General Microbiology Exam Bank
Course
Introduction
General Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology, encompassing the structure, function, classification, and diversity of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course explores microbial physiology, genetics, and metabolism, as well as the roles microorganisms play in ecology, human health, and industry. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques used to study and identify microorganisms, microbial interactions with hosts, and the importance of microbes in processes such as fermentation, disease, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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28 Chapters
1820 Verified Questions
1820 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of A)riboflavin.
B)acetone.
C)insulin.
D)aspirin.
E)riboflavin,acetone and insulin.
Answer: E
Q2) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is A)microbe.
B)bacterium.
C)virus.
D)pathogen.
E)infection.
Answer: D
Q3) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids?
A)carbohydrate
B)lipid
C)protein
D)nucleic acid
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements about the reactions in Table 2.2 is FALSE?
A)They are exchange reactions.
B)They are ionization reactions.
C)They occur when the reactants are dissolved in water.
D)They are dissociation reactions.
E)They are reversible reactions.
Answer: A
Q3) All forms of life function optimally at a pH of 7.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) In using this microscope,the observer does NOT look directly at an image through a lens.
A)compound light microscope
B)phase-contrast microscope
C)darkfield microscope
D)fluorescence microscope
E)electron microscope
Answer: E
Q2) An acidic dye
A)has a positively charged chromophore.
B)has a negatively charged chromophore.
C)is used to stain the background in a negative stain.
D)is used to stain nuclei.
E)has a negatively charged chromophore and is used to stain the background in a negative stain.
Answer: E
Q3) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion
A)moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.
B)moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.
C)requires ATP.
D)requires transporter proteins.
E)does not require ATP.
Q2) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT
A)it maintains the shape of the cell.
B)it is sensitive to lysozyme.
C)it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
D)it contains teichoic acids.
E)it is sensitive to penicillin.
Q3) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)metachromatic granules - phosphate storage
B)lipid inclusions - energy reserve
C)ribosomes - carbon storage
D)sulfur granules - energy reserve
E)gas vacuoles - flotation
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?
A)chemoautotroph
B)chemoheterotroph
C)photoautotroph
D)photoheterotroph
Q2) A bacterium that only possesses the ability to ferment obtains energy
A)by glycolysis only.
B)by aerobic respiration only.
C)by fermentation or aerobic respiration.
D)only in the absence of oxygen.
E)only in the presence of oxygen.
Q3) The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT
A)precursors for nucleic acids.
B)precursors for the synthesis of glucose.
C)three ATPs.
D)NADPH.
E)precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.
Q4) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
Q5) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O - + O - + 2H H O + O ?
A)catalase
B)oxidase
C)peroxidase
D)superoxide dismutase
Q2) Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates,even if the desired bacteria are present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?
A)can readily count cells that form aggregates
B)determines the number of viable cells
C)can be performed on very dilute samples,such as lake water
D)provides immediate results
E)can be used to count heat-sensitive bacteria
Q4) In Figure 6.1,which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C?
A)a
B)b
C)c
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7°C at time x?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q2) Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave,what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?
A)bleach
B)boiling for one hour
C)hydrogen peroxide
D)oven at 121°C for one hour
E)pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes
Q4) Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 8.2.Identify the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA (pay attention to the polarity of the DNA here): 3' ATTACGCTTTGC 5'.
A)leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine
B)asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine
C)asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine
D)Translation would stop at the first codon.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) Generalized transduction occurs when a bacteriophage inadvertently packages the wrong material into one of its newly-formed protein coats.While the source of this material may vary,it is always:
A)protein.
B)mRNA.
C)DNA.
D)tRNA.
E)miRNA.
Q3) Could you perform the Ames test with a strain of bacteria that was auxotrophic for something other than histidine? How would the setup and execution of the experiment change,and why?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
A)DNA mRNA.
B)mRNA cDNA.
C)mRNA protein.
D)DNA DNA.
E)tRNA mRNA.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?
A)frost retardant
B)Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
C)nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)
D)glyphosate-resistant crops
E)pectinase
Q3) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?
A)gene guns
B)protoplast fusion
C)Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
D)microinjection
E)electroporation
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?
A)All members are photosynthetic.
B)Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
C)Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.
D)All members are microscopic.
E)All members are macroscopic.
Q2) As molecular techniques improve,scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used
A)in bacterial identification.
B)in DNA sequencing reactions.
C)in serological identification methods.
D)in DNA fingerprinting.
