontaneous mutation
B)spontaneous generation
C)aseptic theory
D)biogenesis
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement correctly compares the sizes of different microorganisms?
A)Bacteria are larger than viruses
B)Bacteria are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms
C)Eukaryotic microorganisms are smaller than viruses
D)Archaea are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms but smaller than bacteria
Answer: A
Q3) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship between a micrometer and a millimeter is ________.
A)a millimeter is 10 times larger than a micrometer
B)a micrometer is 1,000 times smaller than a millimeter
C)a millimeter is 100 times smaller than a micrometer
D)a micrometer is 1,000 times larger than a millimeter
E)a millimeter is 10 times smaller than a micrometer
Answer: B
Q2) The all-purpose media Tryptic Soy Agar (TSA)contains the following four ingredients; pancreatic digest of casein,digest of soybean meal,NaCl and agar. TSA is best described as ________.
A)a differential media
B)a complex media
C)a selective media
D)a defined media
E)a reducing media
Answer: B
Q3) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol-based compounds can weaken the outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid,tubular appendages called ________.
A)flagella
B)cilia
C)fimbriae
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E)sex pili
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria?
A)Its DNA is not encased in a membrane.
B)It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals.
C)It does not have membrane-bound organelles.
D)Its DNA is wrapped around histones.
E)All of these are characteristics of bacteria.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except ________.
A)motility
B)ectoplasm and endoplasm
C)heterotrophic nutrition
D)formation of a cyst stage
E)cell wall
Q2) An organelle that is a stack of flattened,membranous sacs and functions to receive,modify,and package proteins for cell secretion is the ________.
A)mitochondria
B)lysosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)chloroplast
E)endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) The eukaryote cell membrane is composed of ________.
A)sterols
B)proteins
C)phospholipids
D)cholesterol
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viral nucleic acids include which of the following?
A)Double-stranded DNA
B)Single-stranded DNA
C)Double-stranded RNA
D)Single-stranded RNA
E)All of the choices are correct
Q3) The patient's parents question which antibiotic will be given to treat their daughter's infection.You inform her that ________.
A)antibiotics target eukaryotic cells and do not work on viruses
B)antibiotics target bacterial cells and do not work on viruses
C)her daughter will be tested for antibiotic sensitivity before they are given
D)her daughter is too young to receive antibiotic therapy
Q4) A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called a virion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What compound is the most abundant in a cell?
A)CO
B)CH
C)H O
D)Glucose
E)NH
Q2) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ________.
A)symbiosis
B)satellitism
C)antibiosis
D)mutualism
E)synergism
Q3) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment,metabolizing but not growing,is the ________.
A)lag phase
B)log phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
E)prophase
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of amphibolism is when ________.
A)pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle,and is also used as a precursor for amino acid production
B)acetyl CoA enters the Krebs cycle,and is also used for fatty acid production
C)intermediates of glucose oxidation are further oxidized during glycolysis,and are also harnessed for the production of complex carbohydrates
D)All of the above are examples of amphibolism
Q2) ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) FAD,NAD,and coenzyme A are all ________ carriers.
A)hydrogen
B)electron
C)ATP
D)hydrogen and electron
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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125 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In recombinant DNA technique,what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA polymerase II
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA ligase
E)Primase
Q2) You educate the patient's mother that the most common cause of cystic fibrosis is a deletion of three nucleotides.Which of the following statements,by the mother,demonstrates an understanding of the disease etiology?
A)"My child's disease is caused by a missing chromosome."
B)"My child's disease is caused by a missing gene."
C)"My child's disease is caused by a missing amino acid."
D)"My child's disease is caused by an infectious process."
Q3) All mutations are detrimental to the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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101 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A method for sterilizing milk,called ________ treatment,uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds.
