Course Introduction
General Microbiology Practice
Questions
General Microbiology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, genetics, and ecology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers the methods used to study microbes, their roles in health, disease, and the environment, and the basic principles of microbial growth, metabolism, and genetics. Emphasis is placed on understanding the significance of microbes in medicine, industry, and biotechnology, as well as their impact on global processes and human society. This course provides a foundation for advanced studies in microbiology, biotechnology, and related health sciences.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe how the ultracentrifuge is used to determine the sizes of cellular macromolecules.
Answer: The ultracentrifuge uses centrifugal forces to separate cell components. Theodor Svedberg calculated that the particle sizes could be determined based on the rate of sedimentation of the particles in an ultracentrifuge.
Q2) Robert Koch's postulates have not been used to prove HIV as the causative agent of AIDS. Why not?
Answer: Answers may vary, but a major reason is that humans cannot be injected with HIV to see if they develop AIDS!
Q3) Give two reasons why microbes have been difficult to classify.
Answer: First, even with the use of light microscopes, only the basic shape of microbes can be determined, and many microbes have similar shapes even though they are very different in other ways. Second, microbes do not fit the classic definition of a species, which is a group of organisms that interbreed. Microbes typically reproduce asexually. When they do exchange genes, they may do so with distantly related species.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your eyes had photoreceptors packed as closely as an eagle's (about eight times greater than humans), would you be able to resolve a virus (100 nm in size) using a light microscope? Why or why not?
Answer: No. Although your resolving power would be much improved, the light microscope's power will still be limited by the wavelengths of light that you can see (roughly 400 nm for human eyes). Objects less than 400 nm cannot be resolved by light in the visible spectrum.
Q2) When two waves are out of phase by __________ wavelength, they produce destructive interference, canceling each other's amplitude and resulting in contrast in the image.
A) one-tenth of a B) one-eighth of a C) one-quarter of a D) one-half of a E) one
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why can't most kinds of bacteria be eaten as a major part of our diet?
Answer: Prokaryotes in general have a higher nucleic acid content than eukaryotes. This is advantageous to the microbe in that it maximizes reproduction of its chromosomes, but is toxic to humans. We lack the enzymes to digest the uric acid waste product of nucleic acids.
Q2) All of the following are true about prokaryotic outer membranes EXCEPT:
A) They are lipid bilayers composed of identical phospholipids.
B) They are found only in Gram-negative bacteria.
C) They contain endotoxin.
D) They contain proteins involved in transport.
E) They contain lipopolysaccharide.
Answer: A
Q3) Explain what happens when a cell comes into contact with water or with ethanol. Why is 70% ethanol commonly used to treat wounds and surfaces?
Answer: Water can cross cell membranes by osmosis, but ethanol can dissolve both polar and nonpolar substances, thus harming the integrity of the membrane. In the presence of water, ethanol can denature proteins. The 70% ethanol disrupts the membrane sufficiently that the cells lyse.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cafeteria worker who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates a quiche with four E. coli cells when he uses his finger to test whether it is done. By the time you purchase the quiche, there are 128 E. coli cells in it. How many generations did the cells go through?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 32
E) 64
Q2) During which stage of bacterial growth is the culture growing exponentially?
A) lag
B) early log
C) late log
D) stationary
E) death
Q3) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and not a linear growth rate?
Q4) If you determined the number of cells in a sample using viable plate counts and optical density measurements, why would the results from the two methods be so different?
Q5) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Why are many barophiles also psychrophiles, and how are the adaptations for barophiles and psychrophiles similar?
Q2) What is a neutralophile? Neutralophiles were once referred to as neutrophiles. Why is this no longer the case?
Q3) Alkaliphiles use _________________ in addition to proton motive force to maintain pH.
A) potassium motive force
B) sodium motive force
C) calcium motive force
D) magnesium motive force
E) sulfur motive force
Q4) How are some organisms able to survive temporary exposures to elevated temperatures?
Q5) Which category best describes E. coli?
A) strict aerobe
B) aerotolerant anaerobe
C) facultative anaerobe
D) microaerophile
E) strict anaerobe
Page 7
Q6) Briefly describe three techniques used to culture anaerobes in the laboratory.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) The integrated phage genome is called a(n):
A) temperate
B) lysogen
C) oncogene
D) lytic
E) prophage
Q2) An icosahedral capsid has how many sides?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) 20
Q3) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
Q4) In contrast to animal viruses and bacteriophages, plant viruses infect cells by mechanisms that do NOT involve specific:
A) receptors
B) membranes
C) envelopes
D) vectors
E) hosts
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Okazaki fragments in E. coli are approximately how many bases in length?