Q4) Once a culture is purified,the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
A)Salmonella
B)Shigella
C)Escherichia
D)Enterobacter
E)Campylobacter
Q2) The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members of the Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Streptomyces are important because they
A)make antibiotics.
B)produce conidia.
C)are implicated in acne.
D)are strict aerobes.
E)fix nitrogen.
Q4) The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they
A)are motile.
B)lack mitochondria.
C)lack nuclei.
D)do not produce cysts.
E)do produce cysts.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
A)Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
B)Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.
C)Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.
D)The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.
E)The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.
Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)nematodes - complete digestive tract
B)cestodes - segmented body made of proglottids
C)trematodes - flukes
D)nematodes - many are free-living
E)cestodes - all are free-living
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
A)laboratory animals
B)culture media
C)embryonated eggs
D)animal cell cultures
E)bacterial cultures
Q2) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
A)lysozyme.
B)tRNA.
C)amino acids.
D)nucleotides.
E)ATP.
Q3) Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a(minus)strand of RNA?
A)synthesis of DNA from an RNA template
B)synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
C)synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template
D)transcription of mRNA from DNA
E)synthesis of DNA from a DNA template
Q4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
A)ecology.
B)epidemiology.
C)communicable disease.
D)morbidity and mortality.
E)public health.
Q2) Which of the following is a fomite?
A)water
B)droplets from a sneeze
C)pus
D)insects
E)a hypodermic needle
Q3) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?
A)urinary tract infections
B)pneumonia
C)salmonellosis
D)tetanus
E)anthrax
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea,vomiting,and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce.The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is A)botulinum toxin.
B)aflatoxin.
C)staphylococcal enterotoxin.
D)erythrogenic toxin.
E)cholera toxin.
Q2) Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events.What is the second step?
A)Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus.
B)Fever occurs.
C)IL-1 is released.
D)LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria.
E)Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria.
Q3) Ergot and aflatoxin are toxins sometimes found in grains contaminated with fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
A)returns to the blood.
B)goes into lymph capillaries.
C)is excreted in urine.
D)is lost as perspiration.
E)is transported into macrophages.
Q2) Macrophages arise from which of the following?
A)basophils
B)eosinophils
C)lymphocytes
D)monocytes
E)neutrophils
Q3) Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT A)M protein.
B)capsules.
C)formation of phagolysosomes.
D)leukocidins.
E)biofilms.
Q4) The complement system is extremely important in the innate defense response.It can be said that this system is a cascade system.Explain this statement.
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specificity of an antibody is due to A)its valence.
B)the H chains.
C)the L chains.
D)the constant portions of the H and L chains.
E)the variable portions of the H and L chains.
Q2) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them),and which always exist as monomers,are
A)IgG.
B)IgM.
C)IgA.
D)IgD.
E)IgE.
Q3) Which terms regarding components of adaptive immunity are mismatched?
A)Dendritic cells- Langerhans cell.
B)activated macrophage - membrane ruffling.
C)M cell - microfolds.
D)TH cells - MHCI interaction.
E)TH-17 cells - recruit neutrophils.
Q4) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient's urine,what is the third step in the test process?
A)Substrate for the enzyme is added.
B)Enzyme-labeled antibody against the drug being tested is added.
C)The patient's urine sample is diluted.
D)Antibody against the drug being tested is added.
Q2) A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the
A)direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B)indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C)direct ELISA test.
D)direct agglutination test.
Q3) In Table 18.1,who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A)Patient A
B)Patient B
C)Patient C
D)Patient D
Q4) Design a serological test to detect botulinum toxin in food.
Q5) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A)it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
B)it is synonymous with "allergy."
C)it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.
D)it is due to an altered immune response.
E)it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
Q2) Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of phase 3 HIV infection?
A)HIV in blood stabilizes at 1000-10,000 per ml of blood.
B)CD4 cell population drops to less than 200 cells per l of blood.
C)HIV peaks to 10 million per ml of blood.
D)asymptomatic infection.
E)Seroconversion occurs.
Q4) Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the body's defenses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
A)aminoglycosides
B)cephalosporins
C)polyenes
D)rifampins
E)penicillin
Q2) Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
A)competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
B)inhibition of protein synthesis
C)injury to plasma membrane
D)inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E)competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase
Q3) Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A)it was the first antibiotic.
B)it does not affect eukaryotic cells.
C)it inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis.
D)it has selective toxicity.
E)it kills bacteria.
Q4) Can you determine both MIC and MBC from an E-test? Explain.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Which disease commonly leads to blindness in parts of the world but can be largely controlled through sanitary practices and health education?
