General Chemistry Test Questions - 1479 Verified Questions

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General Chemistry

Test Questions

Course Introduction

General Chemistry provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles that govern chemical phenomena. The course covers essential topics such as atomic structure, periodic trends, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, thermochemistry, chemical equilibrium, acids and bases, and basic thermodynamics. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving exercises, students gain both theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary for further studies in chemistry and related scientific fields.

Recommended Textbook

Organic Chemistry

4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski

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Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding

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Q1) What is the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in the ammonium cation, NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>?

A) sp<sup>3</sup>

B) sp<sup>2</sup>

C) sp

D) p

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following molecules has nonpolar covalent bonds?

A) HCl

B) N<sub>2</sub>

C) CHCl<sub>3</sub>

D) NO

Answer: B

Q3) Which atomic orbitals overlap to form the C-H \(\sigma\) bonding molecular orbitals of acetylene, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>?

A) Csp + H1s

B) C2p +H1s

C) Csp<sup>3</sup> + H1s

D) Csp<sup>2</sup> + H1s

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Acids and Bases

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Q1) Which of the following statements about Brønsted-Lowry acids and bases is true?

A) Loss of a proton from a base forms its conjugate acid.

B) Loss of a proton from an acid forms its conjugate base.

C) Gain of a proton by an acid forms its conjugate base.

D) Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reactions always result in the transfer of a proton from a base to an acid.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following statements explain why H<sub>2</sub>O is a stronger acid than CH<sub>4</sub>?

A) H<sub>2</sub>O can form hydrogen bonds while CH<sub>4</sub> cannot.

B) H<sub>2</sub>O forms a less stable conjugate base, HO<sup>-</sup>.

C) CH<sub>4</sub> forms a more stable conjugate base, CH<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>.

D) H<sub>2</sub>O forms a more stable conjugate base, HO<sup>-</sup>.

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups

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Q1) Which of the following molecules contain the same functional groups? \[\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 }

\mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OCH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } ( \mathrm { OH } ) \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 }\]

\[\mathrm { I }\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\mathrm { II

}\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\mathrm { III

}\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\mathrm { IV }\]

A) I, II, III

B) I, II, IV

C) II, III, IV

D) I, III, IV

Answer: D

Q2) Why do heteroatoms confer reactivity on a particular molecule?

A) Because they have lone pairs and create electron-rich sites on carbon.

B) Because they have lone pairs and create electron-deficient sites on carbon.

C) Because they are electronegative and act as electrophiles.

D) Because they are electropositive and act as nucleophiles.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Alkanes

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Q1) How many constitutional isomers are there with the molecular formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Q2) Which of the following compounds has only primary, secondary and quaternary carbon atoms?

A) Pentane

B) 2-Methylpentane

C) 2,2-Dimethylpentane

D) 2,2,3-Trimethylpentane

Q3) Which of the following statements about alkanes is true?

A) Alkanes are aliphatic hydrocarbons having only C-C and C-H \(\pi\) bonds.

B) Cyclic alkanes have two fewer H atoms than acyclic alkanes with the same number of carbons.

C) Acyclic alkanes contain carbons joined in one or more rings.

D) Acyclic alkanes have general molecular formula C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>.

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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry

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Q1) Which of the following statements about stereoisomers is not true?

A) Stereoisomers have identical IUPAC names except for a prefix like cis or trans.

B) Stereoisomers differ in configuration.

C) Stereoisomers always have the same functional groups.

D) Stereoisomers differ only in their structural formula.

Q2) How many isomers (constitutional and stereoisomers) exist for dimethylcyclobutane?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

Q3) If a mixture has an ee of 90%, what is the percentage of each enantiomer?

A) 65% : 35%

B) 55% : 45%

C) 80% : 20%

D) 95% : 5%

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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about bond breaking is true?

A) Homolysis and heterolysis require energy.

B) In homolysis, the electrons in the bond are divided unequally.

C) In heterolysis, the electrons in the bond are divided equally.

D) Homolysis generates charged intermediates.

Q2) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Ionic intermediates are formed in radical reactions.

B) Radicals are intermediates in polar reactions.

C) Carbocations are electrophiles.

D) Radicals are nucleophiles.

Q3) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The size of the activation energy tells us about the reaction mechanism.

B) The size of the activation energy tells us about the reaction rate.

C) A slow reaction has low activation energy.

D) A fast reaction has large activation energy.

Q4) Which of the K<sub>eq</sub> corresponds to the highest value of \(\Delta\)G°?