A) 10
B) 50
C) 100
D) 1,000
E) 2,000
Q2) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates pieces of linear DNA based on:
A) size
B) charge
C) sequence
D) supercoiling
E) methylation
Q3) Describe how pyrosequencing led to an understanding of colony collapse disorder in bees. Why is traditional Sanger sequencing not sufficient for this task?
Q4) Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) nuclear membrane
B) DNA-packing proteins
C) RNA polymerase
D) ribosomal components
E) DNA polymerase
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Post-translational modification to achieve function does not involve:
A) adenylylation
B) phosphorylation
C) acetylation
D) removal of formylmethionine
E) ubiquitination
Q2) Eukaryotes and the archaea contain proteasomes. Compare and contrast these proteasomes in terms of structure and function.
Q3) Which drug interferes with transcription in prokaryotes?
A) chloramphenicol
B) erythromycin
C) rifampin
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
Q4) Which of the following is a ribozyme?
A) Clp protease
B) release factor
C) trigger factor
D) peptidyl transferase
E) aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Restriction enzymes are categorized into three types based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the number of subunits in the enzyme
B) the phages that are susceptible to their activity
C) the cofactors required for activity
D) where the DNA cleavage sites are located
E) whether the enzyme methylates the host DNA
Q2) Which of the following forms of transposition specifically describes the transfer of DNA from one cell to another?
A) nonreplicative
B) replicative
C) composite
D) complex
E) conjugative
Q3) Interrupted mating involves breaking __________ bridges using a blender.
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) transposition
E) bacteriophage
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism behind slipped-strand mispairing is:
A) short repeats allow for slippage of the RNA polymerase during transcription of the affected genes
B) short repeats allow for slippage of DNA polymerase during replication, which leads to an out-of-frame reading sequence
C) an invertible promoter slips into different reading frames
D) the genes coding for lipopolysaccharide in Gram-negative bacteria can be slipped in and out of frame
E) short repeats slip and turn genes off, but they can never be turned back on
Q2) Explain the process of attenuation in regulating transcription of the tryptophan operon.
Q3) A feature common to all control mechanisms is:
A) quorum sensing
B) phosphorylation cascades
C) ability to sense that something inside or around the cell has changed
D) housekeeping enzymes
E) increased or decreased gene expression
Q4) Explain how a repressor protein works with respect to a biosynthetic operon.
Q5) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can viruses be used to treat cancer? What are some features the viruses must have to be used in cancer therapy?
Q2) Which antiviral agent is currently used to treat influenza infections targeting viral neuraminidase?
A) Tamiflu
B) Pleconaril
C) Zidovudine
D) Acyclovir
E) Vitravene
Q3) The segmented genome of influenza virus makes virus assembly problematic. How does the assembly mechanism package exactly eight segments correctly?
Q4) Herpes simplex virus 1 replication involves:
A) viral DNA polymerase
B) rolling-circle replication
C) concatemer formation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q5) Describe the replication cycle of HIV.
Q6) Why isn't there a cure or vaccine for AIDS yet?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) How is the concept of "logic gates" used in synthetic biology?
Q2) Sigma B is a stress-induced transcription factor in Bacillus subtilis. Bacteria producing a sigma B-YFP fusion protein were exposed to constant energy stress and fluorescence pulses emitted by individual cells were detected by time-lapse microscopy. Could this result have been obtained using a sigma B-\(\beta\)-gal fusion protein?
A) Yes. Hydrolysis of X-Gal by \(\beta\)-galactosidase produces a blue product detectable by eye.
B) Yes. Hydrolysis of ONPG by \(\beta\)-galactosidase in liquid medium produces an orange compound measurable by spectrophotometry.
C) Yes. It depends on how the construct is made with respect to the position of the RBS.
D) No. Whereas YFP fluorescence can be carefully observed and measured by time-lapse microscopy, \(\beta\)-gal activity is measured as an average of the population as a whole.
E) None of the above.
Q3) What are translational fusions used for? How are they constructed?
Q4) Describe the difference between autoradiography and phosphoimaging.
Q5) How can a protein be detected on a western blot?
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) A bacterium capable of producing methane and water from carbon dioxide and hydrogen performs a type of metabolism called __________ and, given its sources of electrons, it is a __________.
