General Microbiology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
General Microbiology provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure, function, diversity, and importance of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course covers microbial physiology, genetics, metabolism, ecology, and the roles microbes play in health, disease, industry, and the environment. Students will explore fundamental laboratory techniques, principles of microbial growth and control, and the application of microbiology in biotechnology and public health. Through integrated lectures and practical activities, the course aims to equip students with a foundational understanding of microbiological concepts and their relevance to everyday life and scientific research.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells. Answer: human
Q2) According to the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells,respiring bacteria similar to E.coli were engulfed by cells and evolved into the A) nucleotides.
B) protein-producing organelles.
C) energy-generating organelles.
D) waste-degrading organelles.
Answer: C
Q3) Consider the statement below.Evaluate whether you agree or disagree with this statement and provide evidence supporting your position. "Microorganisms are dangerous to human existence."
Answer: A variety of answers are acceptable so long as they mention the positive and negative effects of microorganisms and provide appropriate evidence to support their claim.
Q4) Florence Nightingale used a polar area chart to track the ________ of soldiers during the Crimean War.
Answer: cause of death mortality
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a urogenital route?
A) using fresh needles,that is,not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) wearing a mask that covers the nose and mouth
D) washing hands before eating
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following can weaken the host immune response?
A) too little sleep
B) moderate exercise
C) proper nutrition
D) avoiding alcohol and drugs
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a parenteral route?
A) not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) wearing a mask that covers the nose and mouth
D) cooking foods thoroughly
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A) In fluorescence microscopy,fluorescent-labeled cellular structures are identified.
B) In light microscopy,the object appears light against a dark background.
C) In phase-contrast microscopy,organelles appear as light/dark patterns by variation in refractive indexes.
D) Electron microscopy uses electrons to visualize the specimen.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the difference between a simple and a differential stain? Give one example of a simple stain and one example of a differential stain.
Answer: A simple stain uses one dye and does not impart color to other tissue or the background.A differential stain,on the other hand,differentiates between objects by staining only particular types of cells or specific subcellular structures and often stains two cells differently.
An example of a simple stain is methylene blue or crystal violet. An example of a differential stain is the Gram stain or acid-fast stain.
Q3) A ________ is the only way to observe live specimens.
Answer: wet mount
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) Describe the difference between ionic and hydrogen bonds.
Q2) What does amphipathic mean?
Q3) The molecular formula of the amino acid glycine is C H NO .What is the molecular formula of a glycine pentapeptide?
Q4) Regular,repeating patterns over short regions of a protein are known as the protein's ________ structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Q5) Which of the following is true of both lipids and sugars?
A) They both store energy.
B) They are both hydrophobic.
C) They are both hydrophilic.
D) They both contain nitrogen.
Q6) DNA is synthesized by enzymes that use which of the following as substrates?
A) NTPs
B) dNTPs
C) NDPs
D) dNDPs
6
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell's genome?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) contractile vacuole
C) ribosome
D) nucleus
Q2) In Gram-negative bacteria,peptidoglycan is found in the A) cytoplasm.
B) inner membrane.
C) outer membrane.
D) periplasm.
Q3) The cell wall is part of the A) cell membrane.
B) cytoplasm.
C) cell envelope.
D) proteome.
Q4) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________.
Q5) Describe the two types of energy cells used to move molecules across membranes against their concentration gradients.
Page 7
Q6) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Which of the following is needed as an important enzyme cofactor for microbial growth?
A) Na<sup>+</sup>
B) Mg²<sup>+</sup>
C) sulfur
D) oxygen
Q2) Explain why extremophiles are not a pathogenic threat to humans.
Q3) Which of the following occurs when a microorganism is found in an environment below its minimum growth temperature?
A) The cell dies.
B) Growth stops because the cell membrane melts.
C) Growth stops because enzymatic processes become sluggish.
D) Growth slows but does not stop.
Q4) The production of ________ mechanisms in a biofilm helps maintain the viability of a biofilm during an infection.
Q5) If you were trying to isolate a pure culture of Staphylococcus aureus from the skin lesion of an infected individual,you would use appropriate sampling techniques and would specifically have to culture the microorganism onto ________.
Q6) How is it possible for a strict anaerobic bacteria to cause a disease in humans?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the pathways below are in the correct order for the flow of electrons from glucose to oxygen in aerobic respiration?
A) glycolysis,ETS,TCA
B) glycolysis,fermentation,TCA
C) TCA,glycolysis,ETS
D) glycolysis,TCA,ETS
Q2) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
Q3) The enzyme Rubisco is involved in
A) ATP production.
B) carbon fixation.
C) fermentation.
D) nitrogen fixation.
Q4) During glycolysis glucose is ________ and NAD is ________.