A)pasteurization
B)batch pasteurization
C)flash pasteurization
D)ultra high temperature
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) Hydrogen peroxide can be used to sterilize instruments such as endoscopes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phenols are useful antimicrobial compounds in that they are effective against bacteria fungi and viruses,disrupting several cellular targets,however,they have been removed from many consumer products because of their high toxicity and propensity to select for resistant strains of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Microbicidal agents are sterilants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with high selective toxicity include ________.
A)ampicillin and bacitracin
B)amphotericin B and fluconazole
C)mebendazole and albendazole
D)quinine and metronidazole
Q2) Which two antibiotics affect the DNA and RNA of bacteria?
A)Tetracycline and amphotericin B
B)Trimethoprim and sulfonamides
C)Rifampin and quinolones
D)Tetracycline and bacitracin
Q3) Drug susceptibility testing determines ________.
A)the patient's response to various antimicrobials
B)the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials
C)if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobials
D)if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Drug toxicity occurs when an antimicrobial drug acts as antigen and stimulates an allergic response.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The suffix -emia means ________.
A)blood
B)a disease or morbid process
C)an inflammation
D)tumor
E)pertaining to
Q2) If an infectious disease emerged that was highly contagious and virulent,resulting in certain death with no known cure,epidemiological data would show
A)a high incidence and low prevalence.
B)a low incidence and high prevalence.
C)both incidence and prevalence to be high.
D)both incidence and prevalence to be low.
Q3) Opportunistic pathogens
A)cause disease in every individual.
B)cause disease in compromised individuals.
C)are always pathogens.
D)have well-developed virulence factors.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The granules of basophils contain ________.
A)antibodies
B)antigens
C)digestive enzymes
D)histamine
E)lysozyme
Q2) Nonspecific chemical defenses include ________.
A)lysozyme
B)lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat
C)skin's acidic pH and fatty acids
D)stomach hydrochloric acid
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)Interferon alpha and beta-inhibits viral replication
B)Interleukin-2-stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production
C)Serotonin-causes smooth muscle contraction
D)Prostaglandins-activate eosinophils and B cells
E)Tumor necrosis factor-increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to dendritic cells and macrophages,B cells can also act as antigen-presenting cells. This occurs when ________.
A)the antigen is a molecule with a simple,repeating structure and evokes an immune response as a T-cell-independent antigen
B)the B cell engulfs the antigen and presents it to the T helper cell
C)the B cell engulfs the antigen and presents it to the T cytotoxic cell
D)the antigen binds to the B cell and after processing,it is presented to the dendritic cells and macrophages
Q2) The importance of clonal deletion is that ________.
A)lymphocytes with receptors that recognize self markers are eliminated to preserve immune tolerance
B)worn-out lymphocytes are destroyed to make way for new cells
C)lymphocytes that have been activated during antigen exposure are then removed when the individual recovers
D)clones of cells that have the same receptor are deleted to avoid redundancy
Q3) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph,blood,and tissue fluids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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80 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A viral infection can cause type I diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of transplant did the patient receive?
A)Isograft
B)Autograft
C)Allograft
D)Xenograft
Q4) AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the fetus at risk for upon delivery?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) FISH and microarrays both use probes to hybridize to sequences of the pathogen genome. They differ in that ________.
A)FISH involves adding fluorescently labeled probes directly to a patient's sample,whereas microarrays involve the attachment of thousands of potential gene sequences from pathogens to an absorbent plate and adding DNA from the patient's sample to it,allowing matching sequences to hybridize
B)microarrays involve adding fluorescently labeled probes directly to a patient's sample,whereas FISH involves the attachment of thousands of potential gene sequences from pathogens to an absorbent plate and adding DNA from the patient's sample to it,allowing matching sequences to hybridize
C)FISH involves scanning and analyzing the pathogen genome multiple times,whereas microarrays involve separating DNA samples into fragments using restriction enzymes,then exposing the fragments to varying voltage levels from three different directions
D)microarrays involve scanning and analyzing the pathogen genome multiple times,whereas FISH involves separating DNA samples into fragments using restriction enzymes,then exposing the fragments to varying voltage levels from three different directions
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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75 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding keratitis?
