General Microbiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
General Microbiology offers a comprehensive introduction to the foundational concepts of microbiology, exploring the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers microbial genetics, metabolism, growth, and the interaction of microbes with their environments, including their roles in health, disease, and the broader ecosystem. Laboratory components emphasize key techniques for culturing, identifying, and safely handling microorganisms, reinforcing theoretical knowledge with practical experience. Through lectures, readings, and hands-on activities, students develop an understanding of the vital roles that microorganisms play in medical, environmental, and industrial contexts.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) The __________ Theory is used to explain the origins of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells.
Answer: endosymbiotic,endosymbiont,endosymbiosis
Q2) Which is a macromolecular difference between the Domains Bacteria and Archaea?
A) Archaea contain a nucleus and Bacteria do not.
B) Bacteria contain DNA and Archaea do not.
C) Bacteria contain a plasma membrane and Archaea do not.
D) Bacteria cell wall contains peptidoglycan and the Archaea cell wall does not.
E) Archaea contain multiple types of RNA polymerase and Bacteria has only one type.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the Endosymbiotic Theory is used to explain?
A) the rapid evolution of viruses
B) antiphagocytic abilities of parasitic protozoa
C) pathogenicity of parasitic bacteria
D) presence of mitochondria in eukaryotes
E) development of the nucleus in eukaryotes
Answer: D
Q4) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) The bacterial ___ functions in protection from desiccation,and phagocytosis,and in attachment.
Answer: capsule
Q2) Describe the chemical composition of the peptidoglycan.
Answer: Peptidoglycan is a polymer made up of long chains of alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) molecules. These chains are cross-linked by short peptides, forming a strong and rigid cell wall structure in bacteria. The peptides are made up of a combination of amino acids, including L-alanine, D-glutamic acid, meso-diaminopimelic acid, and D-alanine. This unique composition gives peptidoglycan its characteristic strength and resistance to osmotic pressure.
Q3) What is the role of the ParM protein in bacteria?
A) Determination of cell shape.
B) To assign plasmids to each cell during cell division.
C) To assist in carrying out meiosis.
D) In cell movement during chemotaxis.
E) In sugar and protein metabolism.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) When the fungus Saccharomyces cerevisiae completes meiosis,the resulting ascospores:
A) always combine to form a diploid cell.
B) will continue to replicate asexually as haploid cells.
C) may combine to form a diploid cell or replicate as haploid cells.
D) are all genetically identical.
E) will immediately undergo meiosis a second time.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these is a fungus widely used by molecular biologists to investigate the workings of eukaryal cells?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Dictyostelium discoideum
D) Penicillium notatum
E) Cephalosporium acremonium
Answer: B
Q3) Mitochondria replicate independently of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) How do the Bacteria and Archaea differ in the way the flagellum proteins are handled?
A) Archaea proteins are assembled inside the cell for transport out of the cell.
B) Archaea proteins are excreted to the outside of the cell for self-assembly.
C) Archaea proteins are added to the growing flagellum shaft at the base.
D) Archaea proteins are transported through the hollow flagellum tube for assembly at the end of the flagellum.
E) Archaea proteins are enclosed within a membrane and moved to the outside of the cell.
Q2) To avoid osmotic shock,the obligate halophile Halobacterium salinarum maintains a high intracellular concentration of which chemical?
A) potassium
B) glucose
C) chloride
D) sodium
E) glycine
Q3) All members of the Archaea live in extreme environments.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) How do prions cause disease?
A) By corrupting mRNA expression in the cell.
B) By corrupting DNA replication in the cell.
C) By preventing translation from occurring in the cell.
D) By causing naturally occurring proteins in the cell to change shape.
E) By preventing proper RNA transcription termination.
Q2) Term for bacteriophages that have the ability to either cause a lytic infection or integrate their genome into the host cell chromosome after entry into the host cell.
A) lysogenic phage
B) virulent phage
C) transposable phage
D) cytopathic phage
E) retro-phage
Q3) What general shape is a virus with helical capsid symmetry?
A) icosahedral
B) spherical
C) round
D) rod shaped
E) square
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) How long would it take a culture of E.coli with a starting cell density of 1 X 10 cells/ ml to reach a cell density of 1 X 10 cells/ml if it had a generation time of 30 minutes?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
E) 7 hours
Q2) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
Q3) Prototrophic microbes need to be grown on a complex medium because they have several growth factor requirements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of siderophores?
