General Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
General Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, classification, and diversity of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers microbial genetics, metabolism, and ecology, as well as the role of microorganisms in disease, industry, and the environment. Laboratory techniques and safety procedures for handling microbes are emphasized, enabling students to develop practical skills in culturing, observing, and identifying various microbial species. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory exercises, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the significance of microbes in natural and human-made systems.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did European invaders to North America kill much of the native population?
A) tuberculosis
B) leprosy
C) smallpox
D) HIV
E) bubonic plague
Answer: C
Q2) Is it true that only culturable bacteria contribute to ecology? Explain your answer.
Answer: No, this is not a True statement. It is estimated that barely 0.1% of microbial species can be cultured. The work of Winogradsky and later microbial ecologists showed that bacteria are necessary for geochemical cycling. Many of these organisms can't be grown in pure culture on laboratory media, but can be grown in enrichment culture such as a Winogradsky column.
Q3) Define attenuation and describe some mechanisms used to attenuate pathogens.
Answer: Attenuation results in a weakened organism that will not produce full-blown disease, but will generate immunity. Answers for mechanisms may vary. See discussion in textbook, Section 1.3, entitled "Immunization Prevents Disease."
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Resolution is the smallest distance by which two objects can be __________ and still be __________.
A) magnified; seen
B) separated; distinguished C) magnified; separated
D) distinguished; separated
E) magnified; distinguished
Answer: B
Q2) List and briefly describe four ways that light interacts with objects.
Answer: (1) Absorption: light energy is absorbed by an object. (2) Reflection: a wavefront bounces off of an object at an angle equal to its incident angle. (3) Refraction: bending of light when it enters a substance that slows its speed. (4) A scattering wavefront interacts with an object of smaller dimensions than the wavelength.
Q3) Describe three conditions that are necessary for electromagnetic radiation to resolve an object.
Answer: There must be contrast between the object and its surroundings. The wavelength of the radiation must be equal to or smaller than the size of the object. The detector must have sufficient resolution for the given wavelength.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The thin layer of peptidoglycan in Gram-negative cells is believed, based on calculations of __________, to be one or two sheets.
A) shape
B) genetic analysis
C) width
D) X-ray crystallography
E) molecular density
Answer: E
Q2) From your knowledge of Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell envelopes, why would penicillin be more effective in killing Gram-positive organisms than Gram-negative organisms?
Answer: Penicillin prevents cross-linking of peptidoglycan. Since Gram-positive organisms have many more layers of peptidoglycan than Gram-negative organisms, the penicillin can have a much larger effect. Also, Gram-negative organisms have an extra outer membrane that Gram-positive organisms don't have, and this membrane can prevent penicillin from entering the cell as easily.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Metabolism of a microbe is best examined by growing the organism in a:
A) defined medium
B) complex medium
C) spread plate
D) pour plate
E) cell culture
Q2) E. coli reprograms during the stationary phase. What are some of the things it does to protect itself?
Q3) Some bacteria form environmentally resistant forms called:
A) endospores
B) heterocysts
C) colonies
D) hyphae
E) actinomycetes
Q4) All of the following are true about the MacConkey medium EXCEPT:
A) It is selective.
B) It is differential.
C) It is both selective and differential.
D) It contains bile salts.
E) Lactose fermenters appear colorless.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) The use of oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor is called:
A) aerobic respiration
B) anaerobic respiration
C) fermentation
D) oxygenic photosynthesis
E) carbon dioxide fixation
Q2) Why are many barophiles also psychrophiles, and how are the adaptations for barophiles and psychrophiles similar?
Q3) How does pH affect proteins? Why do proteins have an optimum, minimum, and maximum pH at which they will function?
Q4) Psychrophiles favor the cold since their membranes are more fluid at low temperature as a result of the high proportion of __________ present.
A) saturated fatty acids
B) unsaturated fatty acids
C) lipopolysaccharides
D) transport proteins
E) water
Q5) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples.
