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General Microbiology Practice Questions - 1617 Verified Questions

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General Microbiology Practice Questions

Course Introduction

General Microbiology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, diversity, and classification of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers microbial physiology, genetics, growth, ecology, and the roles microorganisms play in health, disease, and the environment. Students will also examine basic laboratory techniques for culturing, identifying, and controlling microorganisms, as well as the application of microbiology in fields such as medicine, industry, and biotechnology.

Recommended Textbook Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner

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24 Chapters

1617 Verified Questions

1617 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Microbial World

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these gene expression errors will result in heritable genetic change?

A)DNA polymerase error introducing an incorrect base

B)RNA polymerase error creating a mutated mRNA

C)RNA polymerase error creating a mutated tRNA

D)RNA polymerase error creating a mutated rRNA

E)All will lead to heritable changes

Answer: A

Q2) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.

Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.

Q3) What are the three Domains of life?

A)Monera,Animals,and Plants

B)Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya

C)Prokaryote,Eukaryote,and Fungi

D)Animals,Plants,and Bacteria

E)Prokaryote,Eukaryote,Archaea

Answer: B

Q4) Viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Bacteria

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the major difference between the strategies of Caulobacter and Proteus in nutrient acquisition?

A)Caulobacter increases its own cell surface area while Proteus covers more nutrient-containing surface area to improve nutrient absorption

B)Proteus increases its own cell surface area while Caulobacter covers more nutrient-containing surface area to improve nutrient absorption

C)Caulobacter uses pili to attach to new surface areas while Proteus uses axial filaments for enhanced motility

D)Proteus uses pili to attach to new surface areas while Caulobacter uses axial filaments for enhanced motility

E)None is a correct statement

Answer: A

Q2) _______ motility is used by myxobacteria and some cyanobacteria for smooth movement across a solid surface.

Answer: Gliding

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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is likely to have evolved most recently in plant cells?

A)Glycolytic ability

B)Cellulose cell wall

C)Inclusion of mitochondria

D)Inclusion of chloroplasts

E)Phagocytic ability

Answer: B

Q2) Fungi usually decompose dead materials but can also cause disease in humans and animals.Which enzymes might assist them in invading living animals and causing disease?

A)cellulase

B)keratinase

C)chitinase

D)lysozyme

E)none would be of assistance

Answer: B

Q3) Most cell walls of algae are composed of ___.

Answer: cellulose

Q4) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.

Answer: actin

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Chapter 4: Archaea

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which member of the Archaea domain is a parasite of the archaeon Ignicoccus hospitalis and has one of the smallest genomes of all living microbes?

A)Pyrolobus fumarii

B)Thermoplasma acidophilum

C)Nanoarchaeum equitans

D)Nitrosopumilus maritimus

E)Sulfolobus solfataricus

Q2) What is the primary reason that Woese and Fox choose the rRNA molecule to study phylogenetic relationships between organisms?

A)Ribosomal RNA is abundant in the cell.

B)Ribosomal RNA is a very stable molecule.

C)Ribosomal RNA is a molecule found in all living organisms.

D)Ribosomal RNA sequencing was very easy to perform at the time.

E)Ribosomal RNA is very easy to isolate and manipulate.

Q3) All members of the phylum Crenarchaeota are hyperthermophiles.

A)True

B)False

Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.

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Chapter 5: Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) All viruses require host cell enzymes for translation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of these comprises the viral genome?

A)single-stranded DNA

B)single-stranded RNA

C)double-stranded DNA

D)double-stranded RNA

E)All of these choices are seen in viruses.

Q3) Proto-oncogenes never play a necessary role in development and growth of an organism.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Viruses categorized in the same Baltimore group may possess common proteins.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The zone of clearing as a result of a phage infection on a lawn of E.coli growing on the surface of an agar plate is called a ________.

Q6) Small infectious RNA molecules that are able to cause disease in plants are called

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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms

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Sample Questions

Q1) What term applies to a microbe that can synthesize all of its cellular constituents from a simple carbon source and inorganic salts?

