Course Introduction
General Microbiology Question Bank
General Microbiology offers a comprehensive introduction to the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course covers the structure, function, physiology, genetics, and classification of microbes, with an emphasis on their roles in human health, ecology, and biotechnology. Students will explore microbial metabolism, reproduction, and the interactions of microbes with hosts and environments. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and case studies, students develop a foundational understanding of microbiological techniques and the significance of microorganisms in everyday life and global processes.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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1527 Verified Questions
1527 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is a microorganism that gains its energy from the oxidation of ferrous iron (Fe² )to ferric iron (Fe³ )and hydrogen sulfide (H S)to sulfuric acid (H SO ).Based on this information,T.ferrooxidans is an example of a A) nitrogen fixer.
B) lithotroph.
C) endosymbiont.
D) biofilm participant.
Answer: B
Q2) Regarding the natural source for the production of antibiotics,the best weapon we have against pathogenic microorganisms is
A) medical doctors.
B) acclaimed scientific researchers.
C) other microorganisms that can exist with the pathogenic microorganisms.
D) the CDC.
Answer: C
Q3) Why did agar offer an improvement over gelatin for the growth of microorganisms?
Answer: Agar remains more solid at higher temperatures than does gelatin.
Q4) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells.
Answer: human
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular virus has a high infectious dose 50% and extremely low mortality,causing only mild symptoms.Which of the following is true of this virus?
A) It has high infectivity and high virulence.
B) It has high infectivity but low virulence.
C) It has low infectivity and low virulence.
D) It has low infectivity and high virulence.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a driver of emerging diseases?
A) decreased human drug use
B) climate change
C) microbial evolution
D) changing land use patterns
Answer: A
Q3) What factor favors an infectious disease to become pandemic instead of epidemic?
A) a localized animal reservoir
B) rapid mortality
C) a low infectious dose 50%
D) a short incubation period
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following depicts the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
A) crystal violet,ethanol,iodine,safranin
B) safranin,iodine,ethanol,crystal violet
C) crystal violet,iodine,ethanol,safranin
D) safranin,ethanol,iodine,crystal violet
Answer: C
Q2) Which microscope technique is best used for visualizing the surface structures of cells and viruses?
A) phase-contrast
B) bright-field
C) scanning electron
D) darkfield
Answer: C
Q3) Electron microscopy uses beams of ________ to generate high-resolution images. Answer: electrons
Q4) Immersion oil is used with the ________ objective.
Answer: 0.001
10 ³
Q5) A ________ is the only way to observe live specimens.
Answer: wet mount
5
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
Q2) Polysaccharides are a polymer of what kind of monomer?
A) amino acids
B) deoxyribonucleotides
C) lipids
D) sugars
Q3) There is no net movement of water into or out of cells when the cells are in which type of environment?
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hyperosmotic
D) hypotonic
Q4) Which of the following is true of both lipids and sugars?
A) They both store energy.
B) They are both hydrophobic.
C) They are both hydrophilic.
D) They both contain nitrogen.
Q5) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q6) What is a condensation reaction?
6
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) In the process of ________,a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane,releasing vesicle contents into the extracellular environment.
Q2) Ribosomes associate with which endomembrane organelle?
A) Golgi complex
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) lysosomes
D) peroxisomes
Q3) Which organelle is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
A) mitochondrion
B) lysosome
C) peroxisome
D) Golgi complex
Q4) Which bacterial cellular constituent is most liable to change under changing environmental conditions?
A) DNA
B) peptidoglycan
C) polyamines
D) proteins
Q5) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) A new enzyme that helps protect a bacterial cell from reactive oxygen species has been discovered.During which phase of growth would you expect the gene that codes for this enzyme to be expressed?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) late log phase
D) stationary phase
Q2) Which of the following can be most efficiently used to measure bacterial growth in real time?
A) FACS
B) spectrophotometer
C) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
D) fluorescent microscope
Q3) Which of the following can be used to directly count bacterial cells without the use of a microscope?