Q6) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) The destruction of cells as a result of viral lysis can be observed as a:
A) tissue culture
B) lawn
C) soft agar
D) plaque
E) host
Q2) An open reading frame corresponds to a series of codons that are translated to amino acids, producing a(n):
A) RNA
B) protein
C) DNA
D) capsid
E) envelope
Q3) Define oncogenes and oncogenic viruses, and explain how they can be used in gene therapy.
Q4) What is necessary for bacteriophage and animal virus entry into a cell? How does that differ from plant viral entry?
Q5) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
Q6) What determines the host range and tropism of a virus?
Q7) What is the advantage of symmetry in viral particles?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates pieces of linear DNA based on:
A) size
B) charge
C) sequence
D) supercoiling
E) methylation
Q2) In a test tube at chromosome-packing density, DNA is almost a:
A) solid
B) gel
C) gas
D) liquid
E) plasma
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about the two strands of DNA in a double helix?
A) The base pairs of one strand interact with the base pairs of the other.
B) They are antiparallel.
C) They are complementary.
D) They have equal amounts of adenine and guanine.
E) They have base-stacking interactions.
Q4) How are archaeal genomes similar to both bacterial and eukaryotic genomes?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to a discipline involving comparison of genes of different species?
A) annotation
B) bioinformatics
C) open reading frames (ORFs)
D) sequence homology
E) computer analysis
Q2) Actinomycin D is produced by actinomycetes, and it:
A) prevents the mRNA from exiting RNA polymerase
B) prevents binding of RNA polymerase to DNA
C) inhibits transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
D) binds the beta subunit of RNA polymerase, blocking the exit channel
E) can inhibit translation and replication as well as transcription
Q3) Transcription occurs in the __________ and translation occurs in the __________ of a eukaryotic cell.
A) nucleoid; cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm; cytoplasm
C) nucleus; cytoplasm
D) nucleus; nucleus
E) nucleoid; nucleoid
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) F factor contains how many origins of replication?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) none
Q2) In order to transfer, an F factor must have which of the following?
A) oriV and its own DNA polymerase
B) oriV and tra genes
C) oriT and tra genes
D) oriT and its own DNA polymerase
E) oriT, tra genes, and its own DNA polymerase
Q3) During conjugation the DNA passes through the __________, NOT the
A) membranes; pilus
B) pilus; membranes
C) pilus; phage
D) phage; pilus
E) F factor; phage
Q5) Define a pseudogene and what it is thought to represent. Page 11
Q4) How is the Ames reversion test performed, and what is it used to determine?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Bacterial systems using an AraC/XylS type regulator include __________ as regulated by __________.
A) a type III secretion system in Pseudomonas; NitR
B) a type III secretion system in Pseudomonas; ExsA
C) a type III secretion system in Pseudomonas; YbtA
D) virulence genes and cholera toxin in Vibrio; TxtR
E) virulence genes and cholera toxin in Vibrio; ExsA
Q2) Which of the following can be used to study the bacterial proteome?
A) DNA microarrays
B) pyrosequencing
C) two-dimensional gels and mass spectrometry
D) green fluorescent protein
E) networking with nanotubes
Q3) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
Q4) The role of a leader sequence is to:
A) directly control transcription
B) determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon
C) determine whether RNA polymerase can bind
D) terminate transcription
E) direct the looping of the DNA that prevents transcription initiation
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) What is the function of the lysosome during replication cycle of heptatitis C virus (HCV)?
A) binding to host receptors
B) counteracting pathogenic microbes
C) triggering fusion between HCV viron and endoplasmic reticulum
D) cleaving to HCV polypeptide
E) triggering the virion envelope to fuse with the endosome membrane
Q2) Once T4 DNA has been injected into host cells, all of the following virus life cycle stages take place EXCEPT:
A) The early genes are transcribed and translated to proteins, including DNase to cleave host DNA.
B) T4 undergo lytic or lysogenic cycles depending on environmental factors.
C) Late in the T4 life cycle, phage-encoded lysozymes lyse the host cell, releasing about 200 phage particles.