A) methanogenesis; chemolithotroph
B) respiration; heterotroph
C) fermentation; chemoorganotroph
D) carbon fixation; phototroph
E) none of the above
Q2) The enzyme pyruvate kinase catalyzes the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate; the phosphate group is transferred to ADP to form ATP. This reaction is an example of:
A) ATP synthesis by substrate-level phosphorylation
B) the use of a proton concentration gradient by [H<sup>+</sup>]-ATPases to synthesize ATP
C) ATP coupled to FADH<sub>2</sub> oxidation
D) a P-Type ATPase activity
E) none of the above
Q3) How does the efficiency of energy capture by ATP formation in bacterial tricarboxylic acid cycle compare with that of mitochondria?
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Which of the following is a common component of photolytic electron transport systems?
A) antennae system
B) electron carriers
C) energy carriers
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a terminal electron acceptor in anaerobic respirations?
A) nitrate
B) nitrite
C) sulfate
D) carbon dioxide
E) hydrogen sulfide
Q3) What is the chromophore group in bacteriorhodopsin?
A) tocopherol
B) \(\beta\)-carotene
C) folic acid
D) retinal
E) none of the above
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Rubisco catalyzes the reaction:
A) CO<sub>2</sub> + ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate \(\rarr\)2,3-phosphoglycerate
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> + acetyl-CoA \(\rarr\) malonyl-CoA + NADPH \(\rarr\)3-hydroxypropionate
C) H<sub>2</sub>S + light\(\rarr\) S<sup>0</sup> + 2 H<sup>+</sup> + 2 e<sup>-</sup>
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) What kind of reaction is the formation of oxaloacetate from phosphoenolpyruvate?
A) anabolic
B) anaplerotic
C) carboxylation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Describe how modular enzymes function in polyketide biosynthesis. Why might this be of use medically?
Q4) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Q5) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Q6) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Q7) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) E. coli O157:H7 was first observed in fast-food hamburger meat. More recently, it has been associated with contamination of spinach and other vegetables. How did this spread from meat to vegetables happen?
A) E. coli O157:H7 picked up genes for plant virulence.
B) E. coli O157:H7 can grow as a plant endophyte.
C) E. coli O157:H7 has become a psychrotroph and can grow in refrigerated foods.
D) E. coli O157:H7 produces toxins that can survive on plant material.
E) E. coli O157:H7 has lost genes needed to grow in meat.
Q2) Listeria is a(n) __________ organism, which means that it readily grows at refrigeration temperatures.
A) neutrophilic
B) acidophilic
C) mesophilic
D) thermophilic
E) psychrotrophic
Q3) With respect to an industrial process, what are upstream and downstream processing methods, and how do they differ?
Q4) Why aren't bacteria usually edible as isolated organisms? What problems could occur if a person ate large quantities of bacteria?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Based on small subunit rRNA phylogeny studies, the current view is that there are __________ domains of life.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) none of the above
Q2) Which branch of taxonomy deals with the recognition of all the different classes of life?
A) identification
B) classification
C) nomenclature
D) biogeography
E) ethnology
Q3) Why and how is the small subunit ribosomal RNA (SSU 16S rRNA) used to determine molecular phylogeny?
Q4) What type of laboratory medium and conditions would you need in order to culture the secondary symbiont alga Guillardia theta?
Q5) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis contains:
A) mycolyl-arabinogalactan-peptidoglycan
B) mycolic acids
C) phenolic glycolipids
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Cyanobacteria are the only prokaryotes that use __________ to hydrolyze water with O<sub>2</sub>-release.
A) photosystem I alone
B) bacteriochlorophyll
C) both photosystems I and II
D) plastocyanin
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the species of Frankia?
A) They belong to the phylum Actinobacteria.
B) They can live as endophytes in the roots of some vascular plants, where they fix nitrogen.
C) Some species can protect plants, such as wheat, from fungal infection.
D) Some species can grow as saprophytes on dead leaf litter.
E) This species has not been found to form spores.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) The energy-yielding process of __________ occurs only in the archaea.
A) fermentation
B) sulfur oxidation
C) hydrogen oxidation
D) methanogenesis
E) anaerobic respiration
Q2) Why are extremophiles important to industry?
Q3) The __________ domain lacks pathogens.
A) Eukarya
B) Bacteria
C) Archaea
D) protist
E) monera
Q4) The side chains of archaeal lipids are branched at every __________ carbon.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) fifth
Q5) What are some of the unique features of archaeal gene regulation?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) An example of unicellular green algae would be found in which of the following genera?