A) K<sub>eq</sub> = 10<sup>-1</sup>

B) K<sub>eq</sub> = 10<sup>-2</sup>

C) K<sub>eq</sub> = 10<sup>-3</sup>

D) K<sub>eq</sub> = 10<sup>-5</sup>

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the Hammond postulate is not true?

A) The Hammond postulate provides a quantitative estimate of the energy of a transition state.

B) In endothermic reactions, the transition state is closer in energy to the products.

C) In exothermic reactions, the transition state is closer in energy to the reactants.

D) The Hammond postulate provides a qualitative estimate of the energy of a transition state.

Q2) Which of the following solvents is not a polar protic solvent? \[\begin{array} { c c c c }

\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CN } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { COOH } & \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { O } \\ \text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }

\end{array}\]

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is true?

A) All bonds are broken and formed in multiple steps.

B) The reaction is not concerted.

C) Entropy favors the reactants of an E2 reaction.

D) Entropy favors the products of an E2 reaction.

Q2) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is true?

A) The identity of the leaving group affects the rate of reaction.

B) The reaction follows second-order kinetics.

C) The reaction is slowest with tertiary substrates.

D) Polar aprotic solvents favor the E1 mechanism.

Q3) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?

A) The reaction is fastest with tertiary alkyl halides.

B) A better leaving group makes the reaction rate increase.

C) The reaction follows first-order kinetics.

D) Stronger bases favor the E1 reaction.

Q4) Which of the following represents the rate law for an E2 reaction?

A) Rate = k[alkyl halide]

B) Rate = k[alkyl halide][base]

C) Rate = k[alkyl halide]<sup>2</sup>

D) Rate = k[base]<sup>2</sup>

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides

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Q1) What is the IUPAC of the following compound? (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>COH

A) 2-Ethyl-2-pentanol

B) 2-Ethyl-3-pentanol

C) 3-Ethyl-3-pentanol

D) 2,2-Diethyl-1-butanol

Q2) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?

A) Bromobenzene and sodium methoxide.

B) Phenol and sodium methoxide.

C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane.

D) Sodium phenoxide and bromomethane.

Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of methyl phenyl ether with excess HBr?

A) Phenol and bromomethane

B) Phenol and methanol

C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane

D) Bromobenzene and methanol

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Chapter 10: Alkenes

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Q1) Which of the following reactions of alkenes takes place with anti stereochemistry only?

A) Addition of HBr

B) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O in the presence of H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

C) Addition of BH<sub>3</sub> followed by H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>/HO<sup>-</sup>

D) Addition of Br<sub>2</sub>

Q2) Which of the following statements about hydroboration/oxidation of alkenes is true?

A) In hydroboration, the boron atom bonds to the more substituted carbon.

B) Hydroboration occurs with anti addition.

C) Oxidation occurs with retention of configuration.

D) 9-BBN does not undergo hydroboration in the same manner as BH<sub>3</sub>.

Q3) Rearrangements can occur in which of the following reactions?

A) Addition of Cl<sub>2</sub> to an alkene.

B) Addition of HOBr to an alkene.

C) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O/H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> to an alkene.

D) None of the above.

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Chapter 11: Alkynes

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Q1) How many \(\sigma\) bonds and \(\pi\) bonds are present in a triple bond?

A) One \(\sigma\) bond and one \(\pi\) bond.

B) One \(\sigma\) bond and two \(\pi\) bonds.

C) Two \(\sigma\) bonds and one \(\pi\) bond.

D) Two \(\sigma\) bonds and two \(\pi\) bonds.

Q2) Which of the following statements about the reactions of alkynes is not true?

A) Alkynes contain easily broken \(\pi\) bonds.

B) Alkynes undergo addition reactions.

C) When alkynes undergo two sequential addition reactions, four new \(\sigma\) bonds are formed.

D) When alkynes undergo two sequential addition reactions, two new \(\sigma\)bonds and a \(\pi\) bond are formed.

Q3) Which of the following statements about tautomers is true?

A) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a hydrogen atom.

B) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a carbon atom.

C) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a hydrogen atom.

D) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a carbon atom.

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Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction

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Q1) A compound X of molecular formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>12</sub> with no triple bonds reacts with one equivalent of H<sub>2</sub> to give a new compound having molecular formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>14</sub>. What can be inferred about the structure of compound X?

A) Compound X has 3 rings.

B) Compound X has 3 \(\pi\) bonds.

C) Compound X has 1 ring and 2 \(\pi\) bonds.

