General Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
General Microbiology provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure, function, diversity, and roles of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course covers fundamental principles such as microbial cell biology, metabolism, genetics, growth, and the impact of microbes on humans, animals, plants, and the environment. Students will explore methods of microbial identification and control, as well as the relevance of microbes in biotechnology, health, and disease. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, aseptic methods, and the interpretation of experimental results to give students a strong foundation in both the theoretical and practical aspects of microbiology.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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2124 Verified Questions
2124 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there.A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break down the cyanide used by a gold mining company.Which term refers to this use of bacteria?
A)bioremediation
B)immunoextraction
C)decomposition
D)bioextraction
E)biosynthesis
Answer: A
Q3) Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds and stabilize the tertiary structure of some proteins?
A)valine
B)cysteine
C)serine
D)alanine
E)tyrosine
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except
A)triglycerides are insoluble in water.
B)triglycerides are a concentrated source of energy.
C)unsaturated triglycerides are solid at room temperature.
D)triglycerides dissolve in nonpolar solvents.
E)triglycerides are hydrolyzed by lipases.
Answer: C
Q3) Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____. Answer: nucleus
Q4) During protein synthesis, genes in DNA are copied, making _____ RNA.
Answer: messenger; m; M
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the_____ lens.This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye.
Answer: objective; ocular
Q2) A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The Six "I's" of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A)inoculation.
B)incubation.
C)infection.
D)isolation.
E)identification.
Answer: C
Q4) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of thylakoids, phycocyanin, gas inclusions, and cysts would be associated with
A)green sulfur bacteria.
B)cyanobacteria.
C)purple sulfur bacteria.
D)archaea.
E)spirochetes.
Q2) Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A)lophotrichous.
B)peritrichous.
C)monotrichous.
D)amphitrichous.
E)spirilla.
Q3) All of the following are correct about biofilms, except
A)they are cooperative associations among several microbial groups. B)they play an important role in recycling elements in the Earth.
C)they can colonize medical devices.
D)an example could be the scum that builds up in toilet bowls.
E)they are harmless aggregations of microbes.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast protozoan cysts, fungal spores, and bacterial endospores with regard to: a) the factors that stimulate their formation, b) their structure, and c) their function.
Q2) Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called _____ that carry chlorophyll.Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called the _____.
Q3) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of ___________.
A)glycogen
B)proteins
C)glucose
D)nucleic acids
E)lipids
Q4) Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except A)paralytic shellfish poisoning.
B)red tides.
C)ciguatera.
D)Pfiesteria piscicida.
E)euglenids.
Q5) Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
Q2) Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
A)type of nucleic acid.
B)type of capsid.
C)presence of an envelope.
D)biochemical reactions.
E)nucleic acid strand number.
Q3) Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
A)lysogeny.
B)budding.
C)plaques.
D)pocks.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term obligate refers to
A)the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions.
B)existing in a very narrow niche.
C)using chemicals for energy production.
D)using light for energy production.
E)using oxygen for metabolism.
Q2) An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a(n)
A)aerobe.
B)obligate aerobe.
C)facultative anaerobe.
D)microaerophile.
E)obligate anaerobe.
Q3) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The direct cell count, using a flow cytometer, can determine both viable cell numbers and number of dead cells in the sample.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The step involving ATP, hexokinase and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
A)the final step of the Krebs cycle.
B)the first redox reaction of the electron transport system.
C)an example of oxidative phosphorylation.
D)an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
E)an example of photophosphorylation.
Q3) All of the following occur during the light-independent reactions EXCEPT A)carbon fixation.
B)reduction of intermediates by NADPH.
C)phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP.
D)regeneration or RuBP.
Q4) Which form of energy fuels cellular energetics in chemoheterotrophs?
A)light energy from the Sun
B)chemical energy in organic compounds
C)electrical energy
D)thermal energy
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except A)they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.
B)ribosomes participate only in translation.
C)ribosomes bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D)ribosomes use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.
