General Microbiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, classification, and diversity of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course explores microbial genetics, physiology, metabolism, and the ecological roles of microorganisms in the environment. Emphasis is placed on the impact of microbes on human health, industry, and biotechnology, as well as on laboratory techniques for culturing, identifying, and handling microorganisms safely. Through lectures and practical lab sessions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of microbial life and its significance in various biological processes.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 8th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The term sterile means free of all life forms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering.01.04 Describe the cellular make up of microorganisms, their size range, and indicate how viruses differ from cellular microbes.
Answer: Viruses
Q4) During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Q1) Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out?
A) 0.4 grams
B) 4. grams
C) 40 grams
D) 400 grams
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it?
A)fluorescence
B)differential interference contrast
C)scanning electron
D)transmission electron
E)phase-contrast
Answer: C
Q4) _____ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. Answer: subculture
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetosomes are
A)infoldings of the cell membrane.
B)termed metachromatic granules.
C)responsible for the heat resistance of endospores.
D)composed of magnetic iron oxide particles.
E)found in all bacteria.
Q2) A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is
A)Mycobacterium.
B)Mycoplasma.
C)Streptococcus.
D)Corynebacterium.
E)Salmonella.
Q3) The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is
A)more peptidoglycan.
B)predominance of unique, waxy lipids.
C)easily decolorized.
D)presence of lipopolysaccharide.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) Protists include A)yeasts and molds. B)algae and protozoa. C)helminths.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Filamentous fungi are called A)pseudohyphae. B)septa. C)molds.
D)dimorphic.
E)mycelium.
Q3) The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A)mitochondria. B)lysosomes.
C)Golgi apparatus. D)chloroplasts.
E)endoplasmic reticulum.
Q4) The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called _____.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
Q2) The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A)lysogeny. B)budding. C)plaques. D)cytopathic effects. E)pocks.
Q3) Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. A)True B)False
Q4) Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.
Q5) Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Q1) Organisms depending on each for survival through time is coevoluion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the:
A)binary fission.
B)growth curve.
C)generation time.
D)death phase.
E)culture time.
Q3) The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
A)facilitated diffusion.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)endocytosis.
Q4) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed _____.
Q5) The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes: _____ and _____.
9
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called:
A)phosphotransferases.
B)oxidoreductases.
C)decarboxylases.
D)aminotransferases. E)ligases.
Q2) Enzymes that are regularly found in a cell are termed: A)exoenzymes.
B)endoenzymes.
C)constitutive enzymes.
D)induced enzymes.
E)conjugated enzymes.
Q3) All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called: A)catabolism.
B)redox reactions.
C)phosphorylation. D)metabolism.
E)cellular respiration.
Q4) Metabolic pathways that are bidirectional are called _____ pathways.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The non-transcribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A)promoter.
B)operator.
C)operon.
D)exon.
E)intron.
Q2) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
A)histone proteins.
B)chromosomes in a nucleus.
C)several to many chromosomes.
D)elongated, not circular, chromosomes.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A)point mutation.
B)silent mutation.
C)back mutation.
D)missense mutation.
E)nonsense mutation.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Q1) In recombinant DNA technique, an enzyme called _____ is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes.
Q2) In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA, A)target DNA is removed from cells and isolated.
B)cloning host is treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid.
C)target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease.
D)desired protein is produced by cloning host.
E)gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host.
Q3) Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q5) Some genes in bacteria are repressed by antisense RNA that binds to them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Q1) Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to:
A)dessication.
B)ultraviolet light.
C)ethyl alcohol.
D)hydrogen peroxide.
E)gamma rays and X rays.
Q2) Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?
A)Detergents
B)Ultraviolet light
C)Alcohol
D)Hydrogen peroxide
E)Crystal violet
Q3) _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.
Q4) Endospores can be killed by:
A)dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours.
B)incineration.
C)glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours.
D)ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Q1) Acyclovir is used to treat A)influenza A virus.
B)HIV.
C)shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
E)hepatitis C virus.
Q2) Salvarsan was
A)discovered in the mid-1900's.
B)used to treat syphilis.
C)formulated from the red dye prontosil.
D)first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum.
E)discovered by Robert Koch.
Q3) Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone kills viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.
Q5) Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
Q6) _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Q1) When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as
A)sporadic.
B)pandemic.
C)endemic.
D)epidemic.
E)chronic.
Q2) STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common A)genera of resident flora.
B)sexually transmitted diseases.
C)portals of entry.
D)vectors.
E)infections of the fetus and neonate.
Q3) The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the A)skin.
B)mouth.
C)large intestine.
D)vagina.
E)nasal passages.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Q1) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.
Q2) Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor.This means A)redness.
B)pain.
C)loss of function.
D)warmth.
E)swelling.
Q3) Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor.This means A)redness.
B)pain.
C)loss of function.
D)warmth.
E)swelling.
Q4) Describe the physical or anatomical barriers at the following body sites, and explain how they accomplish body defense: a) eyes, b) skin, c) gastrointestinal tract, d) respiratory tract, and e) urinary tract.
