

General Chemistry II Test Preparation
Course Introduction
General Chemistry II is a continuation of foundational chemistry concepts, building on principles introduced in General Chemistry I. This course explores topics such as chemical kinetics, chemical equilibrium, acids and bases, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and coordination chemistry. Students deepen their understanding of molecular structure, reaction mechanisms, and the quantitative relationships governing chemical reactions. Laboratory work complements theoretical learning, allowing students to develop practical skills in experimental techniques, data analysis, and scientific communication. General Chemistry II prepares students for advanced study in chemistry, related sciences, and professional programs in health, engineering, and research fields.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry 11th Edition by Raymond Chang
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 25 Chapters
3115 Verified Questions
3115 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3278

Page 2

Chapter 1: Chemistry: the Study of Change
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168 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complete the following sentence.A theory is
A)a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B)a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C)a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D)a model used to visualize the invisible.
Answer: C
Q2) Give three examples of mixtures.
Answer: (Answers will vary.)Air, gasoline, sea water, salt and sand, iron filings and sand
Q3) Which of the following speeds is the greatest? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A)40 mi/h
B)2.0 × 10<sup>5</sup> mm/min
C)40 km/h
D)0.74 km/min
E)400 m/min
Answer: A
Q4) Give examples of three physical properties.
Answer: (Answers will vary.)Melting point, boiling point, density, color
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Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many electrons, protons, and neutrons does an iron-55 atom have?
Answer: 26 electrons, 26 protons, and 29 neutrons
Q2) Name the following compound: K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>.
Answer: potassium phosphate
Q3) What are the ions present in the compound CH<sub>4</sub>?
A)C<sup>4+</sup>, H<sup>+</sup>
B)C<sup>4-</sup>, H<sup>+</sup>
C)C<sup>-</sup>, H<sup>+</sup>
D)C<sup>4-</sup> H<sup>4+</sup>
E)no ions present
Answer: E
Q4) The formula for sodium sulfide is A)NaS.
B)K<sub>2</sub>S.
C)NaS<sub>2</sub>.
D)Na<sub>2</sub>S.
E)SeS.
Answer: D
Q5) Give the formula of magnesium nitrate.
Answer: Mg(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Mass Relationships in Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 0.66 mole of a substance has a mass of 99 g, what is the molecular mass of the substance?
Answer: 150 g
Q2) What is the molecular mass of Br<sub>2</sub> ?
A)79.90 amu
B)79.90 g
C)159.8 amu
D)159.8 g
E)2.65 x 10<sup>-22</sup> amu
Answer: C
Q3) Liquid heptane, C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>16 </sub>, burns in oxygen gas to yield carbon dioxide and water.What mass of carbon dioxide is produced when 15.0 mL of heptane burns completely? (density of heptane = 0.6838 g/mL)
A)4.49 g
B)6.59 g
C)31.5 g
D)46.1 g
E)71.8 g
Answer: C
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Reactions in Aqueous Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the major ionic species present in an aqueous solution of Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>.
A)Na<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>, CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup> B)Na<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>, C<sup>2 -</sup>, O<sub>3</sub> C)Na<sup>+</sup>, C<sup>4+</sup>, O<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup> D)Na<sup>+</sup>, C<sup>+</sup>, O<sup>2-</sup> E)Na<sup>+</sup>, CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
Q2) Which of the following compounds is a weak electrolyte?
A)HCl
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6 </sub>(glucose) D)N<sub>2</sub>
E)KCl
Q3) For the perchlorate ion ClO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> , what are the oxidation states of the Cl and O, respectively?
A)- 1, - 2
B)+8, - 2
C)+7, - 2
D)+6, - 2
E)+2, - 1
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Chapter 5: Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the molar mass of Freon-11 gas if a sample weighing 0.597 g occupies 100.cm<sup>3</sup> at 95°C, and 1,000.mmHg.
A)0.19 g/mol
B)35.3 g/mol
C)70.9 g/mol
D)137 g/mol
E)384 g/mol
Q2) Calculate the number of moles of gas contained in a 10.0 L tank at 22°C and 105 atm.(R = 0.08206 L.atm/K*mol)
A)1.71 × 10<sup>-3</sup> mol
B)0.0231 mol
C)1.03 mol
D)43.4 mol
E)582 mol
Q3) Calculate the density, in g/L, of chlorine (Cl<sub>2</sub>)gas at STP.