E)ribosomes shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
Q2) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by
A)repressor alone bound to operator.
B)substrate bound to repressor.
C)substrate bound to promoter.
D)corepressor and repressor binding to operator.
Q3) A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host.This is an example of A)conjugation.
B)generalized transduction.
C)specialized transduction.
D)creation of an Hfr cell.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called A)cloning.
B)gene therapy.
C)antisense therapeutic.
D)DNA fingerprinting.
Q2) In recombinant DNA technique, an enzyme called _____ is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes.
Q3) EcoRI and HindIII are A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q4) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
Q5) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?
A)ultraviolet (germicidal) light
B)gamma rays
C)121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
D)160°C for 2 hours
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Endospores can be killed by
A)dry heat at 170°C for 2 hours.
B)incineration.
C)glutaldehyde for 8 or more hours.
D)ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is A)ethylene oxide.
B)iodophor.
C)glutaraldehyde.
D)formaldehyde.
E)chlorine dioxide.
Q4) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A)synercid.
B)penicillinase.
C)aztreonam.
D)clavulanic acid.
E)imipenem.
Q2) If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.
Q3) Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs.Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.
Q4) Aminoglycosides
A)interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B)are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D)damage cell membranes.
E)block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Q5) Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are communicable diseases, except A)measles.
B)botulism.
C)influenza.
D)pertussis (whooping cough).
Q3) Which is not the terminology used for resident flora?
A)Pathogenic flora
B)Normal flora
C)Indigenous flora
D)Normal microflora
E)all of these choices are correct.
Q4) Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology.
Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication
B)interleukin-2 - stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production
C)serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction
D)prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B-cells
E)tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
Q2) The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
Q3) Which is incorrect regarding fever?
A)It is present in all vertebrates.
B)It stimulates the activity of T-cells.
C)It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections.
D)When rising, a person feels cold.
E)It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms.
Q4) A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body.
Q5) Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone marrow is where
A)immune responses to antigen occur.
B)blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
C)antigen is filtered from the blood.
D)antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
E)T-lymphocytes complete maturation.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except
A)it has 10 antigen binding sites.
B)it contains a central J chain.
C)it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
D)it can fix complement.
E)it is a dimer.
Q3) Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c) relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions.
Q4) A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _____.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms?
A)T-cells
B)monocytes
C)plasma cells
D)mast cells
E)eosinophils
Q2) Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an
A)autoimmune disease.
B)immunodeficiency.
C)hypersensitivity.
D)transfusion reaction.
E)desensitization.
Q3) Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category
A)Type 1 only.
B)Type 1 and Type 4.
C)Type 4 only.
D)Type 1, Type 2, Type 3.
E)Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.
Q4) The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a __________, antigens or antibodies are labeled with radioactive isotopes and traced.
Q2) All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except
A)detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.
B)Western Blot.
C)cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.
D)signs and symptoms.
E)the light microscope.
Q3) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
Q4) If trying to isolate a specific pathogen from amongst a variety of normal microbiota, which type of media would be most helpful?
A)nutrient agar
B)differential media
C)blood agar
D)selective and differential agar
Q5) Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An antibody_____ provides a measure of the quantity of antibodies in the serum. Page 19
Q7) When collecting __________, a "clean catch" method is often used.
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat.The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils.Which of the following conclusions should be made?
A)She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics.
B)She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.
C)She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin.
D)She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up.
E)She has a staphylococcal sore throat and should begin antibiotics immediately.
Q2) A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding.Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea.His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg
Hg.This patient's illness is most likely caused by
A)Staphylococcus aureus - exfoliative toxin
B)Streptococcus pyogenes - streptolysin O
C)Staphylococcus aureus - toxic shock syndrome toxin
D)Streptococcus pyogenes - erythrogenic toxin
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are characteristic of lepromatous leprosy?
A)Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop.
B)Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease.
C)The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes.
D)Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following body sites may be affected by diptheria, except
A)the pharynx.
B)the heart.
C)the peripheral and cranial nerves.