A) Penicillium
B) Saccharomyces
C) Spirogyra
D) Aspergillus
E) Chlamydomonas
Q2) Tinea pedis, the fungi that causes athlete's foot, has male and female mycelium tips that can fuse and ultimately form ascospores. Which phyla do they belong in?
A) Chytridiomycota
B) Zygomycota
C) Ascomycota
D) Basidiomycota
E) Sporomycota
Q3) Give one reason why geologists could look at foraminiferans to determine potential sites for oil drilling.
Q4) Kelps (brown algae) are organisms that have four membranes surrounding their chloroplasts. What does this mean and where did each of the membranes come from?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Explain how endoliths derive energy inside bedrock, where there is no sunlight.
Q2) How can one measure biomass production in terms of DNA replication? What are the limitations?
Q3) Feeding cattle grain generates high rumen acidity, selecting for acid-resistant pathogens such as:
A) Sulfolobus sp.
B) E. coli O157:H7
C) Halobacterium NRC-1
D) fuselloviruses
E) Helicobacter pylori
Q4) Eutrophic lakes typically support ten times the microbial concentrations of an oligotrophic lake. Which of the following statements is NOT true of eutrophic lakes?
A) Biochemical oxygen demand is high.
B) Population of consumer aquatic animals is high.
C) Nitrogen and phosphorous levels are usually high.
D) Photosynthetic activities are altered.
E) Algal bloom is a common characteristic.
Q5) Explain at least three ways in which metagenomes may miss organisms in the environment.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Which is the most stable form of nitrogen?
A) NO
B) NO<sup>2-</sup>
C) N<sub>2</sub>
D) NH<sub>3</sub>
E) NH
Q2) Concerning biogeochemical cycles, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A) nearly half of nitrogen in the biosphere comes from anthropogenic sources
B) carbon dioxide production by human industry has outpaced fixation
C) most microbes can interconvert the six major elements, from one to another
D) organisms acquire elements from abiotic sources or from other organisms
E) biogeochemistry is the metabolic interactions of microbes with biotic and abiotic environs
Q3) The largest reservoir for carbon is:
A) the atmosphere
B) ocean biomass
C) carbonate rocks and subsurface carbon
D) wetlands
E) fossil fuels
Q4) What types of evidence suggest the past existence of water on Mars?
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A bacterium can live inside a phagocyte by preventing:
A) complement activation
B) interferon production
C) defensin production
D) fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome
E) inflammation
Q2) A woman falls and suffers a cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating microbes contaminating the cut?
A) mucociliary elevator
B) normal skin flora
C) acidic skin secretions
D) lysozyme
E) phagocytosis and the inflammatory response
Q3) Discuss two methods by which bacteria resist or evade killing by phagocytosis.
Q4) How does eating sugar cause dental caries and cavities?
Q5) Why is the alternative complement cascade NOT considered a part of adaptive immunity?
Q6) Why is it important for people with mitral valve prolapse to take antibiotics prior to a dental exam or procedure?
Page 26
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterial STD that lives intracellularly within human host cells. What immune response would most likely prevail in this infection?
A) more T<sub>H</sub>2 cells than T<sub>H</sub>1 cells
B) more T<sub>H</sub>1 cells than T<sub>H</sub>2 cells
C) equal ratio of T<sub>H</sub>1 cells to T<sub>H</sub>2 cells
D) more B cells than CD8 cells
E) mostly antibodies
Q2) Capping of B-cell receptors on the surface of an antigen-exposed B cell immediately causes what to occur?
A) VDJ gene switching, recombination, and hypermutation
B) neutrophil phagocytosis of the antigen
C) complement cascade signaling and antigen destruction
D) cell-signaling cascade, inducing cell proliferation and differentiation
E) helper T-cell proliferation and regulatory T-cell differentiation
Q3) Would treating a person infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has recently developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) using a helper T-cell transfusion work? Why or why not?
Q4) Describe the structure of a typical IgG antibody, including the F(ab')<sub>2</sub> and Fc portions.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) State several of the characteristics pertaining to pathogenicity islands that suggest they are remnants of transposition.
Q2) E. coli O157:H7 has a very low infectious dose because:
A) it is encapsulated
B) disease results from a synergistic action with Shigella
C) it is resistant to usually lethal gastric acid
D) the intestine has many receptors for the toxin
E) it secretes a superantigen
Q3) Petechiae, which result from large amounts of endotoxin, are recognized from which of the following symptoms?
