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General Microbiology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of microbiology, focusing on the biology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers microbial structure, physiology, genetics, ecology, and the role of microbes in health, industry, and the environment. Students will explore the methods used to study microorganisms, microbial growth and metabolism, microbial diversity, and the mechanisms of pathogenicity and host defense. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of microbes to everyday life, biotechnology, disease prevention, and emerging public health issues.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Q1) Viruses are
A) infectious agents that infect exclusively multicellular organisms.
B) noncellular particles that take over the metabolism of a cell to generate more virus particles.
C) pathogens that replicate in complex growth media.
D) cellular particles that belong to the archaea domain.
E) microbes that consist of lipid membrane-enclosed genomes.
Answer: B
Q2) Define "attenuation" and describe some mechanisms used to attenuate pathogens.
Answer: Attenuation results in a weakened organism that will not produce full-blown disease but will generate immunity. Answers for mechanisms may vary, but heat treatment or aging for various periods or natural attenuation in the host are mentioned in the chapter.
Q3) The gene expression machinery of archaea is MOST similar to A) monera.
B) prokaryotes.
C) bacteria.
D) eukaryotes.
E) mitochondria.
Answer: D
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Q1) Most electron micrographs in microbiology textbooks are in color. Is this normal for an electron micrograph? Why or why not?
Answer: Electron micrographs are not naturally colored, as color is defined by visible light, not electrons. The original image is produced when the electrons bombard a fluorescent screen. The resultant image is processed by a computer to appear as black and white with intensities in the entire range of grays in between. These images are later colorized using computer software (like Photoshop) to improve the aesthetics and provide additional information.
Q2) Which of these arranges the steps of the Gram stain into the correct order?
A) iodine crystal violet decolorizer safranin
B) safranin decolorizer crystal violet iodine
C) crystal violet decolorizer iodine safranin
D) crystal violet decolorizer safranin iodine
E) crystal violet iodine decolorizer safranin
Answer: E
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Q1) The capsule polysaccharides form a slippery mucous layer that inhibits A) diffusion.
B) phagocytosis.
C) attachment.
D) lysis.
E) osmosis.
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are true about prokaryotic outer membranes EXCEPT that they A) are lipid bilayers composed of identical phospholipids.
B) are found only in Gram-negative bacteria.
C) contain endotoxin.
D) contain proteins involved in transport.
E) contain lipopolysaccharide.
Answer: A
Q3) Describe two mechanisms that archaea may use to enhance the heat stability of the membrane.
Answer: First of all, the archaea have ether linkages between the glycerol and fatty acids, rather than ester linkages. Secondly, terpenoid chains are found in many extreme thermophiles. These may cyclize and stiffen the membrane, making it more tolerant of heat.
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Q1) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and not a linear growth rate?
Q2) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Q3) All of Earth's life-forms are based on
A) hydrogen.
B) nitrogen.
C) oxygen.
D) carbon.
E) phosphorus.
Q4) The most widely used solidifying agent is ________, which is derived from seaweed.
A) agar
B) gelatin
C) starch
D) cellulose
E) glycogen
Q5) If you determined the number of cells in a sample using viable plate counts and optical density measurements, why would the results from the two methods be so different?
Q6) Why would an organism go through the process of sporulation? How might endospores cause problems in the food industry?
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Q1) The D-value of a bacterial culture heated to 100°C is the time it takes to kill ________% of the population.
A) 99
B) 90
C) 50
D) 10
E) 1
Q2) Why do some microorganisms produce antibiotics, and how do they avoid being harmed by the antibiotics they produce?
Q3) An organism that requires atmospheric oxygen levels for growth is
A) aerobic.
B) microaerophilic.
C) aerotolerant.
D) anaerobic.
E) facultative.
Q4) Why are thermophiles able to survive at temperatures that would quickly kill most mesophiles? Describe at least three adaptations.
Q5) What alkaliphile do pink flamingos eat, and how is it involved in making the flamingo pink?
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Q1) A key factor in the evolution of killer strains of influenza is that they A) only have eight genes.
B) have an RNA genome.
C) contain reverse transcriptase.
D) have a segmented genome.
