General Microbiology
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Course Introduction
General Microbiology introduces the fundamental concepts of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, diversity, and ecology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers essential topics including microbial physiology, genetics, metabolism, and the role of microbes in disease and environmental processes. Laboratory techniques for the cultivation and identification of microorganisms are emphasized, alongside discussions on the applications of microbiology in medicine, industry, and biotechnology. Through lectures and hands-on experiences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the significance of microorganisms in both human health and the broader biosphere.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance or process decreases the virulence of a bacterial pathogen in a host?
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Adaptive immune cells
C)Virulence factor
D)Binary fission
E)Toxins
Answer: B
Q2) A rapid rise has recently occurred in the number of tuberculosis patients and in the problems of treating this disease.What factors are contributing to this?
Answer: The main problems are the increased use of injected illegal drugs,which allows the disease to spread via needles,and the increased incidence of AIDS,which destroys the immune protection against tuberculosis.Poor socioeconomic conditions and migration also play a role.
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The building blocks of _____ are _____.
A)Polysaccharides; fatty acids
B)DNA; ribose
C)Steroids; glucose
D)Proteins; amino acids
E)Glycogen; starch
Answer: D
Q2) Chemical bonding between two different atoms always occurs between their
A)Unfilled outer orbital
B)Nuclei
C)First shells
D)Cores
E)Third shells
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are components of a nucleotide except
A)Nitrogenous base
B)Phosphate group
C)Amino acid
D)Pentose sugar
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a mitochondrion carrying out electron transport,the proton concentration gradient develops
A)Across the inner mitochondrial membrane
B)In the cytosol
C)In the nucleus
D)In the space between the outer membrane and the plasma membrane
E)Across the outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer: A
Q2) In the figure which step would produce carbon dioxide?
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Heterotrophs - CO2
B)Chemo heterotrophs - organic compounds
C)Chemoautotrophs - inorganic molecules
D)Photoautotrophs - sunlight and CO2
E)Infectious organisms - organic compounds
Answer: A
Q4) In the figure which step indicates the molecules produced by dehydration?
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organelle where secreted proteins are synthesized is A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Which bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolorizer alcohol is added during the Gram stain procedure?
A)Gram-negative
B)Gram-positive
C)Gram-intensive
D)Gram-dormant
Q3) Describe quorum sensing.Why is it advantageous for a pathogen to use quorum sensing during an infection?
Q4) Mobile genetic elements that sometimes carry pathogenicity islands are known as A)Virulence chromosomes
B)Biofilms
C)Plasmids
D)Opportunistic elements
E)Proteasomes
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) The respiratory tract is the main portal of entry for which of the following infectious agents?
A) C. perfringens
B) HIV
C) Influenza virus
D) S. typhi
E) V. cholera
Q2) Botulinum toxin is used as a partial or cosmetic treatment for strabismus (crosseye or walleye).What is the mechanism of its action?
Q3) Many A-B toxins consist of two subunits, and .Which has specificity for a target cell receptor?
A)
B)The binding site is dependent on both subunits.
C)
D)Neither nor bind specifically to the target cell; the exotoxin is taken up by pinocytosis.
Q4) Explain how the bacterium Helicobacter pylori can survive the acidic environment of the stomach.What is the consequence of a Helicobacter infection?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of direct contact transmission?
A)A housefly transfers pathogens from cow manure to the conjunctiva of a human host
B)HIV is transmitted from a contaminated needle
C)Influenza is acquired by breathing in airborne droplets
D)A college student acquires mononucleosis after kissing someone infected with Epstein-Barr virus
Q2) Identify and describe three types of reservoir with a role in the transmission of infectious diseases to humans and provide an example of a disease for each type of reservoir.
Q3) In July 9,2009 about 2% of patients visiting emergency rooms had influenza.This number rose until in October of that year,when 10% had influenza.This was probably a(n)
A)Superinfection
B)Sporadic outbreak
C)Index case
D)Opportunistic outbreak
E)Epidemic
Q4) Explain the difference between descriptive and analytical epidemiological studies.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Explain the process by which Streptococcus pyogenes causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS).
Q2) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
Q3) Toxic shock is different from sepsis.Which of the following describes sepsis?
A)Involvement of heparin-binding protein
B)Activation of neutrophils
C)Involvement of bacterial surface proteins
D)Involvement of fibrinogen
E)Signs of systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction
Q4) What is the study of the underlying cause of a disease?
A)Toxemia
B)Etiology
C)Focal infection
D)Primary infection
E)Parasitism
Q5) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
Q6) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) All of the following are possible modes of transmission for the West Nile virus except
A)Tainted blood transfusion
B)Inhalation of rodent excrement
C)Mosquito bites
D)Infected organ transplant
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of transmissible spongiform encephalitis diseases?
A)They cause neurodegeneration
B)They are treated with proteases inhibitors
C)They require long incubation periods
D)The earliest documented cases were in the Fore people of New Guinea
E)They are caused by abnormal PrP??prions
Q3) Where did the Hantavirus originate and how is it transmitted to humans? Explain the factors that contributed to the outbreak of Hantavirus in the southwestern region of the USA in 1993.