A)autotroph

B)heterotroph

C)auxotroph

D)prototroph

E)a chemotroph

Q2) Triple sugar iron agar results allow the conclusion(s): (Select all that apply)

A)Pseudomonas does not ferment lactose

B)Proteus does not ferment glucose

C)Shigella does not ferment glucose

D)E.coli does not ferment lactose

E)Salmonella does produce H S

Q3) To thrive on a selective medium,a microbe will usually possess: (Select all that apply)

A)Salt tolerance

B)Prototrophic capability

C)Anaerobic capability

D)Acid tolerance

E)Ability to metabolize an unusual nutrient

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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression

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Sample Questions

Q1) The RNA polymerase in Archaea is more similar to Bacteria RNA polymerase than Eukarya RNA polymerase II.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What are micro RNAs?

A)mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins

B)small regulatory RNAs

C)tRNAs

D)rRNAs

E)small mRNAs

Q3) The main differences between Bacteria and Archaea chromosomal DNA when compared to Eukarya chromosomal DNA,is that the Bacteria or Archaea chromosome usually:

A)is circular while Eukarya is linear.

B)is diploid while Eukarya is haploid.

C)consist of several chromosomes while Eukarya has a single chromosome.

D)contains the base uracil while Eukarya has thymine in place of uracil.

E)is found in a non-condensed form while Eukarya DNA is highly condensed and packaged.

Q4) Describe the structure of DNA according to the Watson - Crick Model.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these viruses is most likely to possess a T-antigen equivalent?

A)Bacteriophage T4

B)Poxvirus

C)Poliovirus

D)HPV

E)HIV

Q2) Bacteriophage T4 uses which of its component molecules to assist in genome entry into a bacterial cell:

A)Phage head proteins

B)Tail core protein

C)Tail fiber protein

D)Nucleic acids

E)None is a correct choice

Q3) Which choice includes all viruses using host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase?

A)I,II,IV,V

B)III,IV,V,VI

C)I,II,VI,VII

D)1,III,IV,V

E)II,III,VI,VII

Q4) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.

10

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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ________ protein is important in the process of recombination.

A)RecZ

B)RecA

C)TpnB

D)TpnC

E)TpnZ

Q2) Term for a plasmid cloning vector that is able to replicate in different genera of bacteria.

A)fertility plasmid

B)resistance plasmid

C)shuttle vector

D)transfection vector

E)cosmid vector

Q3) Assuming mutation frequency to be around 10 ,at what frequency will quadruple mutant auxotrophs revert to prototrophy?

A)4 x 10-

B)12 x 10-

C)24 x 10-¹²

D)1 x 10-²

E)None is a correct choice

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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) In analyzing a genome sequence,a computer program identifies the beginning and the end of a protein encoding sequence.This sequence is referred to as a(n)_______ _______ frame.

Q2) Analysis of the genome sequence of an organism shows that an area of the genome contains stretch of several thousand base pairs that differ significantly in % G + C content from the rest of the genome.Most likely this DNA was originally obtained from a gene duplication event.

A)True

B)False

Q3) To determine that a gene is a paralog of another,its GC content should be: (Select all that apply)

A)Similar to that of the gene with a related function

B)Distinct from that of the gene with related function

C)Similar to that of the SSU rRNA gene

D)Distinct from that of the SSU rRNA gene

E)None is a relevant choice

Q4) The complete complement of proteins in the cell that results from the translation of all the mRNA transcripts is called the ____________.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression

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Sample Questions

Q1) The use of sigma factor by RNAP for promoter identification is a type of A)induction.

B)global regulation.

C)activation.

D)attenuation.

E)quorum sensing.

Q2) The transfer of T-DNA into a plant cell by Agrobacterium tumefaciens is regulated by: (Select all that apply)

A)virA phosphorylation of virG

B)virG phosphorylation of virA

C)VirA phosphorylation of VirG

D)VirG phosphorylation of VirA

E)ATP-mediated phosphorylation of VirA

Q3) When does repression of the lac operon occur?

A)When allolactose binds to the operator region.

B)When allolactose binds to the repressor protein.

C)When the repressor protein binds to the operator region.

D)When allolactose binds to -galactosidase.