D) T4 DNA undergoes rolling-circle replication generating a multigenome concatemer for packaging into viral heads.
E) T4 capsid assembles automatically in a predetermined order from part encoded by phage genes.
Q3) Why are capsids of icosahedral symmetry so common among viruses?
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) In isolating acid-sensitive Escherichia coli using tetracycline-resistant transposons, why is it necessary to screen first for tetracycline resistance and then for acid-sensitivity?
Q2) Microbes that grow at neutral pH but can survive at pH 2 for short periods are called:
A) acid-fast
B) neutralophiles
C) acid-resistant
D) extremophiles
E) none of the above
Q3) Genes coding for insecticidal peptides have been engineered into the genomes of some crops. These peptides are naturally produced by the bacterium:
A) Bacillus thuringiensis
B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
C) Anabaena variabilis
D) Erwinia carotovora
E) Escherichia coli
Q4) How were GadE and GadX demonstrated to be transcription factors for the gadA gene?
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) Oxidative catabolism of benzoate and other aromatic compounds is catalyzed by:
A) 2-oxoglutarate:NADPH oxidoreductase
B) benzoyl-S-CoA reductase
C) specific dioxygenases
D) NADPH:ferredoxin oxidoreductase
E) none of the above
Q2) Catabolism of nicotine by Pseudomonas putida is accomplished by enzymes encoded by a genomic island, which has a sequence homologous to genes in other species, indicating horizontal transfer. How can this discovery be applied in bioremediation?
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding fermentation?
A) It consists of partial breakdown of organic molecules without an electron transport system.
B) In fermentative reactions, electrons from organic substrates are put back onto organic products.
C) It occurs in the absence of oxygen.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q4) What is the phosphotransferase system (PTS) and why is the advantage for a microbial cell to have a PTS?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Which of the following is correct with respect to anaerobic photosystem I?
A) It can be found in chlorobia (the green sulfur bacteria) and chloroflexi (filamentous green bacteria).
B) It separates electrons associated with hydrogens from H<sub>2</sub>S, HS<sup>-</sup>, or H<sub>2</sub>.
C) It separates electrons from Fe<sup>2+</sup>.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) What could be the advantages of having a Na<sup>+</sup>-pumping oxidoreductase in pathogens such as Vibrio cholerae and Yersinia pestis?
Q3) How does photosystem I allow Chlorobium and other green sulfur bacteria to live near deep-sea vents?
Q4) Sulfolobus species produce __________; as a result, their immediate environment has a pH as low as __________.
A) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>; 2
B) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>; 0
C) HCl; 1
D) CH<sub>3</sub>COO<sup>-</sup>; 4
E) none of the above
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) This molecule CANNOT freely cross biological membranes:
A) O<sub>2</sub>
B) CO<sub>2</sub>
C) NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The most ancient CO<sub>2</sub> fixation pathway in methanogens is:
A) the reverse TCA cycle
B) the 3-hydroxypropionate cycle
C) the Calvin cycle
D) the reductive acetyl-CoA pathway
E) none of the above
Q3) Discuss nutritional and environmental influences on the synthesis of tetrapyrroles in bacteria.
Q4) Which pair is NOT matched correctly?
A) coenzyme B<sub>12</sub>-cobalt
B) chlorophyll a-magnesium
C) bacteriochlorophyll-magnesium
D) heme-iron
E) none of the above
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Why aren't bacteria usually edible as isolated organisms? What problems could occur if a person ate large quantities of bacteria?
Q2) List four different types of fermentation, their end products, and an example of a product that is made from each type.
Q3) A modest level of ethanol enters the human circulation naturally from __________, equivalent to a fraction of a drink per day.
A) intestinal flora
B) food
C) drink
D) human metabolism
E) aerobic respiration
Q4) Which of the following is classified as a form of single-celled protein?