E) have a circular chromosome.
Q2) Large asymmetrical viruses are distinguished in that they A) have no envelope.
B) are protein fragments.
C) have few enzymes.
D) have nucleic acids.
E) have many enzymes.
Q3) What type of diseases are unique in that they can be transmitted by an infective protein that propagates conformational change of existing molecules without synthesizing entirely new infective molecules?
A) viral
B) viroid
C) bacterial
D) virion
E) prion
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Q1) Hyperthermophilic archaea possess an unusual gyrase called ________, which introduces positive supercoils into the chromosome in order to protect the DNA from
A) reverse DNA gyrase; thermal denaturation
B) DNA helicase; thermal denaturation
C) topoisomerase I; gene overexpression
D) DNA ligase; thermal denaturation
E) reverse transcriptase; gene overexpression
Q2) How does a restriction-modification system avoid the destruction of a bacterium¢s own genome while breaking down foreign DNA?
Q3) Describe how the name of bacterial genes and their gene product are denoted.
Q4) Besides the nucleoid, two other kinds of DNA molecules that may be present in the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell are ________ and the genomes of ________.
A) bacteriophages; pseudogenes
B) introns; bacteriophages
C) plasmids; bacteriophages
D) plasmids; introns
E) introns; exons
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA?
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Q1) Explain the processes of Rho-dependent and Rho-independent termination of transcription.
Q2) Resistance to the protein synthesis antibiotics can be carried out by all of the following EXCEPT
A) the use of an acetyltransferase to destroy activity.
B) immediate metabolization to gain ATP.
C) efflux pumps to move it out of the cell.
D) the use of phosphotransferases to chemically modify the antibiotic.
E) mutations in genes for the bacterial target so antibiotics can no longer bind.
Q3) The unusual bases found in tRNA are poor substrates for A) proteases.
B) polymerases.
C) ribosomes.
D) ribozymes.
E) RNases.
Q4) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
Q5) How are folded and unfolded proteins moved from the cytoplasm to the periplasm?
Q6) Explain the process of transcription initiation.
Q7) Why is protein degradation necessary to maintain cellular health?
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Q1) Describe a frameshift mutation in terms of insertions and deletions. Does an insertion always result in a frameshift mutation? Will an insertion always render the gene product nonfunctional?
Q2) CRISPR is considered an example of adaptive immunity in bacteria and archaea because it
A) methylates host DNA and destroys invading DNA.
B) requires host "pac" sites in order to destroy invading DNA.
C) minimizes damage from foreign DNA by using guide RNA similar to the invader and cas proteins to cleave the foreign DNA.
D) prevents the production of cell surface receptors that allow phages to get into the cell.
E) prevents archaeal DNA from infecting bacteria.
Q3) After extensive DNA damage, special DNA polymerases are expressed that sacrifice replication ________ to rescue the damaged genome.
A) initiation
B) accuracy
C) termination
D) modification
E) restriction

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Q1) Finding an inverted repeated sequence within 100-200 bases of a promoter suggests the presence of a ________ binding site.
A) DNA
B) transcriptional regulator
C) RNA
D) ribosome
E) corepressor
Q2) Which of the following is a second messenger that helps to regulate biofilm production?
A) ppGpp
B) ATP
C) cAMP
D) cGMP
E) cdiGMP
Q3) Briefly explain two-dimensional gel electrophoresis. What is the procedure used to determine, and why are both dimensions necessary?
Q4) What happens when strand slippage occurs on the template or the newly synthesized DNA strand? How does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use slipped-strand mispairing to its advantage?
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Q1) Approximately 60%-80% of Americans acquire herpes simplex, usually HSV-1, in epithelial lesions commonly known as A) chancres.
B) pox.
C) cold sores.
D) shingles.
E) hives.
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A) herpes simplex virus 2-genital lesions
B) varicella-zoster virus-chickenpox, shingles
C) papillomavirus-genital warts
D) variola major virus-smallpox
E) None of the examples are mismatched.
Q3) Describe the replication process of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Q4) Viruses that specifically infect and lyse tumor cells are called
A) transfer vectors.
B) temperate.
C) lytic.