A) oxidized;reduced
B) reduced;oxidized
C) oxidized;oxidized
D) reduced;reduced
Q5) The metabolic pathway used by cyanobacteria and plants to fix carbon dioxide into sugar is known as the ________ cycle.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) During transcription termination
A) sigma disengages from RNA polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase disengages from the DNA.
C) ribosomes disengage from the mRNA.
D) DNA replicates the termination sequence.
Q2) Which of the following RNAs gets translated into protein?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) sRNA
Q3) During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further down the gel toward the ________ pole.
A) larger;negative
B) larger;positive
C) smaller;negative
D) smaller;positive
Q4) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
Q5) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Why can antibiotics be used to treat the nematode cause of filarial disease?
A) Antibiotics kill off Wolbachia,which is important for the embryonic development of the worm.
B) Antibiotics always kill off nematodes.
C) Antibiotics stimulate the immune system to more effectively fight off the nematodes.
D) Antibiotics are not used to treat filarial disease.
Q2) Why might an organism transform DNA that is homologous to its own?
A) as a food source
B) to obtain new DNA
C) to repair its own damaged genome
D) Organisms are not capable of transforming homologous DNA.
Q3) If the mutation rate is not the same for all species being compared using a molecular clock,what does a phylogenetic tree demonstrate?
A) the time since two species diverged from a common ancestor
B) the amount of evolutionary distance between two species
C) the generation time for species
D) the induced mutation frequency between two species
Q4) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
Q5) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) A tissue sample from a woman's reproductive tract reveals human cells that contain growing and dividing reticulate bodies with netlike chromosomes.Which of the following bacterial species has most likely infected the human cells?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Coxiella burnetii
Q2) Which of the following pathogens would most likely thrive in a growth media with an extremely low pH?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q3) Trachoma,an ancient eye disease,is caused by
A) Borrelia burgdorferi.
B) Yersinia pestis.
C) Moraxella catarrhalis.
D) Chlamydia trachomatis.
Q4) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) A free-living soil ameba may contaminate contact lens solutions and cause amebic keratitis.What is the genus name of one common causative agent of amebic keratitis?
A) Acanthamoeba
B) Entamoeba
C) Babesia
D) Toxoplasma
Q2) The parasite that causes malaria has a complex life cycle involving both a definitive and an intermediate host.This parasitic protist also contains an elaborate cortex.This parasite is best categorized as a(n)
A) fungus.
B) trypanosome.
C) alveolate.
D) alga.
Q3) Aspergillus and histoplasmosis infections are both caused by A) opportunistic skin contact with fungi.
B) smoking tobacco contaminated with fungal spores.
C) swimming in contaminated water.
D) inhalation of fungal spores.
Q4) Giardias and trichomonads are both examples of ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
Q2) How is HPV able to keep its genome so small?
A) overlapping reading frames
B) oncogenic transformation
C) antigenic shift
D) HPV does not have a small genome.
Q3) Why must the genome of HPV enter the nucleus for replication?
A) HPV uses its own polymerase that cannot function in the cytoplasm.
B) The pH of the nucleus allows for replication of HPV RNA.
C) The DNA genome of HPV can only be replicated in the nucleus where host DNA polymerase is found.
D) The genome of HPV is not replicated in the nucleus.
Q4) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________.
Q5) What type of HPV causes cancer?
A) all types of HPV
B) no types of HPV
C) some types of latent HPV
D) all types of actively replicating HPV
Q6) Influenza contains a ________ genome.
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Q7) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Protease inhibitors are a common antiviral drug targeting
A) HPV.
B) HIV.
C) hepatitis C.
D) influenza.
Q2) Which antibiotic inhibits the formation of the peptide side chain of NAM?
A) vancomycin
B) cycloserine
C) bacitracin
D) cephalexin
Q3) Describe how avoiding the use of antibiotics for viral infections can prevent the spread of antibiotic resistance.
Q4) What would inhibition of viral envelope acidification do to an influenza infection?
A) It would inhibit it.
B) It would enhance it.
C) It would have no effect.
D) It would speed it up.
Q5) Penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis to inhibit ________.
Q6) ________ is a category of antifungal agents that inhibits DNA synthesis.
15
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Lipopolysaccharides,flagellin,and double-stranded DNA are microbe-associated molecular patterns recognized by
A) tight junctions.
B) ribosomes.
C) tumor necrosis factors.
D) pattern recognition receptors.
Q2) How has the development of clean water NEGATIVELY affected modern civilization?
A) reduced fecal transmission of bacteria resulting in missing microbiota
B) altered immunological environment
C) increased transmission of hormone-activating compounds
D) decreased amounts of important trace minerals
Q3) The presence of Eubacteria recale and Beta thetaiotamicron affect ________ of the host.
Q4) The presence of a core ________ is most important for a healthy microbiome.
Q5) Give three reasons for why the microbiome should be considered an independent organ system.