A) Transporting waste products out of the cell.
B) Binding iron for transport into the cell.
C) Binding glucose for transport into the cell.
D) Transporting proteins out of the cell.
E) Moving potassium into the cell for osmotic regulation.
Q5) Would ionizing radiation be safe to use on food? Why?
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) Which statement below is FALSE regarding replication of the bacterial chromosome?
A) Replication occurs in a bidirectional manner from the origin of replication.
B) The leading strand is replicated in the 5' to 3' direction and the lagging strand in the 3' to 5' direction.
C) The primase adds a short RNA primer to serve as a starting point for the DNA polymerase to add new bases.
D) DNA replication is a semi-conservative process, where one strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a complementary strand.
E) The incoming nucleotide triphosphate is covalently attached to the free 3' hydroxyl.
Q2) Replication termination in E.coli involves which two proteins?
A) Tus protein and topoisomerase II.
B) helicase and DnaG.
C) helicase and topoisomerase II.
D) Tus protein and DnaG.
E) Tus protein and helicase.
Q3) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence on a mRNA is recognized by the __________ of the 30S ribosome.
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Class VII viruses,double-stranded DNA viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase,replicate their genome using the following polymerase
A) host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
B) viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D) viral RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
E) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Q2) Class I viruses,double-stranded DNA viruses,usually utilize the following polymerases for mRNA synthesis and DNA replication
A) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
B) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
D) host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
E) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
Q3) Host __________ is determined through the specific binding of the viral attachment protein to the host cell receptor.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) In order for a plasmid to be replicated in a cell,it must contain which of these?
A) The code for a DNA polymerase.
B) An origin of replication.
C) The code for DNA gyrase.
D) A strong promoter sequence.
E) A Pribnow Box.
Q2) Suppose a mutant strain of Escherichia coli K12 contains a mutation in the trpE gene and is no longer able to make tryptophan.What is this mutant called?
A) An auxotroph.
B) A prototroph.
C) An autotroph.
D) A phenotroph.
E) A lithotroph.
Q3) Which of the following processes would still occur in a RecA mutant?
A) conjugation
B) transformation
C) transduction
D) both conjugation and transformation
E) both transformation and transduction
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) Which of these can be used to determine protein structure?
A) amino acid sequencing
B) X-ray crystallography and NMR
C) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE)
D) denaturing gel electrophoresis
E) mass spectrometry
Q2) Term for genes from different organisms that encode for proteins that carry out the same function but have different sequences.
A) homologs
B) paralogs
C) orthologs
D) metalogs
E) semilogs
Q3) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing has been automated and uses a(n):
A) thermal-stable DNA polymerase to allow for multiple rounds of DNA synthesis.
B) trideoxynucleotides in the synthesis reactions.
C) radiolabeled nucleotides for fragment detection.
D) agarose gel electrophoresis for fragment separation.
E) chemical digestion method for fragment generation.
Q4) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which component of the two-component regulatory system frequently senses changes in the external environment?
A) repressor protein
B) activator protein
C) histidine kinase
D) response regulator
E) transport protein
Q2) A mutation in the lacI gene results in an active repressor protein that can no longer bind allolactose.Which would be true of the phenotype of the mutant strain?
A) It would be constitutive for -galactosidase expression.
B) It would overexpress LacZ.
C) It would be the same as the wild-type strain.
D) It would repress -galactosidase when lactose is present.
E) It would be overexpress -galactosidase when lactose is present.
Q3) The directed movement toward a light source is called ______________.
Q4) Small non-coding RNA (sRNA)always inhibit translation initiation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does lactose regulate the expression of the lac operon?
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of these amino acids are used for the production of the sweetener aspartame?
A) glycine and asparagine
B) glutamate and asparagine
C) aspartate and phenylalanine
D) aspartate and glycine
E) tryptophan and proline
Q2) Millions of tons of this amino acid,commonly used as a flavor enhancer,are produced annually.
A) methionine
B) glycine
C) glutamate
D) valine
E) leucine
Q3) Bioreactors or fermentors are used in industry to maximize cell density and therefore also increase product ________.
