General Microbiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
General Microbiology provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles and applications of microbiology. The course covers the structure, function, metabolism, growth, and genetics of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students will learn about microbial diversity, the roles of microbes in ecosystems, disease processes and host interactions, as well as methods for culturing, identifying, and controlling microorganisms. Emphasis is also placed on the significance of microbes in health, industry, biotechnology, and the environment, enabling students to understand both the beneficial and harmful impacts of microorganisms in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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1432 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about microbes is true?
A) prions are proteins without any nucleic acid
B) viroids are single-celled microscopic organisms
C) protozoa are nucleic acid without a protein coat
D) algae depend on the metabolic processes of host cells
Answer: A
Q2) Pasteur worked on rabies and cholera vaccine during the emergence of immunology. While culturing a chicken cholera he noted that an old culture was weakened and useful as a vaccine as it
A) caused disease
B) caused severe cholera symptoms and prevented further infection
C) allowed for the cholera to spread from person to person
D) did not cause disease symptoms and immunized against chicken cholera.
Answer: D
Q3) A parasitologist studies parasites. What does a mycologist study?
A) protozoa
B) how viruses cause disease and are involved in cancer
C) the development of chemical substances to treat diseases
D) fungi
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical reactions that require energy are best termed
A) catabolic
B) anabolic
C) exergonic
D) endergonic
Answer: D
Q2) Atoms are most likely to form ions when they
A) have an even number of electrons in their outer shells
B) have a nearly empty outer shell
C) have an odd number of electrons in their outer shells
D) have four electrons in their outer shells
Answer: B
Q3) Proteins are chains of ______ that sometimes function as________
A) disaccharides; cell wall
B) amino acids; enzymes
C) lipids; energy compounds
D) glycogen; enzymes
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) The counterstain in a spore stain is
A) malachite green
B) crystal violet
C) safranin
D) methylene blue
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements about Leeuwenhoek's microscopes is false?
A) Leeuwenhoek kept his technique secret
B) they magnified objects 100 to 300 times
C) for each specimen a new microscope had to be made
D) they were able to reveal very fine details of bacteria
Answer: D
Q3) When light passes through an object,________ of the light has occurred.
A) reflection
B) absorption
C) transmission
D) fluorescence
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rough endoplasmic reticulum appears rough because of A) sterols in its membrane
B) fats and sugars on its surface
C) multiple ribosomes on its surface
D) proteins in the lumen of the ER
Q2) Which of the following cellular structures are found only in prokaryotic cells?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) pili
C) nucleolus
D) lysosomes
Q3) The shape of a bacterial cell is determined (and maintained)by the A) cell membrane
B) cell wall
C) capsule
D) slime layer
Q4) Lysozyme,found in human tears,controls the growth of bacteria by A) fusing with vacuoles
B) containing multiple kinds of digestive enzymes
C) digesting peptidoglycan
D) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about fermentation is true?
A) all fermentation of pyruvic acid always results in the same end product
B) all fermentation of glucose begins with pyruvic acid as a substrate
C) the same fermentation reaction produces both wine and cheese
D) none of the above
Q2) In photosynthesis,chemical energy is used to make organic molecules in the
A) light reaction
B) dark reaction
C) hydrolytic reaction
D) photophosphorylation reaction
Q3) Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts PABA to folic acid,preventing the production of folic acid and,eventually,purine synthesis. In this case,the sulfa drug is acting as a/n
A) allosteric inhibitor
B) competitive inhibitor
C) noncompetitive inhibitor
D) uncompetitive inhibitor
Q4) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial growth
A) refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell
B) refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division
C) in a single generation's time leads to double the cell size
D) in a single generation's time leads to double the number of microbes.
Q2) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria don't continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
Q3) A candle jar would be used for growing
A) Gram negative organisms
B) fastidious organisms
C) thermophiles
D) anaerobes
Q4) A culture that contains only a single species of organism is known as a
A) pure culture
B) Koch culture
C) mixed culture
D) contaminated culture
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frameshift mutation occurs when
A) an adenine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism
B) a thymine replaces a guanine in the DNA sequence of an organism
C) three new bases are inserted into the DNA strand
D) three bases are deleted from the DNA strand
Q2) Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNA?