Q6) Colonization of the stomach requires the ability to withstand ________ conditions.
Q8) Describe the positive and negative side of enterotoxins. Page 16
Q7) Give an example of how our cells communicate with the microbiome.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg.The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding.Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A) skin normal flora
B) lysozyme
C) Langerhans cells
D) acidic skin secretions
Q2) Penicillin interferes with bacterial cell walls.Which of the following interferes with the bacterial cell wall inside the phagolysosome?
A) lactoferrin
B) defensins
C) lysozyme
D) oxygen radicals
Q3) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?
A) The C3 protein is not involved in the classical pathway.
B) C1 is the first protein activated in the pathway.
C) Cleavage of complement proteins increases inflammation.
D) The classical pathway is activated by antibodies binding to bacterial cells.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following scenarios is an example of an allotypic difference?
A) A single amino acid change gives rise to a new form of IgG antibody in humans.
B) Humans and dogs have slightly different immunoglobulins.
C) A human is able to generate antigen specificity by rearranging genes.
D) There are five major classes of immunoglobulins within an individual.
Q2) Cells that become activated when they bind to intracellular antigen bound to class I MHC on antigen-presenting cells are known as ________ cells.
Q3) T cells capable of killing virus-infected and cancer cells are known as ________ cells.
A) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{C}} \)
B) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 2 \)
C) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 17 \)
D) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 1 \)
Q4) One way a pathogen may attempt to evade an immune response is by downregulating the production of Class I MHC molecules on infected cells.What type of pathogen would benefit from this adaptation and how would the pathogen benefit?
Q5) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q6) Describe the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC).
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding T-cell deficiencies?
A) A mutation in the IL-2 receptor affects T-cell proliferation.
B) A deficiency in ATP causes apoptosis in T,B,or NK cells.
C) Immunoglobulin protection is permanent.
D) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)are characterized by a lack of B cells.
Q2) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
A) sensitized T cells.
B) IgE antibodies.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) IgM antibodies.
Q3) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(n)
A) B cell with a T cell.
B) B cell with a myeloma cell.
C) antigen with an antibody.
D) antigen with a B cell.
Q4) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
Q5) Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Damage from protozoan infections is due mainly to the A) toxins that are released.
B) ability of the organism to persist within host tissue.
C) ability of the organism to turn on the host immune system.
D) cell wall components of the pathogen.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the herpes virus?
A) It is the etiological agent of cervical warts.
B) The virus cannot enter into a latent state in neural ganglia.
C) Latent herpes virus DNA produces microRNAs that interfere with apoptosis.
D) Herpes viruses are double-stranded RNA viruses.
Q3) All of the following statements are true about HIV EXCEPT
A) HIV produces a Nef protein,which prevents T-cell apoptosis.
B) Tat increases MHC 1 synthesis on host cells.
C) Nef protein inhibits a regulatory cascade that leads to apoptosis.
D) Tat stimulates apoptosis in infected host cells.
Q4) Genomic islands have all of the following features EXCEPT
A) they are flanked by phage or plasmid genes.
B) the ratio of GC/AT nucleases.
C) they do not need toxins or secretion systems.
D) they encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) All of the following are virulence factors associated with S.pyogenes EXCEPT
A) lipopolysaccharide.
B) capsule.
C) M protein.
D) lipoteichoic acid.
Q2) Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed
A) keratitis.
B) trachoma.
C) conjunctivitis.
D) opthalmia neonatorum.
Q3) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat.Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother,who had shingles.What infection does the eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) rubella
D) fever blisters
Q4) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
Q5) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Which of the following structures is considered part of the upper respiratory tract?
A) trachea
B) primary bronchi
C) alveoli
D) larynx
Q2) Describe how a human infected simultaneously with an avian flu strain and a swine flu strain may cause an influenza pandemic.
Q3) Nicotine in cigarette smoke paralyzes the cilia found on epithelium within the respiratory tract.What is the normal function of these cilia?
A) They produce mucus that traps microorganisms.
B) They help to warm incoming air.
C) They aid in moving mucus to the nasal and oral cavities.
D) They contain macrophages that target microorganisms.
Q4) The eyes are connected to the upper respiratory tract by the A) pharynx.
B) Eustachian tube.
C) lacrimal ducts.
D) sinuses.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) The most common treatment for systemic viral diseases is
A) the treatment of symptoms.
B) antiviral medications.
C) immunotherapy.
D) antibiotics.
Q2) Subacute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by
A) Streptococcus mutans.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
Q3) Which periodontal pathogen has been found within atherosclerotic plaques?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
Q4) Drinking water contaminated with the free-living infectious form of a helminth may lead to complications such as dermatitis,cellulitis,or lymphangitis in the disease
Q5) The blood vessels returning oxygenated blood to the heart are the ________.
