General Microbiology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
General Microbiology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, physiology, genetics, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course examines the role of microbes in health, disease, and the environment, as well as their applications in industry, biotechnology, and research. Emphasis is placed on microbial metabolism, growth, and reproduction, interactions with hosts, mechanisms of pathogenicity, and the immune response. Students will also be introduced to laboratory techniques for the isolation, identification, and cultivation of microorganisms, fostering an understanding of both theoretical concepts and practical skills essential for further studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 8th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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25 Chapters
1645 Verified Questions
1645 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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67 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria have been used to help produce or modify food products
A)for several thousand years.
B)since the Middle Ages.
C)since the late 1800s.
D)since the 1950s.
Answer: A
Q2) Bacteria and eukarya both contain membrane-bound organelles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Viroids
A)are naked (lacking a protein shell)pieces of RNA.
B)are naked (lacking a protein shell)pieces of DNA.
C)are known to cause neurodegenerative diseases in animals.
D)are composed of protein encasing DNA.
E)are known to cause neurodegenerative diseases in animals AND are composed of protein encasing DNA.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids are polar,hydrophilic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) If electrons are shared unequally,this forms a(n)
A)weak bond.
B)non-polar bond.
C)polar bond.
D)ionic bond.
Answer: C
Q3) The N terminal in a protein
A)is the end characterized by a free carboxyl group.
B)is the end characterized by a free amino group.
C)is typically found in the middle of a protein.
D)refers to that area of a protein that is bound to another protein.
Answer: B
Q4) Unsaturated fats have lower melting points than saturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new drug is developed that targets and binds to the lipid A portion of LPS from Gram-negative bacterial cells.This drug shows a high degree of activity and binding in a test tube setting against purified lipid A.Based on this information,
A)we should fast track this drug and get it out to physicians immediately to help prevent toxic/septic shock in humans.
B)we should do some animal testing with whole Gram-negative cells and the drug before we jump to any conclusions.
C)we should next proceed by moving to testing in a test tube using whole Gram-negative cells to see if it binds with the same strength.
D)we should abandon the drug entirely.Binding to lipid A won't kill the bacteria,so the drug is useless to develop further.It wouldn't help humans who have septic shock at all.
Answer: C
Q2) Prokaryotes may ingest particles via phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the bacterial growth curve does the total number of viable cells decline?
A)Stationary
B)Lag
C)Exponential D)Death
Q2) A single bacterial cell may multiply to form a visible colony.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In nature,bacteria
A)often grow in close association with many other kinds of organisms.
B)may remain in a prolonged exponential phase.
C)frequently synthesize structures such as slime layers.
D)may adhere to surfaces by means of pili and slime layers.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Prokaryotes are the only organisms able to use atmospheric nitrogen as a nitrogen source.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon treatment with heat or chemicals,bacteria will
A)all die immediately.
B)die at a constant proportion.
C)die at an exponential rate.
D)die at a geometric rate.
Q2) Microwaves do not kill organisms directly but kill by
A)the heat they generate in a product.
B)generating free radicals.
C)generating toxins.
D)creating thymine dimers.
Q3) Silver sulfadiazine,a combination of silver and a sulfa drug,is used to A)disinfect water for drinking.
B)prevent infection of surgical wounds.
C)prevent infection of second- and third-degree burns.
D)counteract lead poisoning.
E)treat bites from werewolves.
Q4) Cold and freezing are very effective in killing bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy is defined as
A)water flowing up a dam.
B)the capacity to do work.
C)the use of high-level phosphate bonds.
D)the potential to fall.
Q2) What happens to the carbon molecules in the pyruvic acid that goes through the TCA cycle?
A)They get incorporated into cell material.
B)They are excreted as waste organic acids.
C)They become carbon dioxide.
D)They form "energy storage molecules" and are stored by the cell.
Q3) H<sub>2</sub>S and NH<sub>3</sub> may be used by some prokaryotes as energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the phototrophic production of energy,the oxygen originates from A)carbon dioxide.
B)water.
C)glucose.
D)hydrogen peroxide.
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lac operon
A)is an example of negative control.
B)is affected by catabolite repression.
C)produces lactose.
D)is an example of a regulon.
E)is an example of negative control AND is affected by catabolite repression.
Q2) Negative control means a regulator molecule is
A)bound and transcription starts.
B)removed and transcription is inhibited.
C)bound and transcription is inhibited.
D)removed and transcription starts.
