General Microbiology Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
General Microbiology provides an introduction to the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers fundamental principles such as cell structure and function, microbial genetics, metabolism, growth, and ecological roles, as well as the impact of microbes on human health, industry, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for studying microorganisms, microbial diversity, disease mechanisms, antimicrobial resistance, and current advances in microbiological research. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced study and careers in biological sciences, healthcare, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 8th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
A)determining evolutionary relatedness.
B)bioremediation.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)nomenclature.
E)determining if that species is the cause of a new disease.01.15 Outline some of the primary evidence used to verify evolutionary trends.01.16 Explain how the trees of life are constructed, and tell what characteristics are used in organizing the organisms on these trees.
Answer: A
Q2) The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The term sterile means free of all life forms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are polysaccharides, except
A)dextran in some bacterial slime layers.
B)agar used to make solid culture media.
C)a cell's glycocalyx.
D)cellulose in certain cell walls.
E)prostaglandins in inflammation.
Answer: E
Q2) Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____. Answer: ions
Q3) The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____. Answer: nucleic acids
Q5) Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____. Answer: nucleus
Q6) _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. Answer: Peptide
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. Answer: subculture
Q2) Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are
A)synthetic.
B)complex.
C)reducing.
D)enriched.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) This microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities:
A)bright-field
B)dark-field
C)phase-contrast
D)fluorescence
E)electron
Answer: C
Q4) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed
Answer: fastidious
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A)lophotrichous.
B)peritrichous.
C)monotrichous.
D)amphitrichous.
E)spirilla.
Q2) All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease, except A)inclusions.
B)the fimbriae.
C)the capsule.
D)the slime layer.
E)the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls.
Q3) Which phylum is mismatched?
A)Gracilicutes - gram-negative cell walls
B)Firmicutes - gram-positive cell walls
C)Actinobacteria - waxy acid fast cell walls
D)Proteobacteria - archaea cell walls
E)None of the choices are correct
6
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common?
A)They are enclosed in a sac.
B)They are types of conidia.
C)They are sexual spores.
D)They are found only in molds.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Fungi are autotrophic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called _____.
Q4) The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is
A)30S.
B)40S.
C)50S.
D)70S.
E)80S.
Q5) Plankton are floating communities of helminths.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the morphology of Cestodes, Trematodes, and Nematodes. Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A)lysogeny. B)budding. C)plaques. D)cytopathic effects. E)pocks.
Q2) The core of every virus particle always contains A)DNA. B)capsomers. C)enzymes. D)DNA and RNA. E)either DNA or RNA.
Q3) A naked virus does not have an _____.
Q4) No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States. A)True B)False
Q5) Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the differences in growth requirements between a photoautotroph and a chemoheterotroph.
Q2) Contractile vacuoles are:
A)used to expel excess water from cells.
B)found in bacterial cells.
C)important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments.
D)protein carriers in cell membranes.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The term chemotroph refers to an organism that:
A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q4) Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Metabolic pathways that are bidirectional are called _____ pathways.
Q3) Mixed acid fermentation:
A)produces butyric acid.
B)occurs in all bacteria.
C)produces acids plus CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub> gases.
D)is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus.
E)also produces ethanol.
Q4) Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly discuss the main events of light dependent photosynthesis including what is required for the desired product(s) to form.
Q6) FAD, NADP, NAD, and coenzyme A are all _____ carriers.
Page 11
Q7) Each FADH<sub>2</sub> from the Kerbs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to _____ ATP's.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _____.
Q2) Transcription and translation occur ___ in prokaryotes.
A)in different organelles
B)simultaneously
C)in the nucleus
D)only on the ribosomes
Q3) The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A)histones.
B)amino acids.
C)nucleotides.
D)mRNA.
E)polymerases.
Q4) Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include: A)chromosomes.
B)plasmids.
C)mitochondrial DNA.