D) lysogenic.
E) oncolytic.
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Q1) Which probing technique detects DNA immobilized on a membrane using labeled DNA fragments?
A) northern blot
B) southern blot
C) western blot
D) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis in SDS
E) isoelectrofocusing
Q2) The type of genes that encode proteins whose activity is easily assayed are
A) deep sequencing genes.
B) transcriptional fusions.
C) operons.
D) reporter genes.
E) translational fusions.
Q3) Scientists have taken the genome of the bacterial species ________ and moved it to yeast.
A) Mycobacterium leprosae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Mycoplasma mycoides
D) Escherichia coli
E) Mycoplasma pneuomoniae
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Q1) When studying an enzymatic reaction, should one consider DG, DG , or DG ' when considering the thermodynamics of the reaction, and why?
A) DG0, because it considers standard conditions as well as biochemically relevant conditions such as the concentrations of substrates and products
B) DG0, because it considers standard conditions
C) DG, because it considers defined conditions such as pH
D) DG, because it considers concentrations of reactants as products.
E) DG0, because it considers entropy and enthalpy.
Q2) Clostridium acetobutylicum has been used to produce which solvents?
A) acetate and butyrate
B) acetone and butanol
C) methanol and ethanol
D) formate and ethanol
E) propanol and mixed acids
Q3) The flavor and other properties of cheeses derive from the type of fermenting microorganisms used. How do the "eyes" and the characteristic flavor of Swiss cheese originate?
Q4) How can a technique such as calorimetry be used to measure DG?
Q5) Why is magnesium an essential nutrient for all living cells?
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Q1) How does bacteriorhodopsin couple photoexcitation with proton pumping? How is ATP synthesized in bacteriorhodopsin-containing organisms?
Q2) The chemiosmotic theory states that the proton potential is composed of
A) [ATP] and [ADP]+[Pi].
B) a pH gradient and [Na+] gradient.
C) pH and pNa+.
D) DpH and DY
E) a pH gradient and a [Ca2+] wave.
Q3) Explain what kind of reaction bacteriorhodopsin performs and what it accomplishes for the cell. What is the name of the bacteriorhodopsin homologs, in what type of organisms were they identified, and what led to their discovery?
Q4) In anaerobic soils, some yeasts and filamentous fungi can reduce nitrate to nitrite and nitrite to
A) ammonia (NH3).
B) nitric oxide (NO).
C) urea.
D) nitrogen gas (N ).
E) ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH).
Q5) What factors may affect p in metabolically active bacterial cells?
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Q1) What is the most sensitive method to determine the presence of an isotope such as ¹ C in a sample?
A) nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
B) radioactive decay
C) mass spectroscopy
D) polymerase chain reaction
E) high-performance liquid chromatography
Q2) Which of the following are unique in that they fix CO as their sole carbon source?
A) organotrophs and iron oxidizers
B) photoheterotrophs and chemiolithotrophs
C) photoautotrophs and lithotrophs
D) heterotrophs and methanogens
E) methanogens and photoheterotrophs
Q3) What kind of reaction is the formation of oxaloacetate from phosphoenolpyruvate?
A) catabolic
B) anaplerotic
C) decarboxylation
D) dehydrogenation
E) co-factor induced
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Q1) Which of the following products of beer making and winemaking result in off-flavors?
A) esters
B) ethanol
C) acetaldehyde
D) long-chain alcohols
E) amino acids
Q2) Leavening of commercial bread dough is brought about by CO from ________ fermentation by ________.
A) mixed; Propionibacterium species
B) ethanolic; Oenococcus
C) alkaline; Bacillus species
D) ethanolic; Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E) acid; lactic acid bacteria
Q3) Which of the following is classified as a form of single-celled protein?
A) Porphyra
B) Lentinula
C) Spirulina
D) Rhizopus
E) Macrocystis
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Q1) The sum total of all life on Earth is called the A) lithosphere.
B) mantle.
C) core.
D) atmosphere.
E) biosphere.
Q2) Explain how banded iron formations could arise in the geologic record due to photoferrotrophy.
Q3) Evidence for microbial life on Earth dates back to ________ ago.