Q4) Explain the term "incubator" as it applies to an influenza pandemic involving pigs.
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a macrophage?
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correctly matched?
A)Gram-positive cell wall: diaminopimelic acid
B)Gram-positive cell wall: many layers of peptidoglycan
C)Gram-negative cell wall: glycine-glycine bridges
D)Gram-negative cell wall: teichoic acid
E)Gram-positive cell wall: endotoxin
Q2) The _____ store(s)materials required by bacteria.
A)Inclusion bodies
B)Glycocalyx
C)Plasmids
D)Peptidoglycan
E)Endospore
Q3) Facilitated diffusion requires
A)A permease
B)A hypotonic solution
C)The expenditure of energy
D)An ATP-binding cassette
E)A high-energy molecule such as phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
Q4) Describe the strategy used by Neisseria species for immune escape involving pili.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Trace elements are not required for growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the name of microorganisms that cannot survive unless they are in an environment containing a great deal of salt?
A)Extreme halophile
B)Facultative halophile
C)Facultative anaerobe
D)Obligate halophile
E)Obligate aerobe
Q3) Chemoheterotrophs obtain carbon by
A)Photosynthesis
B)Carbon fixation
C)Anaerobic processes
D)Recycling the carbon of preexisting biological molecules
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans are chemoautotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the similarities and differences between the repressor proteins of the lactose and tryptophan operons.
Q2) An mRNA that encodes information for more than one protein is a(n)_____ mRNA.
A)Inducible
B)Repressible
C)Constitutive
D)Poly-cistronic
E)Transposable
Q3) Rearrange the following events in the order in which they occur during DNA proofreading.Which is the last event?
A)Nuclease activity catalyzes nucleotide removal
B)The elongating DNA strand leaves the exonuclease site
C)The elongating DNA strand slides to the exonuclease active site
D)DNA polymerase action slows
Q4) Genes,which are always "turned on" in an organism,are referred to as
A)Inducible
B)Repressible
C)Constitutive
D)Suppressible
E)High frequency of recombination
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A virion is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q2) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
Q3) Identify the sequence of events that occurs during the lytic cycle of an animal virus infection.Describe in basic terms what takes place at each step.
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the RNA or DNA?
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uses host intestinal proteases to be converted into infectious viral particles?
A)Rhinovirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Poliovirus
D)Reovirus
E)Adenovirus
Q2) Active viremia describes
A)Replication of viruses and the initial site of entry
B)Replication of viruses in secondary organs
C)Replication of viruses in the blood
D)Replication of viruses in the next host after viral transmission
Q3) Papillomavirus,which causes skin warts,is able to subvert cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL)responses by
A)Infecting tissues that are sequestered from the immune system
B)By inducing CTL death through Fas
C)Establishing latency in nerve ganglia
D)Suppressing the production of immunodominant peptides
E)Changing virion structure through antigenic variation
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American form of trypanosomiasis is called
A)Chagas' disease
B)Amebiasis
C)Sleeping sickness
D)Enterobiasis
E)Ascariasis
Q2) Cestodes are associated with all of the following characteristics except
A)Possession of a head called the scolex
B)Use of a retractable rostellum for attachment
C)Hermaphroditic nature
D)Absorption of nutrients across cuticle
E)Known as roundworms
Q3) Infection with Trichomonas vaginalis would show which symptoms?
A)Pain, vaginal discharge, and dysuria
B)A chancre and swollen lymph nodes
C)Tissue cysts in skeletal muscle
D)Nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
E)Fever accompanied by worms vomited up or passed in the stool
Q4) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following include chemo-attractive factors?
A)Hematopoietins
B)Chemokines
C)Both hematopoietins and chemokines
D)None of the choices
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Bacteria buried in food particles are protected from stomach acids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: The lachrymal apparatus produces tears continuously,with increased production in times of irritation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an effect of protein C3b?
A)Activation of the classical pathway
B)Histamine release
C)Opsonization
Q5) Explain how natural killer (NK)cells discriminate healthy cells from target cells.How do NK cells mediate target-cell killing?
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Lymphocytes bearing antigen receptors that have a high degree of affinity for self-antigen undergo _____ during B cell development.
A)Clonal deletion
B)Rearrangement
C)Mutation
D)Isotype switching
E)Atrophy
Q2) Long-lived lymphocytes that respond more rapidly and effectively on antigen encounter at a later time are known as _____ cells.
A)Effector
B)Memory
C)Anergic
D)Autoimmune
E)Cytotoxic
Q3) Explain the difference between GALT,MALT,and BALT.Describe what they have in common.
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
Q5) Explain the key differences between superantigens and conventional antigens recognized by T cells.Provide an example of a super antigen.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) HIV uses a complex of glycoproteins on its surface,including _____,to bind to the surface of T cells,dendritic cells,and macrophages.
A)CD4 and CD8
B)Gp120 and gp41
C)CXCR4 and CCR5
D)CCL3, CCL4, and CCL5
Q2) Some hosts are subject to numerous infections by pyogenic (pus-forming)bacteria.This is indicative of a defect in
A)The complement pathway
B)The production of interferon
C)Antigen presentation
D)Chemotactic factors
Q3) Describe the appearance of lymph nodes during the early asymptomatic phase and the late symptomatic phase of HIV infection
Q4) Summarize the sequence of events during HIV infection,beginning with adsorption of the virion on the host cell surface and ending with the release of virions from the infected cell.