A)Yaws
B)Buruli ulcer
C)Trachoma
D)Acanthomoeba keratitis
E)Herpetic keratitis
Q2) Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of A)chickenpox.
B)smallpox.
C)fifth disease.
D)rubella.
E)measles.
Q3) A patient reports to the eye clinic associated with the regional health center with a painful inflamed left cornea.The patient reports that he typically wears contacts.What types of infectious agent might be causing the problem? What further information would you seek? Describe how you would confirm you suspicion and choose a drug to treat this individual.
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Botulism and tetanus are directly caused by bacterial endospores commonly found in the soil.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent?
A)tetanus toxoid vaccine
B)oral polio vaccine
C)inactivated polio vaccine
D)Haemophilus influenzae capsule vaccine
E)meningococcal capsule vaccine
Q3) Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are true of M.leprae EXCEPT
A)it grows best at temperatures below 37°C.
B)it survives ingestion by macrophages.
C)it invades cells of the PNS.
D)it can be cultured in armadillos.
E)it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is FALSE?
A)It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
B)It is an inflammation of the heart.
C)It is an inflammation of the joints.
D)Once resolved,a patient rarely experiences a reoccurrence.
E)The incidence has declined in the last ten years.
Q2) HHV-1 is clearly associated with Burkitt's lymphoma via empirical evidence and scientific research.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT typically treated with penicillin?
A)serious wounds at risk for gas gangrene
B)tularemia
C)patients at risk for rheumatic fever
D)puerperal sepsis
E)rat-bite fever
Q4) Neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by group A streptococci.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which one of the following pairings is mismatched?
A)Corynebacterium - gram-positive rod
B)Mycobacterium - acid-fast rod
C)Mycoplasma - gram-positive pleomorphic rod
D)Bordetella - gram-negative pleomorphic rod
E)Haemophilus - gram-negative rod
Q2) It is common for a normal,healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Melioidosis is a relatively new disease.Its means of transmission is primarily via A)sexual contact.
B)contaminated water.
C)inhalation.
D)blood-borne transmission.
E)surgical wound contamination.
Q4) Characterize the disease melioidosis,then draft a control plan to prevent the spread of the infection if it should reach the United States.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT
A)Clostridium perfringens.
B)Vibrio cholerae.
C)Shigella dysenteriae.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)Clostridium botulinum.
Q2) Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
Q4) All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT
A)transmission is typically by contact with fomites or inhalation of eggs.
B)diagnosis is by detecting eggs on transparent tape pressed to the perianal area.
C)all family members living with the patient must also be treated.
D)it is most commonly transmitted by cysts in water.
E)it is a helminth disease.
Q5) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
Q6) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) A "clean" urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder of a healthy individual
A)should be largely devoid of common skin microbiota.
B)contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml.
C)contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.
D)contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml.
E)has leukocyte esterase.
Q2) Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of
A)Gardnerella vaginosis.
B)genital herpes.
C)candidiasis.
D)trichomoniasis.
E)lymphogranuloma venereum.
Q3) Which one of the following is a STI that may be confused with syphilis due to its ulcer formation on the genitalia?
A)gonorrhea
B)candidiasis
C)chancroid (soft chancre)
D)leptospirosis
E)nongonococcal urethritis
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage?
A)anaerobic sludge digestion
B)primary sewage treatment
C)secondary sewage treatment
D)tertiary sewage treatment
E)water treatment
Q2) The BOD is a measurement of the amount of bacteria present before and after the sewage treatment process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which wastewater treatment process produces BOD-containing effluent used for irrigation?
A)anaerobic sludge digestion
B)primary sewage treatment
C)secondary sewage treatment
D)tertiary sewage treatment
E)water treatment
Q4) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions makes wine less acidic,and is important for good flavor when grapes with higher acidity are used?
A)sugar ethanol
B)ethanol acetic acid
C)malic acid lactic acid
D)carbon dioxide sucrose
E)sugar CO + H O
Q2) Which of the following microbes produces a natural biopesticide?
A)Penicillium chryssogenum
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Bacillus thuringiensis
D)Lactobacillus buggaricus
E)Thiobacillus ferroxidans
Q3) All of the following are uses for ionizing or ultraviolet radiation EXCEPT
A)heating cold food.
B)sterilizing spices.
C)inactivation of Trichinella larvae.
D)killing of insect eggs and larva.
E)prevention of sprouting.
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