A) diarrhea
B) a pseudomembrane
C) elephantiasis
D) fever
E) a rash
Q4) There is no host cell receptor for the enteropathogenic Escherichia coli intimin adhesion. Describe how this pathogen successfully colonizes human intestines.
Q5) Define a fomite and give at least two specific examples.
Q6) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) The presence of leukocytes in a fecal smear would best indicate which type of infection?
A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) enteroinvasive
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis
Q2) Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?
A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite
Q3) Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and sheep-related products?
Q4) What is a multivalent vaccine? Give examples.
Q5) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
Q6) Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.
Q7) Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Gene-expression elements that account for rapid transmission of drug resistance due to their mobility and ability to collect resistance gene cassettes are called:
A) mobile units
B) virulence plasmids
C) integrons
D) insertion prophages
E) multidrug resistant enhancers
Q2) The term "herd immunity," when used to describe an influenza epidemic, refers to:
A) the fact that this pandemic started on bird farms in Asia
B) a swine flu epidemic that is not coming from a cow population first
C) nasal immunizations working better than shot inoculations
D) vaccination measures protecting a majority of the human population
E) children living in rural areas having stronger immune systems than urban children
Q3) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
Q4) Why is the newly discovered antibiotic class called pyronins considered to be a class of antibiotics that will be hard for a bacteria to become resistant to?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Collection of specimen samples from places on or in the body that contain normal flora usually requires:
A) initial plating on nonselective media
B) direct Gram staining
C) initial plating on selective media
D) direct PCR identification
E) immunofluorescent staining
Q2) In determining the bacterial etiology of a patient with an infection, the first laboratory test should be what, and why? What type of testing would then follow?
Q3) A proper course of action for a patient presenting with Ebola would be:
A) quarantine and laboratory determination of Ebola IgG antibodies
B) vaccination and laboratory growth of Ebola in culture
C) course of antibiotics and laboratory determination of Ebola antigen
D) antiviral therapy followed by a course of antibiotics
E) in-home supportive therapy and laboratory PCR detection
Q4) How have changes within our human culture caused new diseases to emerge?
Explain your answer using a specific example that supports your statements.
Q5) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) Within the chosen markets, a critical marketing task is to segment customers and make recommendations on which customer segments to serve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Snap-on Tools differentiates their brand from the competition by investing a substantial amount of money in traditional advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Companies that succeed over their competitors begin with a simple value proposition that is based on a deep understanding of their customer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Recognizing different sets or groups of customers based on their needs is called A) market segmentation.
B) cross-functional alignment.
C) customer satisfaction measurement.
D) channel strategy.
E) sales execution.
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) In organizations where there is no clear and widely shared understanding of customer needs
A) all functions are integrated.
B) operations are streamlined.
C) departments have multiple responsibilities.
D) the marketing direction is determined by the sales function.
E) each function does its own thing.
Q2) Firms that take a product-centric approach to marketing tend to co-create value with their customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Questionnaires are good for counting and summarizing results, but not for generating ideas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Focus groups allow clients to interact directly with customers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of data collection is the depth interview method most appropriate for?
Q6) Name at least three cautions you should heed when conducting secondary research.
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) If a health clinic decides to offer one-on-one prenatal counselling to every expectant couple regardless of customer needs, it is
A) wasting resources.
B) creating value for the customer.
C) segmenting its customers.
D) devising a positioning strategy.
E) saving time and resources.
Q2) Research has shown that to ensure profitability, a business should select the largest customer based on sales volume as its target.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The founders of Apple avoided the classic pitfalls in market segmentation by
A) becoming big.
B) not imitating their competitors.
C) relying on the easiest segmentation methods.
D) forgetting that segments change.
E) always using the same segmentation approach.
Q4) What are the three basic principles of market segmentation?
Q5) Define the term "mass marketing" and provide an example.
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) If Section 6 of the marketing plan is weak, then
A) tactics are not clearly outlined.
B) responsibilities are not fully assigned.
C) it will not follow the timeline.
D) the marketing plan is also weak.
E) it will be over budget.
Q2) What information is contained in the marketing plan implementation section of a marketing plan?
Q3) What are the four major areas that the sections of a marketing plan fall into?
Q4) The marketing plan needs to be translated into
A) marketing research.
B) financial objectives.
C) sales strategies.
D) functional plans.
E) advertising campaigns.
Q5) A marketing plan is a living, breathing document that should be revisited throughout the year.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What information should be contained in the competitor analysis?