A) viable counts
B) optical density
C) fluorescence-activated cell sorter
D) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
Q4) Mesophilic proteins are ________ flexible than psychrophilic proteins.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme Rubisco is involved in
A) ATP production.
B) carbon fixation.
C) fermentation.
D) nitrogen fixation.
Q2) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
Q3) If Fe³ is the final electron acceptor at the end of an electron transport system,the waste product is ________.
Q4) Compare and contrast anaerobic respiration and fermentation.How are they similar and how do they differ?
Q5) Why does respiration yield more energy per glucose than fermentation?
A) Fermentation uses more enzymes,and enzymes are costly to make.
B) Fermentation requires oxygen.
C) In fermentation the carbons in glucose do not become fully oxidized.
D) Fermentation is only found in prokaryotic organisms;eukaryotes need more energy.
Q6) The metabolic pathway used by cyanobacteria and plants to fix carbon dioxide into sugar is known as the ________ cycle.
Q7) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmids usually contain genes that are
A) important for cell survival in all environments.
B) important for cell survival in particular environments.
C) not important for cell survival in any environments.
D) composed of single-stranded DNA.
Q2) A protein that affects the expression of many different genes is known as a ________.
Q3) After translation
A) all proteins are folded and secreted.
B) some proteins are folded but all are secreted.
C) all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.
D) some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.
Q4) Which of the following RNAs gets translated into protein?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) sRNA
Q5) If DNA polymerase misincorporates a base,leading to a mismatch,how do repair enzymes distinguish the parental and daughter DNA strands to specifically fix the daughter strand?
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Serratia marcescens is taxonomically considered a
A) homolog.
B) identification.
C) nomenclature.
D) classification.
Q2) The elements that form living organisms first originated from A) viruses.
B) stardust.
C) water.
D) the oceans.
Q3) Which is NOT a useful way to identify a microorganism?
A) sequencing its genome
B) phenotypic trait analysis
C) microscopic observation alone
D) phylogenetic analysis
Q4) Without selective pressure,a species is at risk of experiencing A) random mutation.
B) natural selection.
C) reductive evolution.
D) endosymbiosis.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Your friend,Miguel,discovers a new bacterium and uses this bacterium to develop a popular new cheese with a taste similar to Swiss cheese.He is not willing to share his secret to success,but you suspect the bacteria he is using is a(n)
A) Firmicutes.
B) Actinobacteria.
C) cyanobacteria.
D) spirochete.
Q2) The most abundant phototrophs in the ocean are single-celled and include the genera
A) Treponema and Chlamydia.
B) Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus.
C) Merismopedia and Nostoc.
D) Oscillatoria and Campylobacter.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is associated with bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes and most likely helps them survive dryness?
A) a thick waxy coat that excludes Gram stain
B) horizontal gene transfer between two cells
C) thick cell walls with multiple layers of peptidoglycan
D) an ability to ferment sugars to lactic acid
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) Fungi that form spore-dispersing asci are known as A) basidiomycetes.
B) zygomycetes.
C) microsporidia.
D) ascomycetes.
Q2) Obligate parasites with a single flagellum,a complex life cycle,and unique organelles called "kinetoplasts" are known specifically as ________.
Q3) The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the
A) production of bread.
B) production of beer.
C) decomposition of wood.
D) decomposition of animal bodies.
Q4) When comparing invertebrate parasites to "true" microbes,which of the following is found in invertebrate parasites only?
A) fully differentiated organ systems
B) cells with mitochondria
C) macroscopic forms
D) cells with nuclei
Q5) Giardias and trichomonads are both examples of ________.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Q2) Why have the majority of viruses evolved to bind to a host surface receptor that serves an essential function in the host cell?
Q3) Why is gelatin needed to culture animal viruses in tissue culture?
A) Animal viruses use gelatin as an energy source.
B) Cells in tissue culture require gelatin to grow.
C) Gelatin slows the dispersal of viruses from infected cells,allowing for plaques to form.
D) Gelatin is used to stain viral plaques.
Q4) Which of the following could possibly be an ancestor of the large asymmetrical DNA Vaccinia virus?