E)bound and transcription is inhibited AND removed and transcription starts.
Q3) Repressors
A)are involved in negative control.
B)are involved in positive control.
C)always bind to the promoter.
D)bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).
E)are involved in negative control AND bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is A)transformation.
B)competency.
C)conjugation.
D)functional genomics.
Q2) The largest group of chemical mutagens consists of A)radiation.
B)base analogs.
C)nitrous acid.
D)alkylating agents.
Q3) The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called A)ellipsis.
B)replica plating.
C)transformation.
D)transduction.
E)conjugation.
Q4) DNA polymerase is able to proofread the DNA sequence. A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starting with a single piece of dsDNA,after 3 PCR cycles there are
A)2 additional pieces of dsDNA.
B)4 additional pieces of dsDNA.
C)8 additional pieces of dsDNA.
D)16 additional pieces of dsDNA.
Q2) Vectors must have at least one restriction enzyme recognition site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Short tandem repeats (STRs)
A)are useful in identifying specific individuals.
B)are important sites in vectors where foreign DNA can be integrated.
C)are errors that can arise during DNA sequencing.
D)are DNA fragments generated during PCR.
Q4) The molecule(s)that act as molecular glue to bind DNA fragments together is/are A)DNAse.
B)DNA ligase.
C)ligandase.
D)polymerase.
E)DNAse AND ligandase.
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might it be easier to determine the bacterium that caused pneumonia than one that caused a wound infection?
A)There are very few microorganisms that can cause pneumonia,while there are many that can cause wound infections.
B)Bacteria that cause pneumonia can be identified with few tests.Many bacteria are normally found on the skin and may be in the wound complicationg indentification of the pathogen.
C)We have much better tests for bacteria in the lungs than we do in wounds.
D)The techniques of 16S rRNA sequencing are easier to perform on a sample taken from the lungs than a sample taken from a wound.
Q2) Phage typing
A)is useful for determining eukaryotic cell types.
B)is used to extract DNA from cells.
C)is used to distinguish bacterial strains.
D)is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell.
E)is used to distinguish bacterial strains AND is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell.
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy)?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Mycobacterium avium
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Mycobacterium smegmatis
Q2) Organisms that typically produce colonies with a fried egg appearance are the A)Mycoplasma.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Chlamydia.
D)Mycobacteria.
Q3) Members of the Archaea typically thrive in conditions of excessive A)heat. B)acidity.
C)alkalinity.
D)salinity.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Streptomyces produce a number of antibiotics. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi are often capable of locomotion through the use of flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Haustoria
A)are a form of parasitic protozoan.
B)refers to the reproductive structure formed by slime molds.
C)are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi.
D)are the reproductive form of protozoans.
Q3) Fungal spores are a major cause of
A)anaerobic disease.
B)fermentation.
C)food spoilage.
D)asthma.
Q4) Fungi are classified according to their A)mode of locomotion.
B)morphology.
C)mode of nutrition.
D)method of sexual reproduction.
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The approximate viral concentration of a sample may be determined by A)quantal assay.
B)endpoint assay.
C)the titer.
D)the lysate assay.
Q2) All viruses must separate the nucleic acid from the capsid before replication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The protein coat of a virus
A)is called a capsomere.
B)is called a capsid.
C)protects the nucleic acid.
D)is involved in the recognition of host cell receptors by non-enveloped viruses.
E)is called a capsid,protects the nucleic acid,AND is involved in the recognition of host cell receptors by non-enveloped viruses.
Q4) Filamentous virus is incapable of causing a lytic infection.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about interferon is incorrect?
A)It only works on a few specific types of virus.
B)It makes cells resistant to viral infection.
C)It is a species specific molecule.
D)It does not directly inactivate viruses.
Q2) The leukocyte that contains histamine is the A)lymphocyte.
B)monocyte.
C)macrophage.
D)basophil.
Q3) The four cardinal signs of inflammation are:
A)Flare,wheals,fever,cough
B)Rash,pus,heat,rubor
C)Heat,pain,vesicles,fever
D)Redness,heat,swelling,pain
Q4) The cells primarily involved in all immune responses are the A)erythrocytes.
B)platelets.
C)osteocytes.
D)leukocytes.
16
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are ______ classes of antibody.
A)one
B)three
C)five
D)seven
Q3) T-independent antigens
A)include polysaccharides.
B)require the involvement of T cells.
C)interact with MHCI molecules.
D)are usually proteins.
E)include polysaccharides AND are usually proteins.