A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C) molecules contain an anticodon
D) contains the nucleotide thymine
Q3) Segments of DNA that do not code for proteins
A) are called introns
B) are found in all bacterial genes
C) can be considered by your immune system as enemy DNA
D) bind to proteins to form ribosomes
Q4) In the lac operon,RNA polymerase first binds to the A) promoter
B) operator
C) repressor
D) regulator
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relative is upset about genetically modified organisms being in food that she might eat. How are transgenic organisms different from organisms that undergo recombination events in nature? How do you feel about transgenic organisms? Do you feel the same about organisms used for laboratory research as those that are crops? How about transgenic organisms used to manufacture medical treatments or pets? Explain all of your opinions with scientific arguments or evidence.
Q2) Restriction enzymes come from
A) fungal cells
B) viruses
C) bacteria cells
D) animal cells
Q3) A transgenic organism
A) contains DNA from two different species of organism
B) contains a plasmid
C) is resistant to viral infection
D) contains DNA which allows it to transfer plasmids from its cells to other cells
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binomial name of a microbe is composed of its
A) kingdom and genus names
B) genus name and a species modifier
C) family and class names
D) genus and species names
Q2) Which of the following questions would not be a good choice for a dichotomous key?
A) Are the cells rod shaped?
B) Are the cells Gram negative?
C) Do the cells ferment glucose?
D) Where is the cell usually found?
Q3) All of the following are considered eukaryotes except A) Archea
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Humans
Q4) How do lateral gene transfer and symbiosis complicate both the three domain and five kingdom treelike structure? Where do viruses,viroids and prions fit in today's taxonomy? Are they classified based on phylogeny or morphology?
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11
Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses that have a single strand of RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as
A) retroviruses.
B) proviruses.
C) viroids.
D) bacteriophages.
E) lytic phages.
Q2) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________.
A) prophage, lysogen
B) plaque, lysogen
C) lysogen, prophage
D) prophage, retrovirus
Q3) Reactivation of chickenpox long after the initial infection leads to the disease
A) cancer
B) influenza
C) shingles
D) varicella
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12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mushrooms,as well as the human pathogen Cryptococcus are classified in the phylum
A) Zygomycota
B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) Deuteromycota
Q2) Parasites are dependent on their hosts for survival. Which organism do you think is better adapted to a parasitic lifestyle,one that is virulent and often kills its host,or one that only causes mild chronic illness in its host? For vector-transmitted parasites there are two hosts involved in the lifecycle,how does that complicate adaptation to the human host?
Q3) Members of the phylum Ascomycota produce asexual spores called ________ .
A) antheridia
B) archegonia
C) ascogonia
D) conidia
Q4) What are the four groups of parasitic helminthes? Name one parasitic helminth in each group that causes human disease and describe its hosts and transmission.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are examples of heavy metals used as antimicrobial agents except
A) iodine
B) merthiolate
C) selenium sulfate
D) copper sulfate
Q2) What sterilization technique should be used for sterilizing instruments
A) filtration
B) direct flame
C) pasteurization
D) autoclaving
Q3) When an antimicrobial agent permanently denatures proteins thus preventing renaturation to their native states it is considered:
A) bacteriostatic
B) bactericidal
C) bacterial lysis
D) an inhibitor of growth
Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of second-line and third-line antimicrobial agents demonstrates A) cross-resistance
B) the effectiveness of first-line drugs
C) an effective method to limit drug resistance
D) the increasing difficulty of treating drug resistant bacteria
Q2) Antimetabolites include all of the following except
A) trimethoprin
B) isoniazid
C) nitrofurantoin
D) sulfanilamide
Q3) Rimantadine is an effective antimicrobial agent against: A) viruses
B) protozoa
C) bacteria
D) fungi
Q4) Side effects due to antimicrobial agents may involve all of the following except A) allergic reactions
B) anaphylactic shock
C) disruption of microbial flora
D) increased antibiotic susceptibility of replacement microflora
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about host-microbes is true?