D)chloroplast DNA.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
Q6) A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a _____.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme___ adds three nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively replicated
A)DNA polymerase III, 3'->5'
B)DNA polymerase I, 3'->5'
C)DNA polymerase III, 5'->3'
D)DNA polymerase I, 5'->3'
Q2) The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of A)Escherichia coli.
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
C)Thermus aquaticus.
D)Pseudomonas syringae.
E)Pseudomonas fluorescens.
Q3) The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA technology.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except:
A)ultraviolet radiation.
B)boiling water.
C)HEPA filters.
D)pasteurization.
E)hydrogen peroxide.
Q2) The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is:
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q3) Compare and contrast antisepsis, disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization with regard to techniques used and level of microbial control achieved.
Q4) _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
A)It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis.
B)It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA.
C)It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles.
D)It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope.
E)It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome.
Q2) Penicillins and cephalosporins
A)interfere with DNA synthesis.
B)are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D)damage cell membranes.
E)block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Q3) Sulfonamides
A)interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B)are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D)damage cell membranes.
E)block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Q4) The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed A)syndrome.
B)symptom.
C)sign.
D)pathology.
E)inflammation.
Q2) A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is A)epidemic.
B)endemic.
C)pandemic.
D)sporadic.
E)chronic.
Q3) All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites, except A)Escherichia.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Corynebacterium.
D)Micrococcus.
E)Mycobacterium.
Q4) Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections.They are known as A)monocytes.
B)eosinphils.
C)basophils.
D)neutrophils.
E)lymphocytes.
Q2) The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A)initiation of the cascade.
B)production of inflammatory cytokines.
C)a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
D)cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
E)C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of GALT?
A)Appendix
B)Lymph nodes
C)Spleen
D)Tonsils
E)Thymus gland
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK) cells
Q3) Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule.What type of immunity is this?
A)Natural active immunity
B)Artificial passive immunity
C)Natural passive immunity
D)Artificial active immunity
E)None of the choices will protect him.
Q4) Discuss the various ways by which antibodies interact with antigen and facilitate antigen inhibition or destruction.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)Degranulation
B)Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except A)multiple sclerosis.
B)Graves disease.
C)Hashimoto thyroiditis.
D)myasthenia gravis.
E)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
Q3) The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.
Q4) The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when
A)maternal Rh<sup>+</sup> cells enter an Rh<sup>-</sup> fetus.
B)fetal Rh<sup>+</sup> cells enter an Rh<sup>-</sup> mother.
C)maternal Rh<sup>-</sup> cells enter an Rh<sup>+</sup> fetus.
D)fetal Rh<sup>-</sup> cells enter an Rh<sup>+</sup> mother.
E)fetal Rh<sup>+</sup> cells enter an Rh<sup>+</sup> mother.
Q5) An _____ is any chronic local allergy.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Identify, describe, and discuss the objectives of the three main categories of identifying infectious agents using specific examples.
Q2) When antigen-antibody reactions are used to read a _____, they determine the quantity of antibodies in the serum.
Q3) Broad general characteristics on flowcharts can be misleading. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test.
Q5) ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions.
A)True B)False
Q6) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
Q7) Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen.
Page 20
A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.B
Q2) A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken.Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci?
A)Nutrient agar
B)Blood agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)MacConkey agar
E)Mannitol salt agar
Q3) Necrotizing fasciitis is:
A)also called impetigo.
B)possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues.
C)associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins.
D)typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis.
E)not treatable with antimicrobic drugs.
Q4) Most strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce penicillinase.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are _____ and _____.
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia?
A)it can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.
B)it can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis.
C)they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
D)it lives in the soil.
E)it causes most cases in the immunocompromised.
Q2) Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of:
A)Clostridium botulinum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium difficile.
D)Clostridium tetani.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Swimming pool granuloma is caused by:
A)Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).
B)Mycobacterium kansasii.
C)Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.
D)Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.
E)Mycobacterium marinum.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities?
A)Morganella
B)Providencia
C)Citrobacter
D)Serratia
E)Legionella
Q2) Which is mismatched?
A)H antigen - fimbriae
B)K antigen - capsule
C)O antigen - cell wall, somatic
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid?
