General Chemistry II Test Questions - 3679 Verified Questions

Course Introduction

General Chemistry II Test Questions

General Chemistry II builds upon foundational chemistry principles introduced in the first semester, delving deeper into topics such as chemical kinetics, chemical equilibrium, acid-base chemistry, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and coordination compounds. The course emphasizes a quantitative and conceptual understanding of these concepts through problem-solving and laboratory experiments. Applications of chemistry in real-world contexts are explored, and students develop skills in critical thinking, data analysis, and scientific communication, preparing them for advanced study in chemistry and related disciplines.

Recommended Textbook Chemistry The Central Science 13th Edition by Theodore E. Brown

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24 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction: Matter and Measurement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Water is considered to be a diatomic molecule because it is composed of two different atoms.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) If an object is accelerating at a rate of 25 m/s², how long (in seconds)will it take to reach a speed of 550 m/s? (Assume an initial velocity of zero.)

A)22

B)1.4 × 10⁴

C)0.045

D)1.2 × 10⁴

E)2.3 × 10²

Answer: A

Q3) 1 milligram = ________ micrograms

Answer: 1,000

Q4) Cu is the symbol for the element ________.

Answer: Copper

Q5) Mass and volume are often referred to as ________ properties of substances. Answer: extensive

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Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

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Q1) Which formula/name pair is incorrect?

A)FeSO₄ iron(II)sulfate

B)Fe₂(SO₃)₃ iron(III)sulfite

C)FeS iron(II)sulfide

D)FeSO₃ iron(II)sulfite

E)Fe₂(SO₄)₃ iron(III)sulfide

Answer: E

Q2) Which species below is the nitrate ion?

A)NO₂^-

B)NO₃^-

C)ClO₃^-

D)ClO₄^-

E)MnO₄^-

Answer: B

Q3) What is the name of an alcohol derived from hexane? Answer: hexanol

Q4) The correct name for Na₃N is sodium azide.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Stoichiometry: Calculations With Chemical

Formulas and Equations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The combustion of propane (C₃H₈)in the presence of excess oxygen yields CO₂ and H₂O: C₃H₈ (g) + 5O₂ (g) 3CO₂ (g) + 4H₂O (g)

When 7.3 g of C₃H₈ burns in the presence of excess O₂, ________ g of CO₂ is produced.

Answer: 22

Q2) A sample of CH₂F₂ with a mass of 19 g contains ________ atoms of F.

A)2.2 × 10²³

B)38

C)3.3 × 10²⁴

D)4.4 ×10²³

E)9.5

Answer: D

Q3) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place)of C in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃).

Answer: 14.30

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Chapter 4: Aqueous Reactions and Solution Stoichiometry

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Q1) What are the respective concentrations (M)of Mg²⁺ and C₂H₃O₂^- afforded by dissolving 0.600 mol Mg(C₂H₃O₂)₂in water and diluting to 135 mL?

A)0.444 and 0.889

B)0.0444 and 0.0889

C)0..889 and 0.444

D)0.444 and 0.444

E)4.44 and 8.89

Q2) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change?

A)HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H₂O (l)

B)2Na (s) + 2H₂O (l) 2NaOH (aq) + H₂ (g)

C)CaO (s) + H₂O (l) Ca(OH)₂ (s)

D)2HClO₄ (aq) + CaCO₃ (s)

Ca(ClO₄)₂ (aq) + H₂O (l) + CO₂ (g)

E)SO₂ (g) + H₂O (l) H₂SO₃ (aq)

Q3) Ca(OH)₂ is a strong base.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The solvent in an aqueous solution is ________.

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Chapter 5: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The reaction 4Al (s) + 3O₂ (g) 2Al₂O₃<sub>

</sub>(s) H° = -3351 kJ

Is ________, and therefore heat is ________ by the reaction.

A)endothermic, released

B)endothermic, absorbed

C)exothermic, released

D)exothermic, absorbed

E)thermoneutral, neither released nor absorbed

Q2) Given the following reactions N₂ (g) + O₂ (g) 2NO (g) H =

+180.7 kJ

2NO( g) + O₂ (g) 2NO₂ (g) H = -113.1 kJ

The enthalpy for the decomposition of nitrogen dioxide into molecular nitrogen and oxygen

2NO₂ (g) N₂ (g) + 2O₂ (g) Is ________ kJ.

A)67.6

B)-67.6

C)293.8

D)-293.8

E)45.5

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Chapter 6: Electronic Structure of Atoms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following is an incorrect subshell notation?

