General Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
General Microbiology provides a comprehensive overview of the structure, function, diversity, and roles of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course explores microbial physiology, genetics, metabolism, and ecology, emphasizing their importance in health, industry, and the environment. Students will gain foundational laboratory skills in aseptic techniques, microbial culturing, and identification, while learning about current issues such as antibiotic resistance, biotechnology applications, and the impact of microbes on society.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Cowan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist who studies the influence of microbes in the formation of caves is called a(n)______.
A) astrobiologist
B) epidemiologist
C) geomicrobiologist
D) immunologist
Answer: C
Q2) In which way are archaea and eukaryotes the same?
A) Have a cell wall for rigidity
B) Can use flagella for movement
C) Contain mitochondria for energy production
D) Contain membrane-bound organelles
Answer: B
Q3) The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called ______.
A) experimentation
B) biotechnology
C) classification
D) identification
E) nomenclature
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Burning coal produces sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere.When combined with rain that falls into bodies of water,this leads to
A) a greater concentration of OH<sup>-</sup> ions in the water.
B) a decrease in the pH level of the water.
C) an increase in pH level of the water.
D) no change in the pH level of the water.
Answer: B
Q3) What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 18
E) 32
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium.Following incubation,only the E.coli grows in the culture.What is the most likely explanation?
A)The culture medium was selective.
B)The culture medium was differential.
C)The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
D)The culture was contaminated.
E)The incubation temperature was incorrect.
Answer: A
Q2) Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass?
A) Lister
B) Schultz and Schwann
C) Leeuwenhoek
D) Redi
E) Pasteur
Answer: C
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media as pure cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers studying the rigidity and flexibility of the cell envelope used chemotaxis to measure the ability of microbes to squeeze through tight spaces.E.coli,a gram-negative bacterium,was able to traverse narrower channels than B.subtilis,a gram-positive microbe,even though both cells are the same size when grown without restriction.E.coli has the more flexible cell envelope because A)lipopolysaccharide has no charge.
B)it has fewer flagella.
C)it has only a single membrane.
D)there is less structural carbohydrate.
E)there are fewer protein receptors.
Q2) The cell membrane,the cell wall,and the outer membrane comprise the ______. A) cell envelope
B) slime layer
C) glycocalyx
D) S-layer
E) Peptidoglycan
Q3) Boiling water (100°C)can normally destroy endospores.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cilia are exhibited by certain ______.
A) fungi
B) protozoa
C) algae
D) viruses
E) bacteria
Q2) The cytoskeleton
A) anchors organelles.
B) provides architectural support.
C) functions in movements of the cytoplasm.
D) helps maintain cell shape.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the endosymbiotic theory.
A) The electron transport system is located in the cell membrane in bacteria, while in eukaryotes it is located in the mitochondrial cristae.
B) Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus.
C) Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids.
D) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) A treatment for bacterial infections from the early 20th century has made a comeback; the use of bacterial viruses to eliminate bacterial infections.Which explanation most accurately describes the reason for the return of this treatment?
A) A wide variety of bacteria cause a large percentage of human infections, producing much sickness and death.
B) Viruses can infect bacteria, transferring pathogenic genes; the viral genes can then be suppressed, causing the bacteria to not replicate viruses.
C) The attachment structures on the virus and the receptors on the host cells make for exquisite specificity of viruses for particular bacterial species.
D) Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is on the increase, so using a different kind of therapy offers an alternative to traditional drugs.
Q2) What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors?
A) Viral sheaths
B) Tail fibers
C) Nucleic acids
D) Capsid heads
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ______.
A) diffusion
B) osmosis
C) endocytosis
D) active transport
E) facilitated diffusion
Q2) An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a(n)______.
A) psychrophile
B) extremophile
C) facultative psychrophile
D) thermophile
E) thermoduric microbe
Q3) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during ______.
A) glycolysis and photosynthesis
B) the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system
C) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D) fermentation and the Krebs cycle
E) fermentation and glycolysis
Q2) Each FADH<sub>2</sub> from the Krebs cycle that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATP(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule,this control is called ______.
A) competitive inhibition
B) enzyme induction
C) enzyme repression
D) noncompetitive inhibition
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fields of genomics and proteomics differ in that
A) the field of genomics involves the study of DNA replication and the field of proteomics refers to the study of transcription and translation.