A)Haemophilus aegyptius
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
D)Haemophilus ducreyi
E)Haemophilus aphrophilus
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Ornithosis
A)is caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae.
B)is a zoonosis of certain types of birds.
C)is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness.
D)has humans as a reservoir for the pathogen.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii.
Q3) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A)is seen in highest numbers along the west coast.
B)is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.
C)has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash.
D)never has severe complications.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws?
A)Syphilis is caused by a spirochete.
B)Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages.
C)Syphilis is sexually transmitted.
D)Syphilis is treated with antibiotics.
E)Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Chromoblastomycosis
A)is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores.
B)is caused by dimorphic fungi.
C)is a systemic infection.
D)is a serious respiratory tract infection.
E)has a peak incidence in Alaska.
Q2) The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called
A)fungal virulence.
B)parasitism.
C)dimorphism.
D)dermatophytes.
E)opportunistic fungi.
Q3) Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
25
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) All of the following pertain to tapeworms, except
A)scolex is the head.
B)strobila is made up of proglottids.
C)proglottids are reproductive segments.
D)cysticerci are young infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat.
E)one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs.
Q2) Most cases of toxoplasmosis in patients that are not immunocompromised have the following symptoms:
A)bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss
B)fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain
C)urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge
D)chills, fever, and sweating
E)sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes
Q3) The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called _____.
Q4) Human asymptomic carriers are common in
A)balantidiasis.
B)amebiasis and trichomoniasis.
C)elephantiasis.
D)trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis.
E)cryptosporidiosis and malaria.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) Compare and contrast chickenpox and shingles, and explain the underlying reasons for their differences in pathogenesis.
Q2) Liver disease, such as hepatitis, can lead to bilirubin accumulation that causes a yellow tinge to skin and eyes called _____.
Q3) Zoster immune globulin (ZIG) and varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) are attenuated vaccines for childhood vaccination.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cytomegalovirus:
A)is among the most common of human infections.
B)is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions.
C)can be sexually transmitted.
D)is commonly carried in the latent state.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Describe and explain the six general steps in the multiplication cycle of an enveloped RNA virus.
Q6) Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.
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Q7) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.
Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve:
A)fever, headache, and rash.
B)coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
C)myalgia and orbital pain.
D)muscle aches and joint stiffness.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except:
A)have an immunodeficiency
B)have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm<sup>3</sup> of blood
C)get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections
D)can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E)highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
Q3) Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except:
A)glycoprotein spikes.
B)DNA genome.
C)envelope.
D)reverse transcriptase.
E)viral genes integrate into the host genome.
Q4) The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.
Q5) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) As energy is transferred to the next trophic level, how much of it is generally lost as heat?
A)None.
B)5 %
C)10 %
D)50 %
E)90 %
Q2) Which of the following is not correct about nitrogen fixation?
A)Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live free.
B)Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in a symbiotic relationship with plants.
C)Nitrogen-fixation is an aerobic process.
D)The primary product of nitrogen fixation is ammonium ion, NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>.
E)Legumes are plants that are able to fix nitrogen.
Q3) Which of the following water-borne pathogens are protozoans?
A)Vibrio
B)Hepatitis A
C)Giardia
D)Shigella
E)Norwalk virus
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Rennin is added to cheese to give it flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drying, or _________ is not a reliable microbicidal method.
Q3) Organisms from the genus Aspergillus are used in the production of A)pectinase
B)proteases
C)cellulase
D)amylase
E)All of the above.
Q4) List some examples of products made through industrial microbiology.
Q5) Fermenters have a built-in device called a sparger.What does a sparger do?
A)It adds a continuous supply of glucose to the media.
B)It monitors the pH of the medium.
C)It monitors the temperature of the medium.
D)It aerates the medium to promote aerobic growth.
E)It stirs the mixture of microbe and nutrients.
Q6) ____________ protein can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products to be used as a food.
Q7) A _____ is a device used for growing mass cultures.
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