Page 35
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) The diagnosis from measuring brand equity leads to A) refreshing the brand.
B) conducting product research.
C) developing a pricing strategy.
D) changing the channel strategy.
E) introducing new products.
Q2) It is hard to measure innovation efforts without at least 20 metrics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Apple's practice of making technology fun and hassle free is an example of its A) core product.
B) functional product.
C) augmented product.
D) potential product.
E) commodity thinking.
Q4) Too many similar brands confuse customers and erode brand loyalty.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List at least three lessons learned about managing brand portfolios strategically.
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) The costs that actually determine the profit impact of the pricing decision are referred to as
A) acquisition costs.
B) usage costs.
C) possession costs.
D) disposal costs.
E) incremental costs.
Q2) Price, costs, and volume influence a company's
A) profits.
B) distribution.
C) advertising spending.
D) brand image.
E) media planning.
Q3) A short-term tactic in which a company sets a high initial price for a product to recoup its investment is referred to as
A) cost-plus pricing.
B) value-based pricing.
C) price skimming.
D) target costing.
E) price penetration.
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) W. W. Grainger, a leading supplier of facilities maintenance products, successfully switched its customers to a web-based ordering system and ensured a high degree of customer satisfaction by
A) offering incentives.
B) using disincentives.
C) managing the fears of its sales force.
D) increasing channel costs.
E) eliminating commissions.
Q2) It is not necessary for a channel strategy to keep pace with changing customer needs and market conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The direct channel model allows Dell to practice just-in-time (JIT) inventory management, thus keeping its inventory costs at a minimum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By adding more channels, a business better serves its customers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) It is very hard to directly measure the impact of community involvement activities such as sponsorship of community events.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Once the intended message is created, a company should conduct research on A) industry trends.
B) competitive advertising.
C) product performance.
D) the target audience.
Q3) What the target audience knows about the brand and competitors' brands, and which encoding mechanism will work best, are topics addressed by A) market research.
B) communications objectives.
C) market impact metrics.
D) budget allocation.
E) message strategies.
Q4) Trade shows offer an inexpensive means to support sales force efforts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) In many businesses the role of marketing is improperly defined to include only
A) integrated marketing communications strategies.
B) sales generation.
C) channel strategies.
D) advertising strategies.
E) public relations strategies.
Q2) What happens when marketing and sales are not aligned?
Q3) The purpose of a sales force is to simply communicate the customer value created by marketing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a sales plan, value propositions by market segment and by customer are addressed in the
A) performance targets.
B) opportunity analysis.
C) sales strategies.
D) sales plan implementation and control.
E) executive summary.
Q5) What end results has IBM enjoyed after aligning its sales and marketing functions and focusing everyone's attention on the customer?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) Once a business is successfully established as customer focused, it can go with the flow--past successes guarantee future successes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does McDonald's demonstrate its focus on the customer throughout every aspect of its business?
Q3) McDonald's constantly tries new ventures, such as its upscale sandwich stores in New York and the United Kingdom, Pret A Manger. It is not afraid to take risks based on A) product research.
B) potential profitability per product.
C) competitive activity.
D) customer trends.
E) market share by sub-brand.
Q4) One of the four key building blocks in building a customer-focused business is A) CRM tools.
B) a revised product mix.
C) sales training.
D) organizational realignment.
E) marketing research.
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) Even with data from customer satisfaction surveys, customer complaints, and sales reports, many businesses do a poor job of listening to customers because they are
A) internally focused.
B) externally focused.
C) focused on customer needs.
D) focused on the potential customer.
E) focused on dissatisfied customers.
Q2) Quickies, loitering, surfing, and single mission describe
A) types of marketing tactics.
B) types of customer segments.
C) types of customer loyalty classifications.
D) types of survey categories.
E) types of internet usage occasions.
Q3) Based on the customer satisfaction data collected, customers should be A) added to a mailing list.
B) informed of the business' other product offerings.
C) classified into loyalty categories.
D) contacted by a sales representative.
E) contacted by a technical service representative.
Page 42
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) The engine for corporate transformation can and should be
A) sales.
B) research.
C) marketing.
D) public relations.
E) product development.
Q2) A business becomes more productive when it reviews product mix.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is very important to bring the cost to serve customers in line with the compensation received.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A business becomes more productive when it reviews four things every year, one of which is
A) the competition.
B) the marketing mix.
C) ROI.
D) research and new technology.
E) customer satisfaction.
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