A) Porphyra
B) Injera
C) Spirulina
D) Rhizopus
E) Macrocystis
Q5) How is injera produced and why is it nutritionally better than quick-rising wheat breads?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The term __________ indicates that the members of a clade share a common ancestor, one not shared by any group outside the clade.
A) monogamy
B) monophyletic group
C) polyphyletic group
D) monoploid
E) polyploid
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an endosymbiotic relationship?
A) parasitic fungus on leaf cutter ants
B) Staphylococcus sp. on the skin
C) Enterobacter sp. in intestinal microbiota
D) human ringworm infection
E) lichen formations
Q3) The sum of all of Earth's life is called:
A) lithosphere
B) mantle
C) core
D) atmosphere
E) biosphere
Q4) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Bacteria in the genera __________ produce durable endospores that remain viable for millennia.
A) Carboxydothermus and Listeri
B) Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
C) Bacillus and Clostridium
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following factors is NOT involved in initiation of spore formation in Firmicutes?
A) carbon starvation
B) light limitation
C) phosphate starvation
D) nitrogen starvation
E) low pH
Q3) Describe the unique way in which spirochetes can be isolated from other environmental species. What makes this possible?
Q4) What is unique about the genome of Borrelia species?
Q5) Why is it that the deep-branching thermophiles may appear to have diverged from other bacteria earlier than they actually did?
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Crenarchaeol is a biosignature for Thaumarchaeota. Describe its structure.
Q2) Archaeoglobus fulgidus conserves energy by sulfate respiration, which drives a unique acetyl-CoA degradation pathway involving the reversal of:
A) methanogenesis
B) glycolysis
C) flagella rotation
D) TCA cycle
E) electron transport
Q3) If archaea are distinct from bacteria, why is the major haloarchaeal order called Halobacteriales, and why do most contain bacteriorhodopsin?
Q4) Bacteriorhodopsin absorbs light and pumps H<sup>+</sup> __________ the cell, whereas light-activated halorhodopsin pumps chloride __________ the cell. A) into; out of B) out of; into C) into; into D) out of; out of E) through; across
Q5) Why are hot springs and geysers important habitats for many crenarchaeotes?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Phytoplankton refers to:
A) heterotrophic algae and bacteria present in aquatic and marine environments
B) mixotrophic algae and amebas present in aquatic environments
C) photosynthetic algae and bacteria present in aquatic and marine environments
D) heterotrophic algae, bacteria, and protists present in aquatic, marine, and terrestrial environments
E) photosynthetic algae and plants present in aquatic, marine, and terrestrial environments
Q2) Rhodophyta, or red algae, appear red due to:
A) chlorophyll a
B) chlorophyll b
C) phycocyanin
D) phycoerythrin
E) Rubisco
Q3) What is the life cycle of Plasmodium and how does that life cycle cause Plasmodium to be categorized as an apicomplexan?
Q4) Why is the phylogeny data in the Eukarya domain overall harder to obtain than phylogeny evidence in either the Bacteria or Archaea domains? How has this affected Eukarya classification?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Explain how the benthic interface between the ocean floor and water can act as a charged battery to generate electricity.
Q2) Which region of marine habitat refers to the microscopic interface between water and air?
A) pelagic zone
B) neuston
C) euphotic zone
D) aphotic zone
E) benthic zone
Q3) Which of the following is true about lichens in the boreal forests?
A) They cover the majority of the ground.
B) They are a major food source for caribou in the winter.
C) They contain fungi and a photoautotrophic partner.
D) They form part of crytobiotic soil.
E) All of the above.
Q4) In any environment, pathogens are always outnumbered by a vast community of neutral or helpful microbes. Describe some beneficial as well as devastating incidences of plant pathogens.
Q5) What two factors most differentiate aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems? Why?
Q6) Describe haustorial parasitism.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) What are two mechanisms used by marine organisms to adapt to the paucity of phosphorous supply?
Q2) What types of bacteria will carry out nitrification (conversion of ammonia to nitrite or nitrate)?