Q4) Expression of eukaryal DNA in bacterial cells requires the insertion of _______ into the plasmid expression vector.
Q5) Why are microalgae an attractive source of biodiesel?
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) Which of these are important products of the pentose phosphate pathway that are used in biosynthesis?
A) pyruvate, ribose-5-phosphate, and NADPH
B) NADPH, ribose-5-phosphate, and erythrose-4-phosphate
C) pyruvate, citrate, and erythrose-4-phosphate
D) pyruvate, erythrose-4-phosphate, and ribose-5-phosphate
E) citrate, NADPH, and ribose-5-phosphate
Q2) Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fermentation can most accurately be described by which of these?
A) The reoxidation of NADH by an electron transport chain.
B) A process that occurs in the absence of oxygen.
C) An energy producing process found in all anaerobes.
D) The direct reoxidation of NADH by an internal organic molecule.
E) The use of a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen.
Q4) The type of photosynthesis that does NOT produce oxygen is called ___________ photosynthesis.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) The oxidation state of the carbon atom in methanol (CH OH)is ______.
Q2) What is the oxidation state of carbon in lactic acid (C H O )?
A) 0
B) -2
C) -4
D) +2
E) +4
Q3) When considering biogeochemical cycles,the earth is divided into these three major reservoirs.
A) Ocean, terrestrial, and earth's crust.
B) Atmosphere, earth's crust, and land.
C) Atmosphere, terrestrial, and aquatic.
D) Terrestrial, aquatic, and earth's crust.
E) Ocean, freshwater, and terrestrial.
Q4) Which of these is true regarding soil humus?
A) It is quickly broken down by microorganisms.
B) It is a minor component of organic carbon in the soil.
C) It is degraded very slowly over time.
D) It is primarily inorganic in composition.
E) It is a polymer of glucose.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) The specific function role of an organism in an ecosystem is called the ___________.
Q2) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
Q3) Microbes are able to generate energy through the:
A) oxidation of organic compounds only.
B) reduction of organic compounds only.
C) oxidation of inorganic and organic compounds.
D) reduction of inorganic and organic compounds.
E) synthesis of ATP.
Q4) In terrestrial environments,where is the greatest microbial diversity found?
A) lakes
B) rivers and streams
C) soil
D) rocks
E) springs
Q5) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the beneficial relationship that exists between plants and microorganisms.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) Chemical food preservatives like sodium benzoate,acetic acid,and propionate are all weak acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vacuum packaging inhibits the growth of microbes that
A) are obligate anaerobes.
B) rely on fermentation for energy metabolism.
C) are aerotolerant anaerobes.
D) rely on aerobic respiration for growth.
E) are chemolithotrophs.
Q3) What bacterium is used in the production of Swiss cheese to give it its characteristic flavor and also the holes from carbon dioxide production?
A) Pediococcus
B) Leuconostoc
C) Propionibacterium
D) Clostridium
E) Pseudomonas
Q4) Small proteins produced by some bacterial to inhibit the growth of closely related bacteria are called __________________.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Bradyrhizobium japonicum will form nodules on soybeans but not on peas,alfalfa,or beans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these is TRUE of a lichen?
A) It is classified as a plant.
B) It is comprised of a fungus and usually an green alga.
C) It is comprised of a fungus and an archaeal symbiont.
D) It is a type of slime mold.
E) It is comprised of a protozoan and anarchaeal symbiont.
Q3) All microorganisms that live on or within the human body are referred to collectively as the human ________________.
Q4) Describe the process of rhizobial recognition of its host legume for the initiation of nodule formation.
Q5) A group of microorganisms that are interdependent on one another for the stability of the community is called a/an__________________
Q6) Describe the characteristics of a primary endosymbiont.
Q7) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
Q8) Endophytes are microorganisms that live within the tissue of ___________.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of these would need to occur for a disease to be considered infectious?
A) A susceptible host encounters an infectious agent.
B) An infectious agent colonizes a host.
C) An infectious agent colonizes a host and can be transmitted to another host.
D) An infectious agent causes damage to the host.
E) An infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host.
Q2) The Herpes simplex I virus is able to avoid detection by the host immune system through this mechanism.
A) Antigenic variation.
B) The production of proteases that destroy antibodies.
C) The establishment of latency in sensory neurons.
D) The production of cytotoxins that kill macrophages.