B) genomics refers to the study of an organism's entire genome, whereas proteomics is the study of expressed proteins.
C) genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and the resulting proteins are studied in the field of proteomics.
D) genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and proteomics is the study of transcription and translation of proteins.
Q2) The lactose repressor
A) is transcribed with the structural lac genes.
B) is activated by binding lactose.
C) is inactivated by binding lactose.
D) requires lactose for its transcription.
Q3) In bacteria,initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) After three replication cycles in PCR,there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) SNPs are derived from ______.
A) genetic engineering
B) frameshift mutations
C) gene therapy
D) point mutations
Q3) Which step in gene mapping involves transformation?
A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B) Cloning host receives plasmid
C) Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E) Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
Q4) When micro RNA molecules malfunction,their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production,which results in tumor growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms,including bacterial endospores,on inanimate objects is ______.
A) disinfection
B) sterilization
C) antisepsis
D) sanitization
E) degermation
Q2) Which of the following represents microbial control by osmotic pressure?
A) Pickling cucumbers and other vegetables for long-term storage
B) Placing fruit slices on a drying rack
C) Canning tomatoes after a summer growing season to use throughout the winter
D) The crew of the Mayflower using salted meats throughout their voyage to the New World
Q3) The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is ______.
A) chlorine dioxide
B) iodophor
C) glutaraldehyde
D) ethylene oxide
E) formaldehyde
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring,a beta-lactam ring,and an R group.
A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) macrolides
D) cephalosporins
E) aminoglycosides
Q2) Which two antibiotics affect nucleic acids of bacteria?
A) Tetracycline and amphotericin B
B) Trimethoprim and sulfonamides
C) Rifampin and quinolones
D) Tetracycline and bacitracin
E) Penicillin and vancomycin
Q3) There are fewer antifungal,antiprotozoan,and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi,protozoa,and helminths
A) do not cause many human infections.
B) are not affected by antimicrobials.
C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve.
D) are parasites found inside human cells.
E) have fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus?
A) Vertical
B) Direct
C) Vector
D) Droplets
E) Fomites
Q2) You are studying a newly identified infectious disease within a population.Think of the typical graph of the course of infection--incubation period through to convalescent period.The new disease reveals a course of infection characterized by fluctuating symptoms,with intermittent periods of invasion (acute period)between prodromal periods.The whole course of infection occurs over a period of months or even years.Based upon the information presented,select the statement that most accurately reflects this new infectious disease.
A) This infectious disease exhibits latency.
B) This is not an infectious disease at all.
C) The host has immune problems and this is the typical course of a disease for that population.
D) Viral infections always present with this type of disease course.
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial antagonism is the
A) prevention of immune responses by the resident microbiota.
B) suppression of the complement cascade by microbes.
C) competition for nutrients, oxygen, and space between the resident microbiota and potential pathogens.
D) inhibition of T cell binding to microbes.
Q2) Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?
A) Basophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Eosinophils
E) Monocytes
Q3) Monocytes are the mature form of macrophages; they are found in tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The alternate complement pathway uses complement proteins C1,C2,and C4.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) After secreting antibodies during an immune response,plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of
A) specific immune globulin (SIG).
B) gamma globulin.
C) toxoids.
D) immune serum globulin (ISG).
E) attenuated vaccines.
Q3) An example of artificial passive immunity would be
A) chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
B) chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Antibody-mediated
C) Immune complex-mediated
D) Both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated.
E) Both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated.
Q2) The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _____ dose.
A) sensitizing
B) provocative
C) allergic
D) hypersensitivity
E) desensitizing
Q3) Human blood types involve all of the following except A) MHC genes.
B) inheritance of two of three possible alleles.
C) ABO antigen markers.
D) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.
E) genetically determined glycoprotein markers.
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents,a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?
A) Antibody response
B) Acid-fast reaction
C) Gram stain reaction
D) Endospore production
E) Morphology
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding the polymerse chain reaction test?
A) Sheep red blood cells are added to the gel.
B) The two strands of the DNA molecules are separated by heat.
C) Antigen and antibody are allowed to react first.
D) An enzyme-linked indicator is added.
Q4) In precipitation tests,the antigen
A) -antibody complex settles to the bottom of the tube.
B) is a whole cell.
C) is an insoluble molecule.