A) lithotrophs
B) heterotrophs
C) chemoorganotrophy
D) phototrophs
E) fastidious heterotrophs
Q3) Which reservoir of carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur has the highest rate of cycling? Why is this so?
Q4) Compare and contrast the burning of fossil fuels in modern times with the rise of ancient cyanobacteria on atmospheric and planetary conditions.
Q5) The largest reservoir for carbon is:
A) the atmosphere
B) ocean biomass
C) carbonate rocks and subsurface carbon
D) wetlands
E) fossil fuels
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis layer?
A) hair follicle
B) sebaceous gland
C) blood vessels
D) sweat glands
E) all of the above
Q2) Interferons:
A) are antibacterial agents produced by skin, GI-tract, and lung cells
B) are secreted by eukaryotic cells in response to intracellular infection
C) are only produced by activated phagocytes
D) are host-specific and virus-specific
E) can block bacterial replication
Q3) Microbial colonization of the eye is inhibited by the presence of antimicrobial factors, such as:
A) interferons
B) complement
C) mucous
D) defensins
E) lysozyme
Q4) Why is acne able to be treated with antibiotics?
Page 26
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Current medical studies have shown that the T<sub>H</sub>1/T<sub>H</sub>2 cell ratio can be linked to infertility issues in women suffering recurrent reproductive failure (who have been shown to have higher levels of T<sub>H</sub>1). What does a T<sub>H</sub>1/T<sub>H</sub>2 cell ratio mean, and what part of adaptive immunity is more active in such women?
Q2) The chickenpox vaccine is created with an attenuated virus, and the rabies vaccine with an inactivated virus. This means:
A) chickenpox virus is a subunit vaccine, and rabies virus is a genetic vaccine
B) chickenpox virus is a genetic vaccine, and rabies virus is a subunit vaccine
C) chickenpox virus is a nonfunctional form, and rabies virus is living but weakened D) chickenpox virus is a subunit vaccine, and rabies virus is nonfunctional E) chickenpox virus is a living weakened form, and rabies virus is nonfunctional
Q3) In 2004, doctors successfully used gene therapy with a severely defective leukemia virus to insert a cytokine receptor gene needed for T-cell development into the bone marrow of four children with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). What is SCID, and how did doing this procedure address the disease?
Q4) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis, but NOT for atopic asthma?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT result from the release of endotoxin from Gram-negative bacteria?
A) fever
B) activation of the alternate complement pathway
C) vasodilation
D) hypertension
E) shock
Q2) Bacteria whose optimum growth temperature is 37°C and that produce copious amounts of polysaccharides and capsules are most likely to be:
A) opportunistic pathogen
B) etiologic agent for septicemia
C) normal flora
D) marine organisms
E) probionts
Q3) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
Q4) Descibe two specific nonpili protein adhesins used in pathogenesis.
Q5) Briefly describe three classic modes of action of bacterial toxins. How are they similar? How are they different?
Q6) Define a fomite and give at least two specific examples.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) __________ diseases are often called spongiform encephalopathies.
A) Meningitis
B) Cytotoxin
C) Neurotoxin
D) Prion
E) Virus
Q2) What disease is caused without an infection?
A) giardiasis
B) tetanus
C) staphylococcal food poisoning
D) candidiasis
E) psittacosis
Q3) Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?
Q4) Bacille Calmette-Guérin, or BCG, is a weakened strain used to vaccinate against:
A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) pneumonia
E) influenza
Q5) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) The Mueller-Hinton medium used in the Kirby-Bauer assay contains no para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA, normally found in most media) because it:
A)causes an increase in bacterial lag time
B)interferes with the diffusion of penicillin and penicillin-like drugs
C)creates a false bacteriostatic effect
D)polymerizes streptomycin drugs and their derivatives
E)inhibits sulfa antibiotics testing
Q2) Infections that are acquired during a stay in a hospital are called:
A) clinical
B) nosocomial
C) gnotobiotic
D) resistant
E) pathogenic
Q3) If a Staphylococcus aureas bacterium was to become resistant to a newly discovered antibiotic, what are the four basic forms of resistance this bacterium could have acquired?