A)2.13 × 10<sup>-2</sup> g/L
B)1.58 g/L
C)3.16 g/L
D)46.9 g/L
E)0.316 kg/L
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Chapter 6: Thermochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enthalpy of combustion of acetylene C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> is described by C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ (5/2)O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\)2CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l),\(\Delta\)H°<sub>rxn</sub>= -1299 kJ/mol
Calculate the enthalpy of formation of acetylene, given the following enthalpies of formation
\(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub>[CO<sub>2</sub>(g)] = -393.5 kJ/mol \(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub>[H<sub>2</sub>O(l)] = -285.8 kJ/mol
Q2) An endothermic reaction causes the surroundings to
A)warm up.
B)become acidic.
C)condense.
D)decrease in temperature.
E)release CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Potential energy is
A)the energy stored within the structural units of chemical substances.
B)the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules.
C)solar energy, i.e.energy that comes from the sun.
D)energy available by virtue of an object's position.
Q4) Define specific heat.

Page 8
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Chapter 7: Quantum Theory and the Electronic Structure of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each shell (principal energy level)of quantum number n contains n subshells
A)True
B)False
Q2) For all atoms of the same element, the 2s orbital is larger than the 1s orbital.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If we take away two electrons from the outer shell of calcium, it would have the same electron configuration as what element?
Q4) The quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m<sub>l </sub>= 0, m<sub>s </sub>= +1/2, represent an electron in a 3s subshell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ground-state electron configuration for an atom of indium is A)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4p<sup>6</sup>4d<sup>5</sup> B)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>1</sup> C)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>4p<sup>6</sup>3d<sup>5</sup> D)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>5p<sup>6</sup>4d<sup>5</sup> E)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>5p<sup>1</sup>
Q6) What is the electron configuration of calcium?
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Chapter 8: Periodic Relationships Among the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radii of ions are always smaller than the radii of the corresponding atoms of the same element.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The successive ionization energies of a certain element are I<sub>1 </sub>= 589.5 kJ/mol, I<sub>2 </sub>=1145 kJ/mol, I<sub>3</sub>= 4900 kJ/mol, I<sub>4</sub> = 6500 kJ/mol, and I<sub>5</sub> = 8100 kJ/mol.This pattern of ionization energies suggests that the unknown element is
A)K
B)Si
C)As
D)Ca
E)S
Q3) Which of the following is a basic oxide?
A)NO<sub>2</sub>
B)H<sub>2</sub>O
C)Na<sub>2</sub>O
D)SnO
E)SO<sub>2</sub>
Q4) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Cr<sup>3+</sup>.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonding I: Basic Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following compounds does not follow the octet rule?
A)NF<sub>3</sub>
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)CF<sub>4</sub>
D)Br<sub>2</sub>
E)NO
Q2) Which one of the following is most likely to be an ionic compound?
A)CaCl<sub>2</sub>
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)CS<sub>2</sub>
D)SO<sub>2</sub>
E)OF<sub>2</sub>
Q3) How many covalent bonds will be drawn to bromine in BrO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> for the dot structure that expands the octet to minimize formal charge and if necessary places negative formal charges on the most electronegative atom(s).

Page 11
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Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding Ii: Molecular Geometry and Hybridization
of Atomic
Orbitals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following would the bonding be strengthened with the addition of an electron to form the negative molecular ion?
A)N<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)F<sub>2</sub>
D)all of these E)none of these
Q2) According to Molecular Orbital Theory, two separate p<sub>x</sub> orbitals interact about the y-axis to form what molecular orbitals?
A)(\(\sigma\) and \(\sigma\)*)
B)(\(\pi\) and \(\pi\)*)
C)(\(\sigma\), \(\sigma\)* and \(\pi\))
D)(\(\pi\), \(\pi\)*, and \(\sigma\))
E)(\(\sigma\), \(\sigma\)*, \(\pi\), and \(\pi\)*)
Q3) List all of the bond angles present in a molecule with a trigonal bipyramidal geometry.
Q4) Explain why CO<sub>2</sub> is nonpolar, but OCS is polar.