A) a degenerate single-celled organism
B) a bacteriophage
C) influenza
D) a cow
Q5) Imagine that a new form of gene therapy that can eliminate expression of heparan sulfate proteoglycans has been invented.Explain how this therapy would have both a positive result and a negative result.
Q6) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
Titus,a nine-month-old infant,suffered from a series of chronic problems after birth,including respiratory syncytial virus bronchiolitis (infection and inflammation of the bronchioles)and neonatal group B Streptococcal sepsis.(Neonatal sepsis happens soon after birth and is often caused by lancefield group B Streptococcus agalactiae,passed to the newborn from an infected mother. )As a result of his weakened state,Titus was fitted with a gastrostomy feeding tube so that his parents could feed him.Within a week of being sent home,however,Titus was rushed to the Johns Hopkins Hospital with an acute onset of fever,cough,regurgitation from his gastrostomy feeding tube,and dehydration.Physical exam confirmed that the boy had a severe cough resulting in respiratory distress,a rapid heart rate,and moderate dehydration.A nasopharyngeal aspirate (the nasopharynx is the nasal part of the pharynx)was positive for influenza A antigen.Titus was diagnosed with influenza and treated with the antiviral drug oseltamivir.He gradually improved and was discharged four days after admission. What is the mechanism of action for the drug,oseltamivir,used to treat Titus's influenza infection? Why would antibiotics such as 50S ribosomal inhibitors have had no effect on this viral infection?
Q2) Explain how organisms can develop resistance to chemical disinfectants.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) How has the development of clean water NEGATIVELY affected modern civilization?
A) reduced fecal transmission of bacteria resulting in missing microbiota
B) altered immunological environment
C) increased transmission of hormone-activating compounds
D) decreased amounts of important trace minerals
Q2) Explain the disappearing microbiota hypothesis and how it can explain why individuals who attended day care as adolescents tend to suffer fewer allergies than individuals who did not.
Q3) What is wrong with the situation described below?
After vaginal delivery,a gnotobiotic mouse was moved to an axenic environment.
Q4) A nonmotile Gram-negative organism has breached a tight junction barrier.How will this organism be detected and what will happen immediately inside the host to protect it from infection?
Q5) Many of the genes affected by colonization with Eubacteria rectale and Bacteroides thetaiotamicron are involved with
A) the blood-brain barrier.
B) energy production.
C) colonic turnover.
D) pro-inflammation.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a white blood cell (WBC)?
A) mast cell
B) macrophage
C) monocyte
D) erythrocyte
Q2) All of the following is true regarding a fever EXCEPT that
A) the use of fever reducers helps to speed recovery.
B) a fever creates an unfavorable environment for microbial growth.
C) substances that cause a fever are known as pyrogens.
D) thermoregulation is maintained by the hypothalamus.
Q3) Bacterial cells may be phagocytized and processed for presentation by A) erythrocytes.
B) macrophages.
C) T cells.
D) mast cells.
Q4) All of the following are mechanisms to avoid digestion by phagocytes EXCEPT
A) bacterial capsules.
B) formation of phagolysosomes.
C) escape from the phagolysosome.
D) surviving inside the phagolysosome.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Natalia and Julia are looking through primary literature for information about antibodies.One of the articles is titled "Generating Diversity in Idiotypes." Would you expect this article to compare different species,different individuals of the same species,or different antibodies within individuals? Explain your answer.
Q2) One health risk associated with excessive cytokine release is the chance of A) severe tissue damage.
B) cytokines destroying antibodies.
C) damage to virally infected cells.
D) inactivating mitosis.
Q3) T cells capable of killing virus-infected and cancer cells are known as ________ cells.
A) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{C}} \)
B) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 2 \)
C) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 17 \)
D) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 1 \)
Q4) Describe the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC).
Q5) A two-month-old baby is found to lack class I MHC molecules.How would this defect impact an adaptive immune response?
Q6) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with A) IgE antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) histamine.