D) Compound X has 2 rings and 1 \(\pi\) bond.

Q2) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH<sub>4</sub> is true?

A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H<sup>-</sup>).

B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H<sup>-</sup> occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.

C) The reaction follows S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.

D) The nucleophile, H<sup>-</sup>, is a weak nucleophile.

Q3) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?

A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.

B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.

C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.

D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.

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Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy

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Q1) Why does an alkyne carbon-carbon triple bond vibrate at a higher wavenumber than an alkene carbon-carbon double bond?

A) It is stronger.

B) It is weaker.

C) It has fewer hydrogens.

D) It makes a less stable cation.

Q2) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has molecular ion peaks in its mass spectrum at mass 170 and 172, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3150-3000 and 1600 cm<sup>-1</sup>?

A) The compound is not pure.

B) The compound contains a halogen.

C) The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds.

D) Both A (The compound is not pure) and B (The compound contains a halogen) are true statements.

E) Both A (The compound is not pure) and C (The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.

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Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

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Q1) Which of the following spectroscopy methods does not involve the interaction of organic molecules with electromagnetic radiation?

A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

B) Infrared spectroscopy

C) Mass spectroscopy

D) Ultraviolet spectroscopy

Q2) Which of the following statements about <sup>13</sup>C NMR is not true?

A) "In <sup>13</sup>C proton-decoupled NMR spectra, all peaks are singlets."

B) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR spectra display peaks for only carbons that bear hydrogen atoms."

C) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR chemical shifts occur over a greater range than <sup>1</sup>H NMR chemical shifts."

D) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR easily differentiates between the different hybridized carbons (sp<sup>3</sup>, sp<sup>2</sup> and sp hybridized carbons)."

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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about chlorination and bromination is true?

A) Bromination is unselective, yielding a mixture of products.

B) Chlorination is often selective, yielding one major product.

C) Chlorination is faster than bromination.

D) Bromination is faster than chlorination.

Q2) Which of the following is a radical scavenger?

A) O<sub>3</sub>

B) O<sub>2</sub>

C) Vitamin C

D) CO<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Which of the following statements about radicals is true?

A) Cleavage of a stronger bond forms the more stable radical.

B) The stability of a radical increases as the number of alkyl groups bonded to the radical carbon decreases.

C) The higher the bond dissociation energy for a C-H bond, the more stable the resulting carbon radical.

D) Less stable radicals generally do not rearrange to more stable radicals.

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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes

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Q1) What is the thermodynamic product obtained from the addition of 1 equivalent of HBr to 1,3-butadiene?

A) 3-Bromo-1-butene

B) 1-Bromo-2-butene

C) 2-Bromo-2-butene

D) 2-Bromo-1-butene

Q2) What is the definition of a resonance structure?

A) Compounds with the same molecular formula

B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks

C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons

D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds

Q3) What is the reactive intermediate in the reaction of 1,3-diene with HBr, resulting in 1,4-addition?

A) Allylic radical

B) Cyclic bromonium ion

C) Dienophile

D) Allylic carbocation

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18

Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds

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Q1) Which of the following statements about the molecular orbital (MO) theory is true?

A) When two p orbitals of similar phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is formed.

B) When two p orbitals of opposite phase overlap side-by-side, a \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is formed.

C) A \(\pi\) bonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.

D) A \(\pi\)* antibonding molecular orbital is higher in energy than the two atomic p orbitals from which it is formed.

Q2) Where do the protons in benzene appear in the <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectrum?

A) Around 1600 cm<sup>-1</sup>

B) Around 120 ppm

C) Around 0 ppm

D) Around 7 ppm

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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution

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Q1) Which of the following substituents are activators in electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) CH<sub>3</sub>O -

B) Cl -

C) NO<sub>2 </sub>-

D) HSO<sub>3</sub> -

Q2) What is the first step in the general mechanism for electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) Protonation of the aromatic ring

B) Deprotonation of the aromatic ring

C) Addition of the electrophile to the aromatic ring

D) Loss of the electrophile from the aromatic ring

Q3) What is the driving force for losing a proton as the last step in electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) To neutralize the base that is present

B) To make room for the electrophile

C) To make the ring more reactive

D) To rearomatize the ring system

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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H

Bond

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Q1) What would happen if a mixture of benzoic acid and cyclohexanol dissolved in CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> is treated with aqueous NaOH solution?

A) Benzoic acid would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer, and cyclohexanol would dissolve in the aqueous layer.

B) Benzoic acid would dissolve in the aqueous layer while cyclohexanol would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer.