Q5) Which of the following molecules has polar bonds but is a nonpolar molecule? BF<sub>3</sub>, CCl<sub>4</sub>, CO, SF<sub>4</sub>
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Chapter 11: Intermolecular Forces and Liquids and Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in HCl(g).
Q2) Palladium crystallizes in a face-centered cubic unit cell.Its density is 12.0 g/cm<sup>3</sup> at 27°C.Calculate the atomic radius of Pd.
A)154 pm
B)138 pm
C)1.95 × 10<sup>-8</sup> nm
D)0.109 nm
E)1.95 × 10<sup>-8</sup> cm
Q3) The structural form of the element Ge closely resembles the structure of
A)C (diamond).
B)N (diatomic).
C)As (tetrahedral).
D)S (S<sub>8</sub> ring).
E)Kr (monatomic).
Q4) For which of the following species are the dispersion forces strongest?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
D)C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>16</sub>
E)C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>

Page 13
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Chapter 12: Physical Properties of Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vapor pressure of a solution depends on the chemical nature of the solvent A)True B)False
Q2) Using your knowledge of osmosis or osmotic pressure explain the following statement: When sprinkled with sugar, a dish of sliced fruit will form its own juice.
Q3) To interconvert the concentration units of molality (m)and mass percent, you must also know the density of the solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calculate the molality of a solution containing 14.3 g of NaCl in 42.2 g of water.
A)2.45 × 10<sup>-4</sup> m
B)5.80 × 10<sup>-4</sup> m
C)2.45 × 10<sup>-1</sup> m
D)103 m
E)5.80 m
Q5) A solution is prepared by adding 40.3 g of Mg(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> to 127 g of water.Calculate the mole fraction and molality of magnesium nitrate in this solution.
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Page 14

Chapter 13: Chemical Kinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A certain reaction A \(\rarr\) products is second order with respect to A.If it takes 45 min to reduce the concentration of A from 0.350 M to 0.125 M, what is the rate constant for this reaction?
A)3.8 x 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
B)1.9 x 10<sup>-3</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
C)5.0 x 10<sup>-3</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
D)2.3 x 10<sup>-2</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
E)1.1 x 10<sup>-1</sup> M<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) For the first-order reaction 2N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> \(\rarr\)2N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> at a particular temperature, the half-life of N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> is 0.90 hr.What fraction of the initial concentration of N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> will remain after 2.4 hours?
Q3) Which one of the following changes would alter the rate constant (k)for the reaction 2A + B \(\rarr\) products?
A)increasing the concentration of A
B)increasing the concentration of B
C)increasing the temperature
D)measuring k again after the reaction has run for a while
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15

Chapter 14: Chemical Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reaction with an equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub> = 1.5 x 10<sup>-25</sup> would consist of which of the following at equilibrium:
A)approximately equal reactants and products
B)some reactants and products with reactants slightly favored
C)some reactants and products with products slightly favored
D)essentially all reactants
E)essentially all products
Q2) A reaction with an equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub> = 1.5 x 10<sup>21</sup> would consist of which of the following at equilibrium:
A)approximately equal reactants and products
B)some reactants and products with reactants slightly favored
C)some reactants and products with products slightly favored
D)essentially all reactants
E)essentially all products
Q3) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.
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Chapter 15: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the reaction Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq) \(\rarr\) AgCl(s), Ag<sup>+</sup> acts as a Lewis acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diet cola drinks have a pH of about 3.0, while milk has a pH of about 7.0.How many times greater is the H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> concentration in diet cola than in milk?
A)2.3 times higher in diet cola than in milk
B)400 times higher in diet cola than in milk
C)0.43 times higher in diet cola than in milk
D)1,000 times higher in diet cola than in milk
E)10,000 times higher in diet cola than in milk
Q3) Identify the conjugate base of HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
B)CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
C)OH<sup>-</sup>
D)CO<sub>2</sub>
E)CO
Q4) Calculate the pH of a 0.025 M solution of NaNO<sub>2</sub> (K<sub>a</sub>(HNO<sub>2</sub>)= 4.5 x 10<sup>-4</sup>)
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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria and Solubility Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Find the concentration of Pb<sup>2+</sup> ions in a solution made by adding 5.00 g of lead(II)iodide to 500.mL of 0.150 M KI.[For PbI<sub>2</sub>, K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.39 × 10<sup>-8</sup>.]