Q2) All of the following are true about Hodgkin's lymphoma EXCEPT that A) it is often caused by the herpes simplex virus.
B) symptoms include fever,night sweats,and weight loss.
C) tumors contain neoplastic,multinucleated Reed-Sternberg cells.
D) the release of cytokines such as TNF-alpha contributes to the fever and chronic inflammation.
Q3) An example of a primary immunodeficiency would be A) DiGeorge syndrome.
B) HIV.
C) severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome.
D) IgA deficiency.
Q4) Antigens that possess structures similar in shape to host structures are called
Q5) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of hepatitis in a patient's blood sample.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
Q2) In viruses such as influenza,the ability to undergo a major genetic alteration is called A) antigenic drift.
B) antigenic shift.
C) antigenic variation.
D) antigenic binding.
Q3) All of the following are methods of microbial attachment EXCEPT
A) capsids.
B) pili.
C) fimbriae.
D) type IV secretion systems.
Q4) Which of the following protozoans uses antigenic variation to circumvent the host immune system?
A) plasmodium
B) entamoeba
C) leishmania
D) trypanosome
Q5) Some microbes use tiny molecular syringes called ________ to inject proteins directly into the host cytoplasm.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) A skin rash accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever,malaise,and headache is referred to as ________,while skin rashes on the mucous membranes are called ________.
Q2) All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Haemophilus influenza.
Q3) The etiological agent of acne is
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Bacillus anthrasis.
D) Propionibacterium acnes.
Q4) All of the following are methods used to treat C.perfringens infection EXCEPT
A) amputation.
B) a hyperbaric chamber.
C) antibiotic therapy alone.
D) debridement.
Q5) Fungi that love human skin are called ________.
Q6) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Describe how a human infected simultaneously with an avian flu strain and a swine flu strain may cause an influenza pandemic.
Q2) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
Q3) A 23-year-old man arrives in the emergency room.He is currently in respiratory distress and is experiencing kidney failure and blood clots in one lung.His partner reports that he had a high fever,chills,and a cough for several days prior.The attending physician quickly orders a serum antibody test validated by the CDC when he suspects the individual may be infected with A) type B influenza.
B) respiratory syncytial virus.
C) severe acute respiratory syndrome.
D) croup.
Q4) Explain how the M proteins associated with some strains of Streptococcus pyogenes lead to streptococcal sequelae.
Q5) The Eustachian tubes connect the upper respiratory tract to the A) sinuses.
B) middle ears.
C) inner ears.
D) eyes.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) The antibiotic most commonly used to treat the major systemic bacterial infections is
A) penicillin.
B) fluoroquinolones.
C) ceftriaxone.
D) tetracycline.
Q2) When traveling to tropical and subtropical areas where Aedes aegypti mosquitoes are endemic,U.S.citizens could receive a vaccine to prevent ________.
Q3) Borrelia burgdorferi produces an enzyme that cleaves proteoglycans.This enzyme mainly affects ________ tissue.
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscle
D) nervous
Q4) Bacterial endocarditis affects the
A) thinner lining of the heart.
B) muscle of the heart.
C) sac surrounding the heart.
D) lining of blood vessels exiting the heart.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Lactobacillus species are a major type of probiotic.Describe one positive aspect of Lactobacillus and one negative aspect.
Q2) The tropism of Salmonella infections includes A) the intestinal lumen.
B) the ileum.
C) Paneth cells.
D) M cells.
Q3) Jack presents at the clinic with mild nausea,vomiting,abdominal pain,and jaundice.The most likely cause of Jack's condition is ________.
Q4) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________.
Q5) Many enteric pathogens are transmitted through A) sexual contact.
B) the parenteral route.
C) airborne transmission.
D) expulsion of feces.
Q6) The most common sign of a gastrointestinal infection is ________,having three or more loose stools per day.
Q7) Describe the life cycle of the tapeworm.
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Q8) The gastrointestinal tract is a long tube extending from ________to________.
Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?
A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain.
B) It can be caused by N.gonorrhoeae.
C) It can be transmitted sexually.