A)4f

B)2d

C)3s

D)2p

E)3d

Q2) The wavelength of radio waves can be longer than a football field.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The element that corresponds to the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p² is ________.

A)lithium

B)beryllium

C)boron

D)nitrogen

E)carbon

Q4) The largest principal quantum number in the ground state electron configuration of francium is ________.

Q5) What wavelengths correspond to the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Periodic Properties of the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following correctly represents the second ionization of copper?

A)Cu (g) Cu⁺ (g) + e^-

B)Cu⁺ (g) Cu²⁺ (g) + e^-

C)Cu^- (g) + e^- Cu^2- (g)

D)Cu⁺ (g) + e^- Cu²⁺ (g)

E)Cu⁺ (g) + e^- Cu (g)

Q2) Oxides of the active metals combine with acid to form ________.

A)hydrogen gas

B)metal hydrides

C)water and a salt

D)oxygen gas

E)metal hydroxides

Q3) Of the following elements, ________ has the most negative electron affinity.

A)S

B)Cl

C)Se

D)Br

E)I

Q4) In their compounds, the charges on the alkali metals and the alkaline earth metals are ________ and ________, respectively.

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Chapter 8: Basic Concepts of Chemical Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Based on the octet rule, magnesium most likely forms a ________ ion.

A)Mg²⁺

B)Mg^2-

C)Mg^6-

D)Mg⁶⁺

E)Mg^-

Q2) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons?

A)Ca⁺

B)Rb⁺

C)Xe

D)Br^-

E)All of the above have eight valence electrons.

Q3) A ________ covalent bond between the same two atoms is the longest.

A)single

B)double

C)triple

D)strong

E)They are all the same length.

Q4) Alternative but equivalent Lewis structures are called ________.

Q5) Give the electron configuration of Cu²⁺.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Molecular Geometry and Bonding Theories

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Sample Questions

Q1) Molecular Orbital theory correctly predicts diamagnetism of fluorine gas, F₂. This is because ________.

A)the bond order in F₂can be shown to be equal to 1.

B)there are more electrons in the bonding orbitals than in the antibonding orbitals.

C)all electrons in the MO electron configuration of F₂ are paired.

D)the energy of the _2pMOs is higher than that of the _2pMO

E)the F-F bond enthalpy is very low

Q2) The bond order of any molecule containing equal numbers of bonding and antibonding electrons is ________.

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)3

E)1/2

Q3) What are the three bond angles in the trigonal bipyramidal structure?

Q4) Three molecules have similar electron domains, but different molecular shapes. Why?

Q5) The 1s hydrogen orbital overlaps with the ________ iodine orbital in HI.

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Chapter 10: Gases

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Q1) A sample of oxygen gas was found to effuse at a rate equal to two times that of an unknown gas. The molecular weight of the unknown gas is ________ g/mol.

A)64

B)128

C)8

D)16

E)8.0

Q2) The density of air at STP is 1.285 g/L. Which of the following cannot be used to fill a balloon that will float in air at STP?

A)CH₄

B)NO

C)Ne

D)NH₃

E)HF

Q3) The volume of HCl gas required to react with excess Ca to produce 11.4 L of hydrogen gas at 1.62 atm and 62.0 °C is ________ L.

Q4) The temperature and pressure specified by STP are ________ °C and ________ atm.

Q5) The rms speed of methane molecules at 45.0 °C is ________ m/sec.

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Chapter 11: Liquids and Intermolecular Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) As a gaseous element condenses, the atoms become ________ and they have ________ attraction for one another.

A)more separated, more

B)more separated, less C)closer together, more D)closer together, less E)larger, greater

Q2) How high a liquid will rise up a narrow tube as a result of capillary action depends on ________.

A)the magnitudes of cohesive forces in the liquid and adhesive forces between the liquid and the tube, and gravity

B)gravity alone

C)only the magnitude of adhesive forces between the liquid and the tube

D)the viscosity of the liquid

E)only the magnitude of cohesive forces in the liquid

Q3) The direct conversion of a solid to a gas is called ________.

Q4) The initial discovery of a liquid crystal resulted from studies on what compound?

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13

Chapter 12: Solids and Modern Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) Metallic solids do not exhibit ________.

A)excellent thermal conductivity

B)excellent electrical conductivity

C)variable hardness

D)extreme brittleness

E)variable melting point

Q2) Vulcanization involves heating rubber with sulfur dioxide to produce a thermosetting polymer.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Alloys generally differ from compounds in that

A)the former always contain some carbon.

B)the former always contain some iron.