D) is a soluble molecule.
19
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Neonatal conjunctivitis differs from non-neonatal conjunctivitis in that
A) it is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks old.
B) neonates have immune privilege, and are therefore more susceptible to all types of infection.
C) it cannot be prevented as the causative organisms are normal microbiota for the mother.
D) neonatal conjunctivitis can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonnorhoeae, or any number of viruses.
Q2) Impetigo is caused by ______.
A)C.perfringens
B)C.diphtheriae
C)S.aureus
D)S.pyogenes
E)Both S.aureus and S.pyogenes are correct.
Q3) Keratitis is usually caused by ______.
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following does not apply to Neisseria meningitidis?
A) It can be easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
B) Its reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
C) Its virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
D) It causes a serious meningitis.
E) It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
Q2) Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Streptococcus agalactiae
E) Haemophilus influenzae
Q3) In both botulism and tetanus,respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and,if untreated,respiratory collapse leads to death.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding Q fever is incorrect?
A) The disease is mild, and most cases go undetected.
B) Symptoms include fever, muscle aches, rash, and occasionally pneumonia.
C) The causative agent, Coxiella burnetii, produces resistant endospore-like structures.
D) Humans can be infected from the airborne spread of particles from infected animals.
E) The causative agent, Coxiella burnetii, is transmitted by lice.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the structure of blood vessels is incorrect?
A) In contrast to veins, arteries have higher blood pressure, more tissue layers, and are thinner vessels.
B) Connective tissue and muscle fibers are found in the layers of tissue surrounding both arteries and veins.
C) Capillaries have only a single layer of endothelium, rendering them fragile and leaky during an infection with a hemorrhagic fever virus.
D) Blood vessels are often found in parallel with lymphatic vessels.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is true about sinusitis caused by allergy?
A) Produces a greenish or yellowish mucous discharge
B) Caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Usually introduced by trauma
D) Produces a clear, watery discharge
E) Preceded by viral rhinitis
Q2) Tuberculin skin testing
A) involves the injection of PPD intradermally.
B) uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) will be positive if person has had previous exposure.
D) will be positive in active TB.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Your patient has pneumonia.Since there are so many microorganisms causing pneumonia,what might be the best test to do first for identification of the agent?
A) An antibody test
B) A culture from a lung aspirate
C) A skin test
D) A Gram stain of a saliva specimen
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Antibiotics are used to treat diarrhea caused by shiga toxin-producingE.coli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Giardiasis involves
A) a protozoan that does not form cysts.
B) infection of the large intestine.
C) symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.
D) vector transmission.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding Campylobacter infection is incorrect?
A) It can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome.
B) It is caused by a shiga toxin.
C) Campylobacter burrows into the mucosa of the ileum and multiplies.
D) It can last over 2 weeks.
E) It can cause acute temporary paralysis.
Q4) The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Even after a positive test for a microbial cause,chronic prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy.Why might this be the case?
A) Mixed species biofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics.
B) The side effects of the drug are too great.
C) It is a viral infection.
D) The infection is sporadic.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding leptospirosis in incorrect?
A) The causative organism infects the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
B) Humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes.
C) It can be transmitted by animal bites.
D) The causative organism is a spirochete.
E) It is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.
Q3) Which population is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection?
A) College age women
B) Neonates
C) Post-menopausal women
D) AIDS patients
E) Pregnant women
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called ______.
A) autotrophs
B) decomposers
C) secondary consumers
D) primary consumers
Q2) Heterotrophs include
A) producers only.
B) consumers only.
C) consumers and decomposers.
D) producers and consumers.
E) producers, consumers, and decomposers.
Q3) The breakdown of man-made compounds by decomposers is called ______.
A) saprobism
B) mineralization
C) decomposition
D) parasitism
E) bioremediation
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of coliforms?
A) They are gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, and gas-producing.
B) Finding coliforms in water indicates fecal contamination.
C) Coliform counts are not specific for a particular species of bacteria.
D) They include
E) coli, Enterobacter, and Giardia.
Q2) Bacteriophages sprayed on cold cuts are effective against ______.
A) coliforms
B) Clostridium
C) Listeria
D) S. aureus
E) Mycobacterium
Q3) Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Secondary metabolites are essential molecules needed by the microorganism.
A)True
B)False
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