E)When the repressor protein binds to the promoter.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are the opine synthesis genes considered expendible in a pTi vector for transgenic plant creation? (Select all that apply)

A)bacterial reproduction will not be essential in the transgenic plant

B)plant anabolism is not opine-dependent

C)their removal enables larger recombinant gene fragments to be introduced into the recipient plant

D)Their contribution to virulence is offset by dual plasmid transfers

E)None is a correct choice

Q2) Which of these proteins could theoretically be mutated in order to create novel site specific DNA binding proteins with double strand endonuclease activity? (Select all that apply)

A)Restriction endonucleases

B)Zinc finger nucleases

C)Repressor proteins

D)Inducer molecules

E)Transcription activator-like effector nucleases

Q3) Cyanobacteria are known to accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHA).

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Enzymes that break down proteins into individual amino acids.

A)amylases

B)proteases

C)reductases

D)dehydrogenases

E)lipases

Q2) Cyanobacteria carry out oxygenic photosynthesis producing oxygen as a byproduct from the oxidation of water,which serves as the electron donor for the light-dependent reactions.How would cyanobacteria be classified?

A)chemoorganoautotroph

B)chemoorganoheterotroph

C)photolithoheterotroph

D)photoorganoautotroph

E)photolithoautotroph

Q3) Which of these is NOT an electron carrier used in the electron transport system?

A)flavoproteins

B)iron-sulfur proteins

C)ATPase

D)quinones

E)cytochromes

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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles

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Sample Questions

Q1) The chemoautotrophic process that results in the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite is called ____________.

Q2) What is the oxidation state of carbon in lactic acid (C H O )?

A)0

B)-2

C)-4

D)+2

E)+4

Q3) How can denitrification of soil be reduced?

A)By adding lime to the soil.

B)By adding ammonia to the soil.

C)By keeping the soil well aerated.

D)By adding potash to the soil.

E)By flooding the soil with water.

Q4) Marine.algae have the potential to reduce global warming through generation of:

A)Hydrogen sulfide

B)Sulfur dioxide

C)dimethylsulfoniopropionate

D)dimethylsulfide

E)methane

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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The part of the soil that immediately surrounds the plant root is called the

Q2) Microbes are able to generate energy through the:

A)oxidation of organic compounds only.

B)reduction of organic compounds only.

C)oxidation of inorganic and organic compounds.

D)reduction of inorganic and organic compounds.

E)synthesis of ATP.

Q3) What is the estimated percentage of microbial species on Earth have been grown in culture?

A)1 -5%

B)5 - 10 %

C)10 - 15%

D)15-20%

E)20 - 25%

Q4) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.

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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) This mold and metabolism are used in the moromi stage of soy sauce production:

A)anaerobic Aspergillus strains

B)aerobic Aspergillus strains

C)aerobic Leuconostoc strains

D)anaerobic Leuconostoc strains

E)none is active in this phase

Q2) Fermented soybean products,like miso and tempeh,are produced using A)lactic acid bacteria.

B)molds.

C)propionate bacteria.

D)acetic acid bacteria.

E)Saccharomyces.

Q3) with respect to water quality,an indicator organism is one which: (Select all that apply)

A)Causes little,if any,illness

B)Ferments lactose to produce gas

C)Is found in the avian intestine

D)Is non-endospore forming

E)Grows well at temperatures of 25 degrees C

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which part of the lichen provides photosynthetic capability? (Select all that apply)

A)photobiont

B)mycobiont

C)fungal cells

D)algal cells

E)cyanobacterial cells

Q2) A group of microorganisms that are interdependent on one another for the stability of the community is called a/an__________________

Q3) The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen binding protein.

A)cytochrome c

B)flavoprotein

C)leghemoglobin

D)menaquinone

E)nitrate reductase

Q4) The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member benefits and the other member is not affected is called _________________.

Q5) All microorganisms that live on or within the human body are referred to collectively as the human ________________.

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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Neisseria gonorrheae causes disease through:

A)latency of some bacterial cells within host tissues

B)creation of ever-changing VSG glycoproteins

C)ability to destroy immune defenses in the host

D)production of exotoxin released from its Gram positive cell wall

E)production of xylanase,destroying plant conductive tissue

Q2) The discussion in this section of Shiga toxin's beneficial contribution to the survival of E.coli O157: H7 within its host leads us to speculate that the toxin may be part of a/an:

A)Surface receptor complex on the bacterial cell surface

B)Transcription activating complex

C)Translation stimulating peptide

D)DNA polymerase complex

E)Flagellar antigen complex

Q3) In the CRISPR-Cas system,which component is responsible for phage destruction?