A) a host is any organism that harbors no other organism
B) infestation refers to the presence of larger parasites
C) in mutualism neither of the two species benefits from the relationship
D) virulence is defined as the capacity to produce disease
Q2) A viral infection that involves continued and prolonged production of viruses in a host is referred to as a/an
A) abortive infection
B) productive infection
C) latent infection
D) persistent infection
Q3) A secondary infection that occurs after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and the subsequent destruction of the normal microbiota would be considered a
A) sapremia
B) prodrome
C) superinfection
D) mixed infection
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A site where microorganisms can persist and thus maintain the ability to cause infection:
A) control group
B) portal of exit
C) reservoir
D) prospective
Q2) Waterborne transmission of pathogens involving water contaminated by raw sewage is an example of what mode of transmission?
A) indirect fecal-oral
B) direct fecal-oral
C) vertical
D) droplet nuclei
Q3) Reservoirs of infections include
A) humans
B) non-human vertebrate animals
C) water and soil
D) all of the above
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterroism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) The binding and coating of the surfaces of invading microbes by either antibodies or C3b is
A) aided by the release of cytokines by phagocytes
B) necessary for phagocytosis of all microbes
C) called oposonization
D) responsible for the direct lysis of invading microrganisms
Q2) Which of the following proteins activate complement,enhance inflammation and stimulate macrophages to undergo chemotaxis?
A) antiviral proteins
B) exogenous pyrogens
C) leukocidins
D) acute phase proteins
Q3) What area of the body is drained by the right lymphatic duct?
A) upper right torso
B) right leg
C) left leg
D) upper left torso
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18
Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except A) antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body
B) made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody
C) produced by a clone of cultured cells
D) used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) All of the following pertain to the structure of an antibody molecule except
A) two identical light chains
B) heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds
C) binds 2 antigens per molecule
D) two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment
Q3) All of the following are types of vaccines except
A) killed whole bacteria
B) purified active toxin
C) toxoid
D) live virus
Q4) Hybridomas are used to produce
A) opsonization
B) membrane attack complex
C) monoclonal antibodies
D) polyclonal antibodies
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Steroids can be useful drugs to lessen the effects of
A) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B) Immune complex hypersensitivity
C) Immediate hypersensitivity
D) all of the above
Q2) Local wheal and flare,airway restriction,and anaphylactic shock are all associated with
A) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B) Immune complex hypersensitivity
C) Immediate hypersensitivity
D) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
Q3) Hypersensitivity or allergy refers to the immune system responding A) in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance
B) too little too late
C) inadequately to an antigen
D) to its own tissues as if they were foreign
Q4) Imagine you have a sibling that needs a kidney transplant. You offer to give your kidney. What reaction against the red blood cells in the donor kidney would occur if you had different blood groups? Even if you had the same blood groups why might you not be able to give her one of your kidneys?
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Human bites can cause an opportunistic infection with A) Pasteurella multocida
B) Eikenella corrodens
C) Eubacterium yurii
D) Streptobacillus moniliformis
Q2) Which of the following is not considered resident microflora of the skin?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Corynebacterium
C) E.coli
D) Demodex
Q3) Gas gangrene,with gas production leading to tissue necrosis,is due to A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Spirillum minor
Q4) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is implicated in eye infections such as A) trachoma
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) conjunctivitis
D) two of the above
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) In the Tuskegee Syphilis Study (1932-1972),399 poor and mostly illiterate African-American sharecroppers were denied treatment for Syphilis and not even told they had syphilis. What is the treatment for syphilis? Why was it unethical for the Tuskegee scientists to withhold treatment? Do you think researchers of HIV in developing countries should be required to give anti-retroviral treatment to their test subjects? Do you think HIV studies in developing countries that don't provide antiretroviral treatment to all their test subjects is comparable to the Tuskegee Syphilis study?