Q6) The asexual cycle of plasmodium within humans occurs within the ________ system.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) During digestion,bicarbonate is secreted by ________ cells.
A) parietal
B) chief
C) mucus neck
D) M
Q2) Cynthia travels to Honduras and eats raw oysters from a small restaurant out in the middle of nowhere.After feeling sick for a while,she goes to the clinic when jaundice appears.Cynthia is very concerned that she is going to die.What does the health care worker tell her?
A) She should be fine,as the virus causing her condition is self-limited and will be cleared by her immune system.
B) She should be fine since she came in quickly and will respond well to antiviral drugs.
C) She will need to be hospitalized,but with the right treatment,she will eventually be fine.
D) She has a fatal condition.
Q3) Explain how infections with Yersinia enterocolitica can cause symptoms outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
Q4) CPE is an enterotoxin produced by ________.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) All of the following are ways that an infection can be established in the urinary tract
EXCEPT an infection
A) acquired in the kidney.
B) in the vaginal canal.
C) from the urethra.
D) from the bladder.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a non-sexually transmitted infection?
A) syphilis
B) yeast infection
C) gonorrhea
D) pyelonephritis
Q3) What is the purpose of the fimbriae on the end of the fallopian tube?
A) to help the fallopian tube move into position
B) performs a sweeping motion to capture the ovum
C) to keep microbes out of the fallopian tube
D) helps to fertilize the ovum
Q4) The recombinant HPV vaccine Gardasil offers protection against various serotypes of HPV;it is also known as an anticancer vaccine.Speculate as to why it is referred to as an anticancer vaccine.
Page 26
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is
A) tetanus immune globulin.
B) tetanus toxoid.
C) penicillin.
D) debridement.
Q2) Which of the following is a fungus that causes CNS disease?
A) C.albicans
B) T.gondii
C) T.brucei
D) C.tetani
Q3) All of the following are true of Neisseria meningitides EXCEPT
A) the capsule protects the organism from host complement proteins.
B) it does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) the organism uses type IV pili to invade epithelial cells.
D) it produces a nonblanching rash due to endotoxin release.
Q4) Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A) botulism
B) tetanus
C) streptococcal pneumonia
D) polio
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Twenty-five individuals with shigellosis are reported within a community.Which of the following pieces of information would be most useful to public health officials who are trying to stop the spread of this infection?
A) whether all individuals are infected with the same strain of bacteria
B) the antibiotic sensitivity of the causative agents
C) the complete health history of infected individuals
D) the day care centers attended by any children of infected individuals
Q2) A swab from an infected lesion is streaked onto a blood agar plate,a plate with blood agar that also contains colistin and nalidixic acid (a CNA plate),and a MacConkey agar plate.Growth occurs on both the blood agar and CNA plates.The organism growing must be
A) Gram positive.
B) Gram negative,enteric.
C) Gram negative,nonenteric.
D) acid fast.
Q3) List two advantages of using real-time quantitative RT-PCR (qPCR)over tissue culture techniques when monitoring a patient with West Nile virus.
Q4) Growth of a bacterium in the presence of bile salts indicates the organism is ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) During the spring and summer of 2014 an online epidemiological search indicated an increase in U.S.searches for signs and symptoms associated with Ebola,a disease previously found in West Africa.What was the most likely cause of this trend?
A) Many individuals in the United States were infected with Ebola.
B) Media reports of Ebola in other countries led to online searches in the United States.
C) Individuals infected with Ebola fled to the United States.
D) An Ebola epidemic occurred within the United States.
Q2) One potential bioweapon is a virus that has been eradicated from natural populations;only two WHO-sanctioned laboratories still maintain vials of this virus.This virus is ____.
Q3) Explain the relationship between the terms endemic,epidemic,and pandemic.
Q4) An investigator is collecting data identifying the time of year and locations of measles outbreaks within the United States over a ten-year period from 2000 to 2010.This investigator is most likely involved in
A) descriptive epidemiology.
B) cohort studies.
C) analytical epidemiology.
D) experimental studies.
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Page 29
Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46385
Sample Questions
Q1) List two ways in which food fermentation benefits humans and provide one example for each.
Q2) Human sewage and industrial effluents are abundant in
A) short-chain fatty acids and urea.
B) monosaccharides and insoluble fiber.
C) amino acids and urea.
D) amino acids and insoluble fiber.
Q3) Bacteria,such as Listeria monocytogenes,that are able to grow at refrigeration temperatures are referred to as ________.
Q4) An end result of mixed-acid fermentation products being converted into a gas in cattle is production of the greenhouse gas ________.
Q5) Which of the following molecules is converted to ethanol in the production of beer? A) aldehydes
B) long-chain alcohols
C) maltose
D) fatty acids
Q6) During the production of beer,fermentation produces ethanol and the gas
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