D)the skin.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease?"
A)pulmonary
B)gastrointestinal
C)cutaneous
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) _____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A)it is transmitted by human feces.
B)it is caused by Yersinia pestis.
C)the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
D)the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness.
E)it can progress to a septicemia.
Q2) Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A)tularemia.
B)pertussis.
C)legionellosis.
D)brucellosis.
E)shigellosis.
Q3) Discuss the patients at greatest risk for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections and describe the type of infections that they acquire.
Q4) Which of the following are symptoms of septic shock?
A)tachycardia
B)reduced blood flow to vital organs
C)respiratory failure
D)weak pulse
E)All of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Hutchinson's teeth are
A)a symptom of untreated Lyme disease.
B)a symptom of untreated periodontal disease.
C)a symptom of ANUG.
D)a symptom of congenital syphilis.
E)a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis.
Q2) Chlamydiosis can lead to endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Relapsing fever involves
A)soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii.
B)initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue.
C)campers and forestry personnel.
D)human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q5) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus?
A)ketoconazole (Nizoral)
B)fluconazole
C)terbinafine (Lamisil)
D)amphotericin B
E)griseofulvin
Q2) All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis, except
A)the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.
B)fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected.
C)it is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores.
D)it often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise.
E)it is also called valley fever.
Q3) All of the following pertain to Candida albicans, except
A)it is an opportunistic yeast.
B)small numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin.
C)it has a large capsule.
D)infections often arise from an endogenous source.
E)persistent moist skin influences infection.
Q4) _____ are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Toxoplasmosis includes all the following, except
A)ingesting pseudocysts from contaminated raw or undercooked meat.
B)ingesting or inhaling oocysts from infected cats or cat feces.
C)tachyzoites can cross the placenta.
D)immunocompromised patients often develop a fatal, disseminated infection.
E)intrauterine infectious are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues.
Q3) Which is not correct about trichinellosis?
A)It can be transmitted by eating undercooked pork.
B)It can be transmitted by eating bear meat.
C)Numerous cases occur each year in the United States.
D)The first symptoms mimic influenza.
E)A cure is not available once the larvae have encysted in muscles.
Q4) Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) Passive artificial immunity to the Hepatitis B virus is provided by immunization with
Q2) Poxviruses are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hepatitis B infection
A)has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks.
B)can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
C)increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
D)is due to a flavivirus.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Smallpox is a disease in which
A)fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.
B)virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons.
C)recurrent episodes are called shingles.
D)transmission occurs only by direct skin contact with skin crusts.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q5) Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus?
A)severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
B)parainfluenza
C)mumps
D)measles
E)respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections
Q2) Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV?
A)HIV doesn't provoke the production of antibodies.
B)Antibodies against HIV don't provide any protection from infection.
C)Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations.
D)Individuals are unwilling to participate in vaccine trials out of fear of developing AIDS.
Q3) The major agents responsible for the common cold are
A)coxsackie viruses.
B)rhinoviruses.
C)influenza viruses.
D)Caliciviruses.
E)rotavirus.
Q4) The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>) to the ammonium ion (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>) occurs during A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation. C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q2) The oxidation of ammonia (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>) to nitrate (NO<sub>3</sub> ) is called A)ammonification. B)nitrogen fixation. C)photosynthesis. D)nitrification. E)denitrification.
Q3) The science called microbial _____ studies interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the Earth.
Q4) Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are believed to be _____ gases that could disrupt the temperature balance of the Earth.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/63642
Sample Questions
Q1) The microbes used by fermentation industries are mutant strains that synthesize large quantities of the desired product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wine has a maximum alcoholic content of 17% because concentrations above this level inhibit the metabolism of the yeast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organism is used to make Swiss cheese?
A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D)Propionibacterium
E)Spirulina
Q4) Regular refrigeration does not inhibit the growth of __________ microbes that can continue to grow and cause food spoilage.
Q5) The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as _________ processing.
Q6) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
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