Q2) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease is a complication in 50% of the cases of
A) syphilis
B) gonorrhea
C) chancroid
D) vaginitis
Q3) Which is the causative agent in 80% of UTIs?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Staphylococcus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Sinusitis can be caused by
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) all of the above
Q2) Tubercules
A) are white patches seen on chest x-rays of TB patients
B) undergo destruction giving a cheesy, caseous appearance
C) contain live Mycobacterium
D) all of the above
Q3) Hantavirus
A) is transmitted in urine of infected mice
B) causes foamy sputum and rupture of alveolar septa
C) causes granulomatous lesions in lungs and spleen
D) two of the above
Q4) The mucociliary escalator
A) leads to aspirations of secretions that can cause pneumonia
B) allows materials in the bronchi to be lifted to the pharynx
C) is a ring of lymphoid tissue that surrounds the pharynx
D) two of the above
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following microbes causes an enteritis that is sometimes misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar?
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Salmonella enteritidis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Campylobacter jejuni
Q2) Echinococcus granulosus is characterized by all of the following except A) it is a tapeworm
B) children are infected when their faces are licked by infected dogs
C) may form cysticercus in bladder
D) may form hydatid cysts in vital tissues, like the brain
Q3) Taxonomically,Salmonella has been broken down into 2000 different _______ ,depending on the antigens on their surface.
A) species
B) serovars
C) subspecies
D) genera
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) ______ disease is actually the re-occurrence of a rickettsial infection.
A) Zoster
B) Brill-Zinsser
C) Tsutsugamushi
D) Burkitt's lymphoma
Q2) The flea is the arthropod vector for
A) Epidemic typhus
B) Endemic typhus
C) Trench fever
D) Scrub typhus
Q3) Brucellosis can be controlled by all of the following except
A) protective clothing for workers with occupational exposure
B) human vaccine
C) pasteurization of dairy products
D) immunizing animal herds
Q4) All of the following occur in shistosomiasis except
A) allergic reactions to eggs and cirrhosis of liver from eggs
B) flukes lodge in heart and brain causing disease
C) cercariae penetrate skin when humans wade in snail-infested waters
D) dermatitis from cercarcia
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which term refers to aggregates of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system?
A) ganglia
B) microglial cells
C) blood-brain barrier
D) meninges
Q2) ________ can be especially dangerous to pregnant women causing abortion,stillbirth,or neonatal death.
A) Meningococcal meningitis
B) Listeriosis
C) Streptococcal meningitis
D) Haemophilus meningitis
Q3) Humans are naturally protected against nagana,a tsetse-fly-bourne cattle disease . What has been found to serve the protective role?
A) serum
B) high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
C) low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
D) iron
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Cytophaga,found in soil,is characterized by
A) being a fungus
B) cellulose degradation
C) being strictly aerobic
D) being a protozoan decomposer
Q2) The trickling filter system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with A) Sphaerotilus
B) Pseudomonas
C) Beggiatoa
D) two of the above
Q3) Denitrification is
A) a process by which nitrates are reduced to nitrous oxide or N
B) a process by which nitrites are reduced to ammonia
C) a process by which amino acids are converted to pyruvate
D) largely due to aerobic environments
Q4) Most denitrification is due to A) Rhizobium
B) Azotobacter
C) Pseudomonas
D) Nitrosomonas
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) A bacterial strain used to remove the pectin in the outer layer of the coffee bean in preparation for processing is
A) Phytophthora infestans
B) Erwinia carotovora
C) Erwinia dissolvens
D) Hemileia vastatri
Q2) Antibiotics are not added to foods and milk in the United States because A) resistant strains of pathogens might arise from the process
B) humans might become allergic to antibiotics
C) antibiotics might interfere with the activities of microbes essential for fermenting milk and making cheese
D) all of the above
Q3) Which microbe lends Swiss cheese its flavor and characteristic holes?
A) Propionibacterium
B) Streptococcus lactis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Staphylococcus
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