A)3.04 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B)1.54 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
C)6.18 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
D)1.52 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M
E)9.27 × 10<sup>-8</sup> M
Q2) A solution is prepared by mixing 500.mL of 0.10 M NaOCl and 500.mL of 0.20 M HOCl.What is the pH of this solution? [K<sub>a</sub>(HOCl)= 3.2 × 10<sup>-8</sup>]
A)4.10
B)7.00
C)7.19
D)7.49
E)7.80
Q3) Calculate the percent ionization of formic acid in a solution that is 0.010 M HCOOH and 0.005 M HCOONa and compare your answer to the percent ionization you would calculate if the sodium formate were not present.Explain the difference, if any.(K<sub>a</sub> = 1.7 × 10<sup>-4</sup>)
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Entropy Free Energy and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which response includes all the following processes that are accompanied by an increase in entropy? 1)2SO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) SO<sub>3</sub>(g)
2)H<sub>2</sub>O(l)\(\rarr\)H<sub>2</sub>O(s)
3)Br<sub>2</sub>(l)\(\rarr\)Br<sub>2</sub>(g)
4)H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(l)\(\rarr\)
H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ <sup>1</sup>/<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(g)
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2
C)2, 3, 4
D)3, 4
E)1, 4
Q2) Predict the signs (-, +, or 0)of \(\Delta\)H and \(\Delta\)S, in that order, for the process: H<sub>2</sub>O(l)\(\rarr\)H<sub>2</sub>O(s).
Q3) Choose the substance with the higher entropy per mole at a given temperature: Br<sub>2</sub>(l)or Br<sub>2</sub>(g).
Q4) Predict the signs (-, +, or 0)of \(\Delta\)H and \(\Delta\)S, in that order, for the expansion of an ideal gas into a vacuum.
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Electrochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total number of moles (n)of electrons exchanged between the oxidizing agent and the reducing agent in the overall redox equation: Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)+ 6Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 14H<sup>+</sup>(aq)\(\rarr\)2Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 6Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 7H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)6
E)12
Q2) The half-reaction occurring at the cathode during electrolysis of an aqueous copper(II)iodide solution is
A)I<sub>2</sub> + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\rarr\) 2I<sup>-</sup>.
B)Cu \(\rarr\) Cu<sup>2+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup>.
C)Cu<sup>2+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\rarr\) Cu.
D)2I<sup>- </sup> \(\rarr\)I<sub>2</sub> + 2e<sup>-</sup>.
E)2e<sup>-</sup> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub> + 2OH<sup>-</sup>.
Q3) Calculate \(\Delta\)G° (kJ/mol)for the following electrochemical cell: Be(s)| Be<sup>2+</sup>(aq)|| Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)| Mn(s)
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical radius of an atomic nucleus is about
A)100 µm
B)5000 mm
C)100 nm
D)5 × 10<sup>-3</sup> pm
E)500 pm
Q2) Tritium is a radioisotope of hydrogen having a half-life of 12.3 years.If you initially had 1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> mole of tritium, calculate the decay rate of the sample.
Q3) As a result of alpha emission, the product nucleus is
A)one atomic number lower than the original element.
B)two atomic numbers higher than the original element.
C)one atomic number higher than the original element.
D)two atomic numbers lower than the original element.
E)four atomic numbers lower than the original element.
Q4) The isotope of iodine with mass number 128 undergoes beta decay with a half-life of 25.00 minutes.Write a balanced nuclear reaction for this process.
Q5) When a <sup>87</sup>Br nucleus emits a beta particle, the nuclear species that results is ___________.
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Chapter 20: Chemistry in the Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CO<sub>2</sub> content of Earth's atmosphere is approximately
A)4%
B)0.4%
C)0.04% (400 ppm)
D)40 ppm
E)4 ppm
Q2) The rate constant of the reaction Cl + CHCl<sub>3</sub>\(\rarr\)HCl + CCl<sub>3</sub> is 5.8 × 10<sup>7</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup> at 25°C and has an activation energy of 11.0 kJ/mol.Calculate the rate constant for this reaction in the lower stratosphere where the temperature is -57°C.