C)the former always have semiconductor properties.

D)the atomic ratios of the constituent elements in the former are not fixed and may vary over a wide range.

E)the former never contain a transition element.

Q4) Chromium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic unit cell. There are ________ chromium atoms per unit cell.

Q5) Semiconductors are less conductive than metals because of ________ gap.

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Chapter 13: Properties of Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The value of the boiling-point-elevation constant (K_b)depends on the identity of the solvent.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The process of a substance sticking to the surface of another is called

A)absorption

B)diffusion

C)effusion

D)adsorption

E)coagulation

Q3) When argon is placed in a container of neon, the argon spontaneously disperses throughout the neon because ________.

A)of the large attractive forces between argon and neon atoms

B)of hydrogen bonding

C)a decrease in energy occurs when the two mix

D)the dispersion of argon atoms produces an increase in disorder

E)of solvent-solute interactions

Q4) For a dilute aqueous solution, a concentration of 1 ppb also corresponds to a concentration of 1 ________ per liter of solution.

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Chapter 14: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Elementary reactions involving the simultaneous collision of three molecules are

Q2) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2HBr (g) H₂ (g)+ Br₂ (g) Is 0.140 M s^-1 at 150 °C. The rate of reaction is ________ M s^-1.

A)3.57

B)0.0700

C)0.0196

D)0.280

E)0.0860

Q3) The reaction 2NO₂ 2NO + O₂ Follows second-order kinetics. At 300 °C, [NO₂] drops from 0.0100 M to 0.00650 M in 100.0 s. The rate constant for the reaction is ________ M^-1s^-1.

A)0.096

B)0.65

C)0.81

D)1.2

E)0.54

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Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) If Reaction A + Reaction B = Reaction C, then K_cReaction C =

Q2) For an exothermic reaction, increasing the reaction temperature results in a(n)________ in K.

Q3) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much greater than 1, then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly ________.

Q4) Which one of the following is true concerning the Haber process?

A)It is a process used for shifting equilibrium positions to the right for more economical chemical synthesis of a variety of substances.

B)It is a process used for the synthesis of ammonia.

C)It is another way of stating Le Châtelier's principle.

D)It is an industrial synthesis of sodium chloride that was discovered by Karl Haber.

E)It is a process for the synthesis of elemental chlorine.

Q5) At constant temperature, reducing the volume of a gaseous equilibrium mixture causes the reaction to shift in the direction that increases the number of moles of gas in the system.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the following, ________ is a weak acid.

A)HF

B)HCl

C)HBr

D)HNO₃

E)HClO₄

Q2) HZ is a weak acid. An aqueous solution of HZ is prepared by dissolving 0.020 mol of HZ in sufficient water to yield 1.0 L of solution. The pH of the solution was 4.93 at 25.0 °C. The K_a of HZ is ________.

A)1.2 × 10^-5

B)6.9 × 10^-9

C)1.4 × 10^-10

D)9.9 × 10^-2

E)2.8 × 10^-12

Q3) The conjugate acid of HSO₄^- is ________.

A)SO₄^2-

B)H₂SO₄

C)HSO₄⁺

D)H⁺

E)HSO₃⁺

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Chapter 17: Additional Aspects of Aqueous Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the correct K_sp expression for PbCl₂ (s)dissolving in water?

A)K_sp = [Pb²⁺] [Cl^-]²

B)K_sp = [Pb²⁺] [Cl^-]

C)K_sp = [Pb²⁺]² [Cl^-]

D)K_sp = [PbCl⁺] [Cl^-]

E)K_sp = [Pb⁺] [Cl^2-]²

Q2) Which one of the following pairs cannot be mixed together to form a buffer solution?

A)C₅H₅N, C₅H₅NHCl

B)HC₂H₃O₂, NaOH (C₂H₃O₂^- = acetate) C)KOH, HI

D)NH₂CH₃, HCl

E)NaClO, HNO₃

Q3) Metal oxides and hydroxides that are relatively insoluble in neutral water, but are soluble in both strongly acidic and strongly basic solutions are said to be ________.

Q4) An assembly of a metal ion and the Lewis bases bonded to it is called a(n)________.

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Chapter 18: Chemistry of the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concentration of Mg in seawater is 0.054 M. How many grams of Mg can be extracted from 10.0 kg of seawater if the recovery rate is 20.0%?

A)13.9

B)6.50

C)11.3

D)2.62

E)5.25

Q2) Which of the following is not a stage in water treatment?