A) 14 gigayears
B) 5 gigayears
C) 3.48 gigayears
D) 1.5 gigayears
E) 500 megayears
Q4) Describe the intracellular endosymbiosis between algae of the genus Chlorella and Paramecium. Why is this symbiosis considered reversible?
Q5) Discuss what horizontal gene transfer is. How does it occur and how might it obscure phylogenetic relationships among taxa?
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Q1) Describe the cell wall of Verrucomicrobia. How could these organisms have acquired this trait?
Q2) Some Gram-negative bacteria branch more deeply from the proteobacteria than the five Greek-lettered classes do from each other. Which phyla listed below is deep-branching Gram-negative?
A) Thermotogo
B) Aquifex
C) Flavobacteria
D) Protobacteria
E) Chlorobi
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct about the sulfur lithotrophic genus Beggiatoa?
A) It is a Gram-negative gammaproteobacterial genus.
B) It oxidizes H S to S0.
C) It stores S0 in cytoplasmic granules.
D) It stores polyhydroxybutyrate.
E) It grows as extended filaments.
Q4) What distinguishes bacterial cell walls from those in archaea and eukarya?
Q5) Describe the metabolic characteristics of Chlorobium species.
Q6) What is unique about the genome of Borrelia species?
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Q1) Archaeoglobus fulgidus conserves energy by sulfate respiration, which drives a unique acetyl-CoA degradation pathway involving the reversal of A) methanogenesis.
B) glycolysis.
C) flagella rotation.
D) the TCA cycle.
E) electron transport.
Q2) Nitrosopumilus maritimus is able to oxidize A) nitrate.
B) ammonia.
C) sulfide.
D) sulfate.
E) methane.
Q3) Describe some of the unique metabolic pathways found in archaea but not bacteria or eukarya.
Q4) Elizabeth Hansen and colleagues suggested which two factors contribute to methanogen presence in human gut microbiomes? What evidence supports these claims?
Q5) Why are the archaea so difficult to classify?
Q6) What are some of the unique features of archaeal gene regulation?
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Q1) Plasmodium falciparum is a(n) ________ and is transmitted to the human host by the bite of a ________.
A) Apicomplexan; mosquito
B) type of Trypanosome; tsetse fly
C) Apicomplexan; reduviid bug
D) type of Trypanosome; mosquito
E) Apicomplexan; sand fly
Q2) Schizogony refers to the life-cycle stage of ________ in Plasmodium falciparum, which is found in the ________ stage.
A) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; mosquito
B) mitotic reproduction to achieve large population within the vertebrate host; liver
C) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; red-blood-cell
D) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; red-blood-cell
E) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; mosquito
Q3) Compare and contrast radiolarians and foraminiferans.
Q4) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
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Q1) One of the most important ecological roles of the Florida Everglades is that
A) it is home to beautiful birds.
B) it filters much of the water supply for Florida communities.
C) many bacteria reside in it.
D) nutrients can easily be leached to the lakes.
E) tourists come to see it in large numbers.
Q2) Metatranscriptomics is the study of ________ obtained from an environmental community.
A) lipids
B) proteins
C) organisms
D) DNA
E) RNA
Q3) Describe the interaction of Vibrio cholerae with copepods. How did sari cloth help decrease the incidence of cholera in Bangladesh?
Q4) Explain how metagenomics and metatranscriptomics have been used to assess ocean diversity.
Q5) What are the benefits and limitations of different environmental sequencing methods? Explain why ribosomal gene sequencing can be used as an initial screen.
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Q1) Discuss the concept of iron fertilization to remove excess CO from the atmosphere.
Q2) During wastewater treatment, the secondary treatment requires continual aeration to
A) suppress microbial growth.
B) select for anaerobic heterotrophs.
C) stimulate abiotic degradation.
D) increase microaerophilic filamentous bacteria.
E) maximize breakdown of molecules to CO and nitrates.
Q3) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
Q4) Acid mine drainage is caused primarily by the microbial genus
A) Thalassiosira.
B) Leptothrix.
C) Prochlorococcus.
D) Acidithiobacillus.
E) Desulfovibrio.