Q5) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toxoids
A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Plasma cells
A)secrete antibodies.
B)function in allergic reactions.
C)directly destroy target cells.
D)suppress immune reactions.
E)activate B cells and other T cells.
Q3) All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
A)they confer longer lasting protection.
B)they produce infection but not disease.
C)they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
D)they require fewer boosters.
E)they require smaller doses.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.
Q2) _____ hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in tissues.
Q3) Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in
A)serum sickness.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)anaphylaxis.
D)hemolytic disease of the newborn.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In an isograft, tissue from an identical twin is used.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except:
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react
Q2) Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients?
A)fluorescent antibody tests
B)Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C)Weil-Felix reaction
D)RIST
E)ELISA
Q3) Broad general characteristics on flowcharts can be misleading.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Q1) Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess. A)True
B)False
Q2) Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q3) The production of the enzyme _____ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus.
Q4) It is theorized that rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with patient tissues. A)True B)False
Q5) Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A)produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin.
B)has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.
C)is a spore former.
D)has a capsule.
E)lives in the soil.
Q2) Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of:
A)Clostridium botulinum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium difficile.
D)Clostridium tetani.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Hyperbaric treatment involves putting patients in a chamber that has a higher amount of _____.
Q4) When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.
Q5) The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed _____.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Escherichia coli infections
A)are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
B)include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.
C)involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D)can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Legionellosis is a zoonosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is incorrect about pertussis?
A)A virulence factor of B.pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced.
B)The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets.
C)The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing.
D)The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976.
E)It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies.
Q4) A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Cholera symptoms are
A)copious watery diarrhea.
B)loss of blood volume.
C)acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst.
D)hypotension, tachycardia, shock.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
A)It has birds as a reservoir.
B)It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia.
C)Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache.
D)After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache.
E)Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall.
Q3) The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with A)Lyme disease.
B)leptospirosis.
C)chlamydiosis.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)tertiary syphilis.
Q4) The two bacterial genera of obligate parasites are _____ and _____.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:
A)Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
B)Fusarium species
C)Rhizopus species
D)Geotrichum candidum
E)Aspergillus flavis
Q2) Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include
A)it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano.
B)it is a yeast with a capsule.
C)it is a dermatophyte.
D)it grows in dry, arid soil.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor?
A)It is a superficial mycosis.
B)It is often transmitted by fomites.
C)It is caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur.
D)It causes disruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance.
E)It occasionally causes systemic infections in compromised patients.
Q4) Dermatophytes digest the protein _____, found in the skin, hair, and nails.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Write a brief definition of a parasite and parasitology giving specific examples of a fungus, protozoan, and helminth.
Q2) Which of the following relationships is mismatched?
A)T.brucei gambiense and Gambian sleeping sickness
B)T.b.rhodesiense and Gambian sleeping sickness
C)Tsetse fly and African Sleeping sickness
D)Teania solium and swine
Q3) Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) River blindness is
A)caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
B)a disease in which worms can invade the eyes.
C)caused by a blood fluke.
D)transmitted by mosquito vector.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Which is incorrect about viral diseases?
A)Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells.
B)Viral diseases can be zoonoses.
C)Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm.
D)Some viruses are teratogenic.
E)Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.
Q2) All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions?
A)HCV
B)EBV
C)HSV-2
D)VZV
E)HPV
Q4) The oral cavity infection called _____ occurs when herpetic vesicles cover the oral mucosa, tongue, cheeks, and lips.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Norwalk agent is
A)a calicivirus.
B)transmitted orofecally.
C)sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish.
D)a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect regarding coronaviruses?
A)One type can cause the common cold.
B)One type can cause SARS.
C)They are common animal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry.
D)There are no tests to confirm diagnosis.
E)There is no specific treatment other than supportive care.
Q3) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
Q4) West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except:
A)causes hemorrhagic fever
B)is an arbovirus
C)transmitted by a mosquito vector
D)typically is a flu-like illness
E)severe encephalitis occurs in less than 1% of infected persons
Q5) The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Bacteria can function in all the following roles in an ecosystem, except as a A)primary producer.
B)consumer.
C)decomposer.
D)parasite.
E)Bacteria can function in all the roles listed.
Q2) Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called A)decomposition.
B)synergism.
C)mineralization.
D)bioremediation.
E)recycling.
Q4) Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation.
Q5) Describe the carbon cycle from the atmosphere to the primary producers and back again.
Page 29
Q6) An _____ is the term for a deep groundwater source.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as _________ processing.
Q2) The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is
A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
B)Leuconostoc mesenteroides.
C)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus.
D)Propionibacterium.
E)Spirulina.
Q3) A _____ is a device used for growing mass cultures.
Q4) Rennin is added to cheese to give it flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________ protein can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products to be used as a food.
Q6) Freshly fermented beer is lagered, meaning it is treated with potassium metabisulfate.
A)True B)False
Q7) A food _____ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.
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