D) It can be caused by T.pallidum.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a clinical progression of an HIV infection?
A) increase in immune function
B) seroconversion
C) latency
D) AIDS
Q3) All of the following cause UTIs EXCEPT
A) E.coli.
B) S.aureus.
C) S.pyogenes.
D) C.trichomatis.
Q4) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
Q5) Primary syphilis is an inflammatory reaction at the site of infection called a
25
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) tetanus - releases potent neurotoxin
B) botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
C) poliomyelitis - multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine
D) rabies - destroys cells of the CNS
Q2) List and describe the defensive mechanisms that are in place to protect the central nervous system.
Q3) CASE HISTORY
In June,Mitch,a 47-year-old resident of Oklahoma,was admitted to the hospital with rapid onset of progressive dizziness,blurred vision,slurred speech,difficulty swallowing,and nausea.Findings on examination included absence of fever,drooping eyelids,facial paralysis,and impaired gag reflex.He developed breathing difficulties and required mechanical ventilation.The patient reported that during the 24 hours before onset of symptoms,he had eaten home-canned green beans and a stew containing roast beef and potatoes.Analysis of the patient's stool detected botulinum type a toxin,but no Clostridium botulinum organisms were found.The patient was hospitalized for 49 days,including 42 days on mechanical ventilation,before being discharged. What are the risk factors for botulism like that in Mitch's case? How can this disease be prevented?
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
A four-year-old boy,Evan,was admitted to the hospital to evaluate and treat persistent pain in the rectal area.His problem began about one week earlier with ill-defined pain in the same region.He had a white blood cell count of 24,900 with 87% granulocytes (neutrophils).An abdominal computed tomography scan revealed an abscess (walled-off region of infectious bacteria)next to his rectum.A needle aspiration of the abscess drained 20 milliliters of yellowish,foul-smelling fluid.The specimen was plated on blood agar under aerobic conditions,but the culture was negative despite evidence of bacteria in the abscess drainage.(Blood agar is a rich medium containing 5% sheep red blood cells. )
Which statement regarding specimen collection is FALSE?
A) Specimen collection procedures are generally divided into those for sterile and nonsterile body sites.
B) Internal abscesses should be collected under conditions that allow the survival of anaerobic pathogens.
C) Samples from both sterile and nonsterile body sites should be plated on selective media.
D) Sterile body site samples are easily contaminated by normal flora in the collection process.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) You turn on a television and catch the end of an interview with a young patient who developed a life-threatening MRSA infection after a routine surgery to remove his appendix.What is the term for this type of surgical wound infection,and how common are these infections?
Q2) Koch's postulates require that an organism suspected as the causative agent of a disease be grown in pure culture.In some cases scientists have not successfully cultured an organism but have used molecular techniques to identify the cause of a new disease.Describe the molecular techniques that may be used to identify a previously uncultured bacterium and indicate that the identified organism is the causative agent.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change?
A) Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions.
B) Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions.
C) Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions.
D) Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal.
Q4) List the characteristics that would make a bioweapon effective in terms of bio-warfare or inflicting as many casualties as possible.
Q5) An infectious agent with a high mortality rate that is highly contagious and lacks a vaccine and effective treatment is known as a ______.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46385
Sample Questions
Q1) A microbe's contribution to an ecosystem's health depends on the
A) microbe's genome and the physical and chemical characteristics of the environment.
B) microbe's age and number of primary producers in the environment.
C) microbe's ability to cycle carbon and the number of decomposers in the ecosystem.
D) bioremediation capacity of the microbe and the number of predators in the ecosystem.
Q2) Of the following physical means of preserving foods,the only method capable of destroying endospores is
A) pasteurization.
B) canning.
C) dehydration.
D) decreased oxygen.
Q3) Shifting a cow's diet results in a(n)
A) change in the pathway of digestion through the cow's four stomach chambers.
B) change in the microbial populations present within the cow's gut.
C) increase in antibiotic-resistant bacteria found in the environment.
D) decrease in the amount of water and short-chain acids absorbed in the omasum.
Q4) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
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