Q4) Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Typically,adhesins
A)are found on pili.
B)help bacteria attach to host cells.
C)are proteins.
D)are found on host cells.
E)are found on pili,help bacteria attach to host cells,AND are proteins.
Q3) The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the A)infectious dose.
B)fatal number.
C)minimum lethal dose.
D)pathogenic number.
Q4) Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?
A)Edhesins
B)Capsules
C)Endotoxins
D)Proteases
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-Rh antibodies may not cross the placenta.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation?
A)Amphotericin B and cephalosporin
B)Amphotericin B and cyclosporin A
C)Amphotericin B and tacrolimus
D)Cephalosporin and tacrolimus
E)Cyclosporin A and tacrolimus
Q3) During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction,the mast cells
A)become phagocytic.
B)release IgE antibodies.
C)degranulate.
D)immediately release histamine.
E)degranulate AND immediately release histamine.
Q4) Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monoclonal antibodies
A)are usually of different classes.
B)usually recognize several epitopes.
C)have the same variable regions.
D)are always IgE.
Q2) Agglutination tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by A)bacteria.
B)hormones.
C)fungi.
D)viruses.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following tests allows the separation of cells according to their sizes,densities,and surface markers tagged by specific fluorescent antibodies?
A)Western blot
B)ELISA
C)Fluorescence-activated cell sorter
D)FA test on a microscope slide
Q4) Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cluster of cases in a specific population occurring in a brief period of time is called a(n)
A)endemic.
B)pandemic.
C)outbreak.
D)attack break.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a political/societal reason for a decrease in rates of childhood immunizations?
A)Distrust of the healthcare body administering the vaccinations
B)Distrust of the government funding the vaccination process
C)A lack of a proper "cold chain" for stable transport of vaccines into tropical areas
D)Distrust of the scientific community advocating for administration of vaccines
Q3) Cross-sectional surveys are very useful in establishing cause of a disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fly may serve as a mechanical vector.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs that are bacteriostatic
A)kill bacteria.
B)promote bacterial growth.
C)inactivate bacterial spores.
D)inhibit the growth of bacteria.
Q3) Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce
A)penicillin.
B)sulfanilamide.
C)erythromycin.
D)Salvarsan.
Q4) Fluoroquinolones typically target
A)ribosomes.
B)penicillin-binding proteins.
C)peptidoglycan.
D)DNA gyrase.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although unusually resistant to many control factors,the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by
A)strong acids.
B)disinfectants.
C)pasteurization.
D)strong alkalis.
Q2) A vaccine is available for protection from pneumococcal pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The resistance of Klebsiella to antibiotics may be
A)chromosomal mediated.
B)plasmid mediated.
C)lysosomal mediated.
D)capsule mediated.
E)chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated.
Q4) Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal microbiota and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are A)staphylococci.
B)diptheroids.
C)Candida spp.
D)Malassezia spp.
Q2) The childhood disease that damages the body defenses and is frequently complicated by secondary infections involving,primarily,Gram-positive cocci is A)German measles.
B)measles.
C)mumps.
D)chickenpox.
Q3) Warts are caused by A)papillomavirus.
B)parvovirus.
C)adenoviruses. D)herpes virus.
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bites by little children typically cause few problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wound infections may result in A)delayed healing.
B)abscess formation.
C)extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.
D)aerobic conditions.
E)delayed healing,abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.
Q3) Factor(s)not found in abscesses is/are A)pus.
B)dead leukocytes.
C)tissue remnants.
D)blood vessels.
Q4) All staphylococci are coagulase positive.
A)True
B)False
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal cause of dental caries is A)S.mutans.
B)S.salivarius.
C)S.mitis.
D)S.sanguis.
Q2) The primary treatment for cholera is A)the administration of antibiotics.
B)vaccination.
C)by blood transfusion.
D)simply rehydration.
E)vaccination AND by blood transfusion.
Q3) Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries. A)True B)False
Q4) Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by A)herpes.
B)hepatitis
C)Norovirus.
D)rotavirus.
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both malaria and yellow fever are transmitted by mosquitoes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Yersinia pestis typically contains
A)one plasmid.
B)two plasmids.
C)three plasmids.
D)four plasmids.
Q3) Brucellosis may also be known as
A)Bang's disease.
B)undulant fever.
C)Hansen's disease.
D)rabbit fever.
E)Bang's disease AND undulant fever.
Q4) Both Francisella tularensis and Brucella melitensis are able to survive phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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