E) The inhibition of B-cells.
Q3) Borrelia burgdorferi,the agent of Lyme disease,is found in nature in the white-footed mice and deer.Mice and deer are said to be _______________ for this pathogen.
Q4) The number of deaths due to a specific disease over a specified number in the population is referred to as the ______________ rate.
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial
Invasion
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Q1) The invertebrate immune response involves ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A) phagocytic amoebocytes.
B) antimicrobial peptides.
C) antibody producing B-cells.
D) opsonization of microbes by lectins.
E) melanin encapsulation of microbes.
Q2) If an individual is resistant to infection and disease development by a specific pathogen,the person is said to be _______________ to the infectious agent.
Q3) A component often added to vaccines to enhance the immune response to microbial components in the vaccine.
A) stimulant
B) complement
C) adjuvant
D) pyrogen
E) antagonist
Q4) ________ ________ receptors are an important group of PRRs that recognize specific PAMPs.
Q5) What are the visible signs of inflammation and what causes these symptoms?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of these is the major antibody present in serum?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q2) TH2 cells function by releasing cytokines that:
A) cause proliferation of antigen activated CD8 T cells.
B) enhance phagocytosis by macrophages.
C) enhance phagocytic killing by macrophages.
D) enhance phagocytosis by neutrophils.
E) cause proliferation of antigen activated B cells.
Q3) CD4 T cells are activated through binding to specific antigen presented by the MHC II molecules on the surface of a dendritic cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) CD8 T cells are activated by specifically binding to an antigen displayed on the surface of an antigen presenting cell in the major histocompatibility (MHC)marker type
Q5) Describe how a CD8 cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) By what mechanism does the enzyme streptokinase allow Streptococcus pyogenes to spread through tissue?
A) By lysing smooth muscle cells.
B) By lysing skin epithelial cells.
C) By breaking down fibrin clots.
D) By lysing red blood cells.
E) By lysing white blood cells.
Q2) Explain how superantigens are able to cause toxic shock syndrome.
Q3) What is the genus of the organism that causes pertussis?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Mycoplasma
C) Streptococcus
D) Mycobacterium
E) Bordetella
Q4) Horizontal gene transfer by bacteriophage is thought to be a very rare mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A primary pathological feature of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the appearance of ___________ in the lungs.
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) The process of mutational change in the surface proteins of viruses.
A) antibody drift
B) antigenic drift
C) receptor modification
D) antigen destabilization
E) antibody destabilization
Q2) The transmission of a virus from mother to fetus is referred to as ___________ transmission.
Q3) Multinucleated giant cells that are formed as a result of a viral infection are called _______.
Q4) Which of the following processes does NOT contribute to virus evolution?
A) point mutations
B) recombination
C) transformation
D) reassortment
E) spontaneous mutations
Q5) Warts are caused by the _______________.
Q6) Most cancer causing viruses are RNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) Why are trypanosomes not endemic to the United States?
A) Because of an active vaccination program.
B) Because the insect vector is absent.
C) Because the weather is too cold.
D) Because antibiotics keep the disease in check.
E) Because of rigorous water treatment standards.
Q2) Malaria has influenced human evolution because it has contributed to the development of ______________ in humans.
A) asthma
B) hemochromatosis
C) sickle cell disease
D) diabetes mellitus
E) myasthenia gravis
Q3) Describe the life cycle of the parasite Giardia lamblia.
Q4) Name for the infective stage of the malarial parasite in the mosquito.
A) gametocyte
B) sporozoite
C) merozoite
D) oocyst
E) zygote
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Describe two unique targets for antimicrobial drugs in bacteria.
Q2) The World Health Organization has targeted this disease for eradication through vaccination programs in small pockets of the world where the disease is still present.
A) AIDS
B) malaria
C) tuberculosis
D) yellow fever
E) polio
Q3) All of the following are approaches used to help reduce the incidence of antimicrobial drug resistance except _____.
A) the use of very high concentrations of the drug.
B) use of a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat a specific infection.
C) use of a combination of antibiotics.
D) good hygiene, such as frequent hand washing to prevent the spread of drug resistant microbes.
E) the use of antibiotics only when absolutely necessary.
Q4) Unlike bacteria,viruses do not develop resistance to antiviral drugs.
A)True
B)False
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