A)coarse filtration

B)aeration

C)chlorination

D)distillation

E)settling

Q3) Which one of the following is a source of carbon dioxide in the troposphere?

A)natural gas seepage

B)electrical discharges

C)fossil-fuel combustion

D)volcanic gases

E)forest fires

Q4) Clean rainwater is acidic mainly due to the presence of ________.

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Chapter 19: Chemical Thermodynamics

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Q1) The value of S° for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur dioxide to solid elemental sulfur and gaseous oxygen, SO₂(g) S (s, rhombic) + O₂(g) Is ________ J/K mol.

A)+485.4

B)+248.5

C)-11.6

D)-248.5

E)+11.6

Q2) The value of S° for the decomposition of calcium chloride into its constituent elements, CaCl₂(s) Ca (s) + Cl₂ (g) Is ________ J/K mol.

A)-104.6

B)+104.6

C)+369.0

D)-159.8

E)+159.8

Q3) The entropy of a pure crystalline substance at 0 °C is zero.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Electrochemistry

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Q1) The quantity of charge passing a point in a circuit in one second when the current is one ampere is called a ________.

Q2) 1V = ________.

A)1 amp s

B)1 J/s

C)96485 C

D)1 J/C

E)1 C/J

Q3) The standard reduction potential of X is 1.23 V and that of Y is -0.44 V; therefore X is oxidized by Y.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The balanced half-reaction in which dichromate ion is reduced to chromium (III)ion is a ________ process.

A)four-electron

B)twelve-electron

C)three-electron

D)six-electron

E)two-electron

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Chapter 21: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The use of radioisotopes in tracing metabolism is possible because ________.

Q2) The beta decay of cesium-137 has a half-life of 30.0 years. How many years must pass to reduce a 30 mg sample of cesium 137 to 5.2 mg?

A)76 years

B)-76 years

C)38 years

D)0.040 years

E)25 years

Q3) What was the purpose of the Manhattan project?

Q4) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is 1.00867 amu. What is the mass defect (in amu)of a ⁵⁷Ni nucleus? (The mass of a nickel-60 nucleus is 59.9308 amu.)

A)0.5155 amu

B)28.76 amu

C)-0.4932 amu

D)0.5141 amu

E)1.031 amu

Q5) The major type of cancer caused by radiation is ________.

Q6) What is the predominant isotope of uranium?

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Q7) What is the source of the tremendous energies produced by nuclear reactions?

Chapter 22: Chemistry of the Nonmetals

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Q1) Interhalogen compounds ________.

A)are exceedingly reactive

B)contain halogens in both positive and negative oxidation states

C)are powerful oxidizing agents

D)that contain fluorine are very active fluorinating agents

E)all of the above

Q2) What are the three steps in the Ostwald process of nitric acid synthesis?

Q3) What is the oxidation state of xenon in XeO₂F₂?

A)0

B)+4

C)+8

D)+2

E)+6

Q4) If a metal forms more than one oxide, the acidic character of the oxide increases as the oxidation state of the metal ________.

Q5) Of the nonradioactive halogens, which is the largest?

Q6) The instability of xenon fluorides is due to its negative enthalpy of formation.

A)True

B)False

Q7) H₂ is reacted with ________ to produce methanol.

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Chapter 23: Transition Metals and Coordination Chemistry

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Q1) The coordination number for [Zn(H₂O)₃Cl]Cl is ________.

A)5

B)4

C)2

D)1

E)6

Q2) What metal is complexed in chlorophyll?

A)iron

B)chromium

C)manganese

D)vanadium

E)magnesium

Q3) Which element has the largest bonding atomic radius?

A)scandium

B)titanium

C)vanadium

D)chromium

E)manganese

Q4) The chelate effect is enhanced by polydentate ligand binding because of the change in ________.

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Chapter 24: The Chemistry of Life: Organic and Biological Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The DNA double helix is held together by hydrogen bonds and London dispersion forces.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which one of the following could be a straight-chain alkane?

A)C₉H₂₀

B)C₃H₃

C)C₄H₆

D)C₅H₄

E)C₃H₆

Q3) Aromatic hydrocarbons ________.

A)readily undergo addition reactions like alkenes

B)contain a series of bonds on several consecutive carbon atoms

C)undergo substitution reactions more easily than saturated hydrocarbons

D)have sp³ hybridized carbon atoms

Q4) In the reaction of nitric acid with benzene, which isomer is formed when a second nitro group is substituted?

Q5) Hydrogenation of what alkyne produces propane?

26

Q6) The aromas of different fruit are due to the chemical compounds known as

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