Q4) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin versus cephalosporin in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic.
Q5) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
Q2) PCR-based detection of a person thought to have HIV would require all of the following EXCEPT:
A) primers specific for HIV genes
B) thermocycler
C) HIV agar media
D) gel electrophoresis
E) HIV genome isolation/extraction
Q3) In using the PANTHER sensor for quick detection of pathogens, how does the PANTHER detect Francisella tularensis, the causative agent of tularemia?
A) It detects Francisella tularensis antibodies within a given sample.
B) It detects Francisella tularensis DNA using RFLP technology.
C) It detects Francisella tularensis antigen using antigen-specific B cells.
D) It detects Francisella tularensis endotoxins using enzyme-conjugated antibodies.
E) It detects Francisella tularensis antigen using antigen-specific T cells.
Q4) Why are clinical viral diseases more challenging to diagnose than are clinical bacterial diseases?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) The marketing mix includes
A) advertising, public relations, and sales execution strategies.
B) segment, customer, and product mix strategies.
C) product, price, channel, and marketing communications strategies.
D) research, marketing communications, and customer segment strategies.
E) cross-functional segment and sales execution strategies.
Q2) Define the marketing mix. Use Snap-on Tools as an example, explaining how it creates customer value through its marketing mix strategies.
Q3) The key to achieving excellence in strategy is to be clear about what your strategy is and to consistently communicate it to customers, employees, and shareholders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List three typical problems faced by non-profit organizations that marketing can solve.
Q5) Operation Eyesight has successfully used a "one-size-fits-all" approach in creating value and marketing its products to the different market segments it serves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) An accurate understanding of customer needs allows a company to A) create customer value.
B) meet financial objectives.
C) respond to competitive threats.
D) perfect advertising messages.
E) develop media plans.
Q2) Reliable, unbiased research can only come from customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Primary research is research that has already been conducted by someone else. A)True
B)False
Q4) One problem that companies face is that by the time the research takes place, A) the marketing budget is spent.
B) competitors beat them to the marketplace.
C) the market opportunity may have passed.
D) the secondary research is outdated.
E) the focus group participants are no longer customers.
Q5) Name at least three cautions you should heed when conducting secondary research.
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Q6) What type of data collection is the depth interview method most appropriate for?
Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) How should a business select customers to target?
Q2) Supermarkets and drug stores require manufacturers to pay for putting products on the shelves. This process is known as
A) merchandising fees.
B) markups.
C) marketing fees.
D) cooperative advertising.
E) listing fees.
Q3) Market segmentation is a pillar of any business' success or failure.
A)True B)False
Q4) In business-to-consumer markets, demographic segmentation would look at factors such as A) buying behaviours. B) attitudes.
C) beliefs.
D) opinions.
E) income.
Q5) Why is a business wasting resources if it only offers customers one value proposition? Provide an example.
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) A marketing plan should never look back at previous marketing strategies; it should only look forward.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Besides providing focus to a business, a strong marketing plan
A) reinforces a strong corporate culture.
B) contextualizes the market for other functions.
C) demands product research and development.
D) focuses on building brand image.
E) sets high-level financial targets.
Q3) What are the characteristics of a good executive summary?
Q4) The ultimate focus of value creation is the A) product.
B) technology.
C) marketing communications.
D) competitive edge.
E) customer.
Q5) Why does the textbook author, Ajay Sirsi, think an OTSW analysis should be used instead of a SWOT analysis?
Page 35
Q6) What information should be contained in the competitor analysis?
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) Starbucks' friendly staff and speed of service are examples of its
A) core product.
B) functional product.
C) augmented product.
D) potential product.
E) service offering.
Q2) The term "innovation" should refer to "business innovation," not just product or technological innovation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While brand identity is strategic, brand image is what actually is achieved in the marketplace.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Procter & Gamble made its portfolio much tighter by adding new categories such as pet nutrition and care.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using Starbucks as an example, explain the four levels of a product.