Q5) What would happen if household wastewater was emptied into local receiving rivers without prior treatment?
Q6) What evidence suggests that the biochemistry of life elsewhere would resemble that on Earth?
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is NOT a cause of chronic inflammation?
A) a splinter
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Mycobacterium marinum
D) Actinomyces bovis
E) biofilms on surgical implants
Q2) Interferons are
A) high molecular weight cytokines.
B) not species specific.
C) low molecular weight cytokines.
D) not effective against polio virus.
E) not effective against influenza virus.
Q3) Microbes in and on humans sharpen immunity and protect from infection. Explain why these benefits also come with considerable risk.
Q4) Describe antibody-induced opsonization, the process in which innate and adaptive immunity work together to engulf an invader.
Q5) Is it correct to state that bacteria introduced through a skin cut will most likely be engulfed by Langerhans cells?
Q6) Why can acne be treated with antibiotics?
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Q1) There are ________ polypeptide chains in the typical antibody.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
Q2) A typical antibody molecule has ________ antigen-binding sites.
A) one
B) four
C) five
D) two
E) three
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterial STD that lives intracellularly within human host cells. What immune response would most likely prevail in this infection?
A) more TH cells than TH1 cells
B) more TH1 cells than TH cells
C) equal ratio of TH1 cells to TH cells
D) more B cells than CD8 cells
E) mostly antibodies
Q4) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis but not for atopic asthma?
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT result from the release of endotoxin from Gram-negative bacteria?
A) fever
B) activation of the alternate complement pathway
C) vasodilation
D) hypertension
E) shock
Q2) Autophagy is used by a host cell to
A) activate G-proteins.
B) regulate phagocytosis.
C) scavenge nutrients from damaged organelles.
D) fight extracellular pathogens.
E) induce apoptosis.
Q3) Koch's molecular postulates were originally formulated by A) Robert Koch.
B) Louis Pasteur.
C) Thomas Rivers.
D) Matthew Lawrenz.
E) Stanley Falkow.
Q4) Define a fomite and give at least two specific examples.
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Q1) A nationwide recall of spinach in 2006 was due to contamination by cattle water containing
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) E. coli O157:H7.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Shigella species.
E) hepatitis A virus.
Q2) How does Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secrete its potent toxins in food?
Q3) Why is Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of bubonic plague, considered a potential biowarfare agent?
A) The bacteria is readily available in Europe.
B) There is no effective antibiotic against it.
C) It is readily introduced into the human population by mosquitoes.
D) Pneumonic plague is highly communicable with a high mortality rate.
E) The bacterium forms long-lasting endospores.
Q4) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
Q5) Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.
Q6) Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.
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Q1) An MIC test can determine all of the following EXCEPT
A) the lowest level of an antibiotic that kills a particular bacteria.
B) the highest level of an antibiotic that kills a particular bacteria.
C) levels of an antibiotic that do not kill a particular bacteria.
D) drug susceptibility and resistance.
E) whether the drug is bacteriostatic or bactericidal.
Q2) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
Q3) Why is it that the organism that produces penicillin, Penicillin notatum, is not affected by the production of this molecule, but Staphylococcus aureus is? Of what benefit is the antibiotic in the organism that created it?
Q4) One of the leading sources of human infection by antibiotic-resistant organisms is ________ infections.
A) farm animal
B) locker room
C) dental surgery
D) nosocomial
E) food recall
Q5) What is the definition of "antibiotic"? Where are antibiotics isolated from, and why are these compounds made in nature?
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Q1) A person who begins to exhibit symptoms of bronchitis and bacterial pneumonia after recovering from the flu would be exhibiting
A) drug resistance.
B) antiviral susceptibility.
C) underlying immunodeficiency.
D) biological meltdown.
E) disease sequelae.
Q2) PCR-based detection of a person thought to have HIV would require all of the following EXCEPT
A) primers specific for HIV genes.
B) a thermocycler.
C) HIV agar media.
D) gel electrophoresis.
E) HIV genome isolation/extraction.
Q3) Which of the following organisms falls within biosafety group category II?
A) Ebola virus
B) SARS
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Escherichia coli strain K-12
E) Campylobacter jejuni
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