Q5) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: As the plasma membrane is responsible for enclosing the cytoplasm its loss or damage produces death.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is used to destroy endospores in a liquid medium that will subsequently be used to culture bacteria?
A)Boiling
B)Pressurized steam
C)Filtration
D)Dry heat
E)Pasteurization
Q3) The microbial death rate associated with antimicrobial agents is
A)Sporadic
B)Logarithmic
C)Latent
D)Linear
Q4) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) The most appealing target for antibiotics is the bacterial cell wall,because it is on the outside of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following target the 50S ribosomal subunit except
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Azithromycin
C)Streptomycin
D)Erythromycin
Q3) Which of the following is not a drug used for viral infections?
A)Zanamivir
B)Lamivudine (3TC)
C)Ritonavir
D)Flucytosine
E)Ganciclovir
Q4) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
Q5) Compare the mechanisms of the anti-trypanosomal drugs eflomithine and melasoprol.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A)The more an antibiotic is prescribed, the more rapidly resistance to that antibiotic develops
B)Antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria are likely to develop in the hospital
C)Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and do not alleviate symptoms
D)The superinfection effect is a consequence of using narrow-spectrum antibiotics
E)Misuse of antibiotics can perturb the balance of normal flora in the body
Q2) By incorporating antibiotics into animal feed,farmers
A)Increase the weight gains of their livestock and can create antibiotic resistant microbes
B)Extend the period cattle spend in feedlots
C)Prevent viral diseases in their herds
D)Reduce the incidence of foot-and-mouth disease in their livestock
Q3) The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)is determined using the
A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)E test
C)Disk diffusion method
D)Broth dilution test
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the influenza virus?
A)Viremia
B)Enveloped virus
C)Different serotypes based on differences in surface antigens
D)Undergoes antigenic drift and antigenic shift
E)May predispose individuals to bacterial superinfections
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with atypical pneumonia?
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Coxiella burnetii
E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q3) Explain how Ghon complexes are formed.How are they diagnosed and why are they problematic?
Q4) Acanthamoeba is the natural reservoir for
A)Coxiella burnetii
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E)Chlamydophila psittaci
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following gastrointestinal infections are caused by protozoan parasites?
A)Cryptosporidiosis
B)Hookworm infection
C)Giardiasis
D)Hookworm and giardiasis
E)Cryptosporidiosis and giardiasis
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Food poisoning intoxication can occur more rapidly than infection because in the former the toxin is already present in the ingested food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are characteristic of a rotavirus infection except
A)Mild diarrhea
B)"Blunting" of the colonic mucosa by the virus
C)Dehydration
D)Leukocyte infiltration into microvilli
E)Abrupt onset with vomiting
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Menstruation can alter the composition of vaginal flora.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare syphilis to gonorrhea in relation to the following statement: It drills its way into cells.
A)Only syphilis
B)Only gonorrhea
C)Both syphilis and gonorrhea
D)Neither syphilis or gonorrhea
Q3) All of the following cause common sexually transmitted diseases except A)Herpes simplex virus
B)Rubella virus
C)Chlamydia trachomatis
D)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
E)Papillomavirus
Q4) Identify four ways in which candidiasis arises.Discuss the morphological and enzymatic changes that are associated with the pathogenesis of Candida albicans.
Q5) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid is located in the
A)Blood vessels surrounding the cerebrum
B)Subarachnoid space
C)Dura mater
D)Spinal cord
E)Cerebrum
Q2) The mortality rate for rabies is
A)10%
B)20%
C)50%
D)90%
E)100%
Q3) Identify which of the following persistent infections of the central nervous system is a mismatched pair.
A)Human immunodeficiency virus: AIDS dementia complex
B)Progressive panencephalitis: rubella
C)Measles: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
D)Kuru: prions
E)Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease: persistent enterovirus infection
Q4) Describe the three forms of botulism.
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) All of the following are examples of arboviruses except
A)Dengue virus
B)Yellow fever virus
C)Epstein-Barr virus
D)West Nile virus
Q2) Explain why members of Rickettsia are considered to have characteristics of both bacteria and viruses.Which diseases are caused by pathogenic Rickettsiae?
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the ID<sub>50</sub> for tularemia is large there are many routes to tularemia infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.Which virus is known to replicate in vascular endothelial cells?
A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q5) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Shingles occurs when
A)Primary infection with human papillomavirus occurs by direct contact or fomites
B)A latent form of the varicella-zoster virus is reactivated
C)The fetus acquires rubella transplacentally during pregnancy
D)The individuals are immunocompetent
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement:
Human-to-human transfer of tinea requires close contact because dermatophytes are very infective and have very high virulence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not correct about trachoma?
A)It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
B)It is a leading cause of eye infection in developing nations
C)Individuals may develop corneal ulceration and blindness
D)Transmitted by the bite of the body louse
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
Q5) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
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