A)Pre-cRNA transcript

B)cRNA subunits

C)Cas helicase

D)Cas nuclease

E)CRISPR locus

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the most numerous white blood cells in the body?

A)eosinophils

B)lymphocytes

C)neutrophils

D)basophils

E)monocytes

Q2) Macrophages are phagocytic cells found in certain body tissues.Macrophages are differentiated from which of these cells?

A)monocytes

B)basophils

C)lymphocytes

D)eosinophils

E)neutrophils

Q3) The classical pathway of complement activation is initiated through the recognition of bound antibody to antigen on the microbe surface.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The body's programmed nonspecific response to tissue injury is called

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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these is able to bind to the T cell receptor on a specific T cell?

A)Any epitope on an antigen.

B)Any epitope.

C)Any antigen.

D)Only a single unique epitope on an antigen.

E)Any ligand.

Q2) Which of these cytokines assist in differentiation of TS1U1B1HS1U1B01 cells? (Select all that apply)

A)IL-4

B)Il-12

C)IL-10

D)IL-18

E)TNFS1U1B1?S1U1B0

Q3) Which of these cytokine(s)are inhibitory to the activity of T<sub>H</sub>2 cells? (Select all that apply)

A)IL-4

B)TNF

C)IL-10

D)IL-18

E)IFN

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Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms

of Bacterial Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) By what mechanism does the enzyme streptokinase allow Streptococcus pyogenes to spread through tissue?

A)By lysing smooth muscle cells.

B)By lysing skin epithelial cells.

C)By breaking down fibrin clots.

D)By lysing red blood cells.

E)By lysing white blood cells.

Q2) Streptococcus pyogenes is not efficiently opsonized for phagocytosis because of this component of its capsule.

A)hyaluronic acid

B)lipid A

C)lipopolysaccharides

D)teichoic acid

E)Protein A

Q3) Tuberculosis can be caused by: (Select all that apply)

A)Mycobacterium leprae

B)Mycobacterium bovis

C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D)Mycobacterium caninum

E)All choices are incorrect

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Genes whose alteration can transform normal cells into cancer cells are called

Q2) Abortive transformation of BRK epithelial cells may arise when:

A)None is a correct choice

B)Adenoviral gene product E7 intereacts with Rb

C)Adenoviral gene product E1B intereacts with p53 and Adenoviral gene product E1A intereacts with Rb

D)Adenoviral gene product E1B intereacts with Rb and Adenoviral gene product E1A intereacts with p53

E)Adenoviral gene product E1A intereacts with Rb

Q3) Viral transfer by a mechanical mechanism involves which of these?

A)Direct host to host contact.

B)Transfer from mother to fetus.

C)An insect bite or movement

D)Touching of a contaminated surface

E)Blood-borne transmission.

Q4) Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus.This is referred to as __________ __________.

Q5) Warts are caused by the human _______________.

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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Malaria has influenced human evolution because it has contributed to the development of ______________ in humans.

A)asthma

B)hemochromatosis

C)sickle cell disease

D)diabetes mellitus

E)myasthenia gravis

Q2) The plant pathogen Magnaporthe grisea produces specialized cell structures called ____________ that penetrate the plant cuticle to allow the fungi to invade the plant.

A)hyphae

B)conidia

C)ascospores

D)appressoria

E)cysts

Q3) Some eukaryal pathogens have influenced the evolution of their human host.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The malarial parasite obtains nutrients by digesting ___________ from host red blood cells.

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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Antimicrobial drug resistance due to the acquisition of new genes occurs in bacteria by the following mechanism(s)

A)conjugation.

B)conjugation and transposition.

C)conjugation and transduction.

D)transduction and transposition.

E)conjugation,transposition,and transduction.

Q2) The reason for the severe side effects seen with the first pertussis vaccine was:

A)incorrect strains of B.pertussis were used

B)too much adjuvant was added

C)incorrect types of adjuvant were added

D)the virus was a live attenuated vaccine,and it replicated within the host

E)the microbial preparation was poorly prepared

Q3) The mode of action of aminoglycosides is to inhibit __________ synthesis.

A)protein

B)RNA

C)DNA

D)membrane

E)peptidoglycan

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