C) The salt of benzoic acid would dissolve in the aqueous layer while cyclohexanol would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer.

D) The salt of benzoic acid would remain in the CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> layer while cyclohexanol would dissolve in the aqueous layer.

Q2) Why is pure acetic acid often called glacial acetic acid?

A) Because it freezes just below 0°C, forming white crystals.

B) Because it freezes just below 100°C, forming white crystals.

C) Because it freezes just below room temperature, forming white crystals.

D) Because it freezes just above room temperature, forming white crystals.

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21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;

Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction

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Q1) What is the name of the general reaction type that carboxylic acids, esters, and amides undergo?

A) Electrophilic acyl addition

B) Nucleophilic acyl addition

C) Nucleophilic acyl substitution

D) Electrophilic acyl substitution

Q2) Which reagent can be used to reduce an acid chloride to an aldehyde?

A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>

B) LiAlH(OtBu)<sub>3</sub>

C) LiAlH<sub>4</sub>

D) FeCl<sub>3</sub>

Q3) Why are ketones less reactive than aldehydes?

A) Ketones are more sterically hindered.

B) Ketones are less electron deficient due to donation from the two alkyl groups.

C) The statement is false; Ketones are more reactive than aldehydes.

D) Both (a) Ketones are more sterically hindered and (b) Ketones are less electron deficient due to donation from the two alkyl groups.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition

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Q1) Why can't you use acidic conditions (such as aqueous hydrochloric acid) for the addition of a Grignard reagent to a ketone?

A) Because the Grignard reagent will react with the acid and be quenched.

B) Because the ketone will be protonated and thus unreactive.

C) Because the ketone will form an unreactive enol.

D) Because the Grignard reagent won't dissolve in aqueous solutions.

Q2) When an aldehyde is reacted with excess ethanol with an acid as a catalyst, what is the product called?

A) Hemiacetal

B) Di-ether

C) Di-alkoxy alkane

D) Acetal

Q3) Identify how you could synthesize an enamine.

A) React a ketone or an aldehyde with a secondary amine.

B) React a ketone or an aldehyde with a primary amine.

C) React a ylide with a primary amine.

D) React a ylide with a secondary amine.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives

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Q1) What is the direct product of the base-promoted hydrolysis of an ester?

A) A nitrile

B) A carboxylic acid

C) An amide

D) A carboxylic acid salt

Q2) How can you convert a carboxylic acid into an acid chloride?

A) Heat with hydrochloric acid

B) React with thionyl chloride (SOCl<sub>2</sub>)

C) React with sodium chloride

D) React with Cl<sub>2</sub> and FeCl<sub>3</sub>

Q3) Where is the carbonyl absorption found in the IR spectrum of a simple ester?

A) 2.5 ppm

B) 2250 cm<sup>-1</sup>

C) 3800 cm<sup>-1</sup>

D) 1740 cm<sup>-1</sup>

Q4) Why doesn't nucleophilic acyl substitution stop at the tetrahedral intermediate?

A) The nucleophile is too basic.

B) Reforming the carbonyl is energetically favorable.

C) The leaving group is unstable and wants to be negatively charged.

D) There is no tetrahedral intermediate.

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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl

Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon

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Q1) What are the three steps in the malonic ester synthesis?

A) Deprotonation, alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation

B) Hydrogenation, alkylation, deprotonation

C) Alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation. hydrogenation

D) Hydrolysis/decarboxylation, deprotonation, alkylation

Q2) Why is the enolate of acetone less basic than the allyl anion derived from propene?

A) Because there are more atoms in acetone

B) Because there are more resonance structures for the enolate of acetone

C) It isn't; the allyl anion is less basic.

D) One of the resonance structures for the enolate places the negative charge on the more electronegative oxygen.

Q3) Which of the following is the intermediate for halogenation of ketones under acidic conditions?

A) An enolate

B) An enol

C) A tautomer

D) An epimer

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions

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Q1) In what situation can the yield of a single crossed Aldol product be increased?

A) The electrophilic carbonyl component is relatively unhindered and is used in excess.

B) The electrophilic carbonyl carbon component is relatively hindered and is used in limited amount.

C) The nucleophilic carbonyl component is relatively unhindered and is used in excess.

D) The nucleophilic carbonyl component is relatively hindered and is used in limited amount.

Q2) What is the general name of the product of a crossed Claisen reaction between a ketone and an ester?