A)Keratitis can be caused by bacteria or viruses,but not eukaryotic organisms.
B)Infection of the cornea by microbes can lead to destruction of the cornea and blindness.
C)Infection of the cornea can occur through sexual transmission.
D)Latent HSV-1,that reactivates during times of stress,enters the ophthalmic nerve causing keratitis instead of cold sores.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)?
A)Affects mostly newborns and babies
B)An exotoxin-mediated disease
C)Toxin causes bullous lesions
D)Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis
E)Split in skin occurs within the epidermis
Q3) Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?
A)Malassezia
B)Trichophyton
C)Microsporum
D)Epidermophyton
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a ________.
A)bacteria
B)protozoan
C)virus
D)helminth
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The RN updates the patient's son on the plan of treatment.What is the most appropriate antibiotic to treat this illness?
A)Vanomycin
B)Cefotaxime
C)Acyclovir
D)No antibiotic therapy is indicated.
Q4) The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is ________.
A)inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)developed by Jonas Salk
B)oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)developed by Jonas Salk
C)inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)developed by Albert Sabin
D)oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)developed by Albert Sabin
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following requires direct contact with infected body fluids?
A)Yellow fever
B)Dengue fever
C)Ehrlichiosis
D)Lassa fever
E)Chikungunya
Q2) If pharmacological treatment is not successful,what may be the ultimate cause of death?
A)Malaremia
B)Multiorgan failure
C)Seizures
D)Respiratory arrest
Q3) A vaccine for Lyme disease is available.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the cause of the cyclical nature of the woman's symptoms?
A)She is being reinfected by a vector as she begins to recover.
B)The village doctor's treatments are working intermittently.
C)Her symptoms reflect the synchronous rupture of RBCs.
D)Her liver is failing in stages,and the symptoms coincide.
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the ________.
A)auditory canal
B)sinuses
C)nasal cavity
D)eustachian (auditory)tubes
E)subarachnoid space
Q2) The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is ________.
A)exotoxin
B)direct contact
C)indirect contact
D)endogenous
E)droplet contact
Q3) All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except ________.
A)live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life
B)symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever,coughing,fatigue,weight loss,and night sweats
C)lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB
D)the BCG vaccine is used in other countries
E)antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mucinous glycoprotein covering teeth that streptococci attach to is called the
A)enamel
B)pellicle
C)gingiva
D)lactoferrin
E)oral membrane
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except it ________.
A)is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken,meat,milk,and water
B)causes fever and a watery stool
C)infects the stomach
D)produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea
E)has gram-negative curved rods with darting motility
Q3) Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are no infectious agents that can invade intact skin.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaluate the following statements and determine which is incorrect regarding the development of genital warts.
A)Warts caused by human papillomavirus can be inconspicuous,whereas warts caused by the poxvirus are large and unsightly,a condition called condyloma acuminata.
B)Two types of virus,HPV and a poxvirus can cause genital warts although HPV infection has more serious consequences.
C)Genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus range from being inconspicuous or extensive,whereas those from the poxvirus do not vary.
D)Regardless of the viral cause of genital warts,the condition is not treatable,although the warts can be removed.
Q2) All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except
A)red blood cells in urine
B)painful urination
C)white blood cells in urine
D)nausea
E)diarrhea
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Page 23
Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transmission of which diseases are dependent on maintenance of the mosquito vector?
A)Malaria
B)Lyme disease
C)Cholera
D)West Nile virus - encephalitis
E)Both malaria and West Nile virus encephalitis
Q2) Use of a trickling filter that sprays wastewater over rocks coated with biofilms which aerobically degrade organic matter is an example of the ________.
A)primary phase of wastewater treatment
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment
Q3) The presence of coliforms necessarily indicates the presence of fecal matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The activated sludge step in wastewater treatment is an example of the ________.
A)primary phase of wastewater treatment
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment
24
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