Q6) List the steps in the brand-building process.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Even if a company can reduce the customer's total cost of ownership, the customer will still be price-sensitive to the acquisition cost.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hard work in building the lululemon brand has paid off: its customers are price-insensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Me too" brands command price premiums.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most managers fail to grasp that there is a strong correlation between price and A) product innovation.
B) product distribution.
C) brand equity.
D) brand image.
E) marketing strategy.
Q5) Even if you think your pricing is 90% effective, it's worth striving for 91%.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) Looking at value chains enables a business to A) build relationships with its channel partners.
B) improve product research and development.
C) keep costs low.
D) expand its distribution.
E) expand its product portfolio.
Q2) Poorly conceived channel decisions result in A) increased sales.
B) increased market share.
C) increased profits.
D) decreased red tape.
E) wasted effort.
Q3) Channel strategies can help a business to focus on A) innovation.
B) costs.
C) return on investment.
D) the core product.
E) the potential product.
Q4) What is the customer purchase process?
Q5) List the six steps in the channel design process.
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) In many organizations, the budget devoted to marketing communications is based on
A) competitive activity.
B) a percentage of sales.
C) agency fees.
D) an incremental increase over the previous year's budget.
E) the size of the brand portfolio.
Q2) Brand knowledge is a necessary, but insufficient, step. To become loyal to a brand, customers must
A) gain awareness.
B) gain objective knowledge.
C) develop an emotional connection.
D) try the product.
E) evaluate it against competitors' brands.
Q3) The percentage of mass-marketed television ads for fast food that are ignored is
A) 4.8%.
B) 17%.
C) 22%.
D) 33%.
E) 45%.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) By giving the sales force direction, we avoid any tension the salesperson may feel between serving the customer and creating customer value.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By profiling a customer based on needs and willingness to pay, development of ___________ becomes straightforward.
A) new products
B) marketing communications strategies
C) public relations strategies
D) customer value propositions
E) market segments
Q3) One reason the misalignment between marketing and sales exists is because
A) marketing and sales roles are clearly defined.
B) both functions share equal ownership of the customer.
C) they have different views on an organization's strategy.
D) a process has been put in place to link them.
E) they share resources.
Q4) What is the role of marketing in the buying funnel?
Q5) How is the sales function responsible for creating value for the customer?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) The first step Arbol Industries took in building a truly customer-focused business was to form a committee comprising the heads of all functions, called the Operating Committee. Which of the four key building blocks does this action illustrate?
A) senior management commitment
B) organizational realignment
C) support systems
D) support processes
E) revised financial metrics
Q2) At Arbol Industries organizational, not functional, objectives became the glue that bound all of the company's functions together.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Customer focus is diametrically opposite to
A) service focus.
B) research focus.
C) product focus.
D) CRM focus.
E) technology focus.
Q4) List three of the common traps to avoid in building a customer-focused business.
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) Different levels of customer satisfaction have tremendous impact on customer loyalty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Traditional segmentation methods do not work on the internet because they make use of
A) customer characteristics.
B) marketing goals.
C) usage information.
D) sites visited.
E) marketing tactics.
Q3) An American Customer Satisfaction Index (ACSI) study shows a clear correlation between higher levels of customer satisfaction and A) higher stock prices.
B) market volatility.
C) advertising spending.
D) increased distribution.
E) personal selling.
Q4) Describe three different types of usage occasions on the web.
Q5) Describe the segmentation approach required for customers on the web.
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) The sales force is responsible for competencies such as understanding customer needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reviewing the mix of products and services is essential to ensure that it
A) provides ROI.
B) resonates with customers.
C) is superior to that of competitors.
D) requires no extra services.
E) is distributed nationally.
Q3) John Deere has been successful because the firm constantly reviews its segments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Marketing's role, objectives, time frame, and authority are all key decisions when developing
A) marketing metrics.
B) channel strategies.
C) research methodology.
D) sales strategies.
E) product mix.
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