A) "\(\beta\)-keto ester"

B) "\(\alpha\),\(\beta\)-dicarbonyl compound"

C) "\(\gamma\)-dicarbonyl compound"

D) "\(\beta\)-dicarbonyl compound"

Q3) What reaction type is an Aldol reaction?

A) nucleophilic substitution

B) electrophilic substitution

C) electrophilic addition

D) nucleophilic addition

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Chapter 25: Amines

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Q1) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?

A) 90°

B) 109.5°

C) 120°

D) 180°

Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides cannot be used to prepare primary amines by the Gabriel synthesis?

A) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

B) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane

C) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane

D) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane

Q3) What is the name given to naturally occurring amines derived from plant sources?

A) Enamines

B) Imines

C) Alkaloids

D) Alkamines

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27

Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which class of compounds listed below does not react with organocuprate reagents to form a coupling product that contains a new carbon-carbon bond?

A) 1° alkyl halides

B) 3° alkyl halides

C) vinyl halides

D) aryl halides

Q2) Choose the statement below that is not true about the Suzuki reaction.

A) The product of the Suzuki reaction is completely stereospecific.

B) The Suzuki reaction involves both an organoborane reagent and an organopalladium catalyst.

C) The Suzuki reaction forms more highly substituted alkenes.

D) The Suzuki reaction involves an oxidative addition followed by a reductive elimination.

Q3) Which of the reactions listed below is not stereospecific?

A) Suzuki reaction

B) organocuprate coupling reaction

C) Heck reaction

D) Simmons-Smith reaction

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Page 28

Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about orbital symmetry and cycloaddition reactions is true?

A) Thermal cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.

B) Thermal cycloaddition involving an odd number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.

C) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.

D) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.

Q2) What are the two modes of bond formation in cycloaddition reactions?

A) suprafacial and antarafacial bond formations.

B) superfacial and antifacial bond formations.

C) suprafacial and synfacial bond formations.

D) synfacial and antifacial bond formations.

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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates

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Q1) What is the classification of pyranose forms of monosaccharides?

A) 5-membered cyclic hemiacetals

B) 6-membered cyclic acetals

C) 5-membered cyclic acetals

D) 6-membered cyclic hemiacetals

Q2) Upon hydrolysis of amylopectin, what sugar is formed?

A) sucrose

B) maltose

C) lactose

D) glucose

Q3) Amylose is a polysaccharide with ________________________ linkages.

A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"

B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"

C) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"

D) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"

Q4) From the disaccharides listed below, which one will not undergo mutarotation?

A) sucrose

B) maltose

C) lactose

D) xylobiose

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes a peptide bond?

A) a bond between sp<sup>3</sup>-hybridized atoms only

B) a bond usually found in the s-cis conformation

C) an amide bond

D) the result of the formation of the carbonyl group of one amino acid with a R-group from the other amino acid

Q2) What are the only non-covalent bonds that stabilize the tertiary structure of a peptide?

A) hydrogen bonds

B) disulfide bonds

C) Van der Waal bonds

D) ionic bonds

Q3) Which of the following correctly describes the tertiary structure of a peptide?

A) the three-dimensional conformations of localized regions of a protein

B) the particular sequence of amino acids that are joined together by peptide bonds

C) the structure is defined by the \(\beta\)-pleated sheet form

D) the three-dimensional shape adopted by the entire peptide

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Chapter 30: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct classification of the following compound?

CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>15</sub>COOH

A) saturated triglyceride

B) simple lipid

C) wax

D) saturated fatty acid

Q2) From the statements below, pick out the one that is not correct for fat-soluble vitamins.

A) Fat-soluble vitamins are classified as lipids.

B) Fat-soluble vitamins are a group of biologically active compounds containing 20 carbon atoms.

C) Fat-soluble vitamins are required in small quantities for normal metabolism.

D) Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in fat cells for use when they are needed.

Q3) Which of the following is not one of the three main categories of hydrolyzable lipids?

A) waxes

B) steroids

C) triacylglycerols

D) phospholipids

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Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers

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Q1) In which type of polymer are the chains packed less tightly together, resulting in lower melting points and a softer texture?

A) isotactic polymers

B) syndiotactic polymers

C) atactic polymers

D) cross-linked polymers

Q2) Which type of polymerization process uses benzoyl peroxide (or other peroxides) as an initiator?

A) free-radical chain-growth

B) cationic chain-growth

C) anionic chain-growth

D) acid-catalyzed step-growth

Q3) What is the purpose of plasticizers?

A) to harden plastics

B) to soften plastics

C) to initiate polymerizations

D) to cross-link polymer chains

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33

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