A)1.1 × 10<sup>7</sup> M<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
B)4.2 × 10<sup>7</sup> M<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
C)4.9 × 10<sup>9</sup> M<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
D)9.5 × 10<sup>6</sup> M<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
E)2.7 × 10<sup>9</sup> M<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
Q3) Name four regions of the atmosphere in order of increasing altitude.
Q4) Write out the steps in the mechanism by which ozone is formed in the stratosphere.
Q5) What happens to nitrogen dioxide in sunlight? Write the reaction for this process.
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Chapter 21: Metallurgy and the Chemistry of Metals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alloys of iron that contain 1.0-1.5% carbon and some manganese, phosphorus, silicon, and sulfur are called A)steel.
B)cast iron.
C)coke.
D)pig iron.
E)hematite.
Q2) Write the chemical formula of magnetite.
Q3) Write a balanced chemical equation illustrating the thermite reaction.
Q4) Volatile impurities are removed from ores by means of A)roasting.
B)amalgamation.
C)electrolysis.
D)flotation.
E)zone refining.
Q5) Write a balanced chemical equation illustrating roasting.
Q6) Write the chemical formula of corundum.
Q7) Why is cryolite, Na<sub>3</sub>AlF<sub>6</sub>, mixed with alumina prior to electrolysis in the production of Al?
Q8) Write two balanced chemical equations for the burning of magnesium in air.
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Chapter 22: Nonmetallic Elements and Their Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices is/are ionic oxides? I.SrO II.SiO<sub>2</sub><sub>
</sub>III.SO<sub>2</sub>
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I and II
E)II and III
Q2) Phosphoric acid is the most important of the phosphorus oxoacids.Industrially, phosphoric acid is prepared by
A)the Ostwald process.
B)the Haber process.
C)the reaction of phosphate rock with sulfuric acid.
D)the reaction of P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> with water.
E)the Frasch process.
Q3) The main commercial source of bromine is
A)silver bromide ore.
B)seawater.
C)the Frasch process.
D)phosphate rock.
E)the Ostwald process.
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Chapter 23: Transition Metal Chemistry and Coordination Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which response gives the correct coordination number (C.N.)and oxidation number (O.N.)of the transition metal atom in [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>]<su p>+</sup>?
A)C.N.= 2; O.N.= +3
B)C.N.= 3; O.N.= +1
C)C.N.= 4; O.N.= +2
D)C.N.= 6; O.N.= +1
E)C.N.= 6; O.N.= +3
Q2) What is the coordination number of silver in [Ag(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>]Cl?
Q3) Which of these ligands produces the strongest crystal field?
A)Cl<sup>-</sup>
B)CO
C)OH<sup>-</sup>
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
E)NH<sub>3</sub>
Q4) What is the coordination number of chromium in Cr(en)<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>?
Q6) Write the chemical formula of the dibromobis(oxalato)cobaltate(III)ion. Page 25
Q5) What terms describe the geometric isomers that are possible for the complex [CrF<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>4</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>?
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Chapter 24: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water and ethylene are combined at high temperature and pressures in the presence of sulfuric acid to produce ethanol according to the following reaction: CH<sub>2</sub>=CH<sub>2</sub>(g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(g)\(\rarr\) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH(g)
What is the hybridization of the bolded carbon atoms in the reactants and products, respectively?
A)sp<sup>3</sup><sub>, </sub>sp<sup>2</sup>
B)sp<sup>2</sup><sub>, </sub>sp<sup>3</sup>
C)sp<sub>, </sub>sp<sup>2</sup>
D)sp<sup>3</sup><sub>, </sub>sp
E)sp<sup>2</sup><sub>, </sub>sp<sup>2</sup>
Q2) Bromination of benzene (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>), an aromatic compound,
A)occurs by substitution rather than addition.
B)occurs by addition rather than substitution.
C)occurs more rapidly than bromination of a nonaromatic compound.
D)results in formation of 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexabromocyclohexane.
E)occurs in the absence of a catalyst.
Q3) A compound with the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub> may or may not be a saturated hydrocarbon.Explain.
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Chapter 25: Synthetic and Natural Organic Polymers
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Q1) Which choice lists both the sugar and the nitrogen base that are a part of RNA but are not a part of DNA?
A)deoxyribose and thymine
B)ribose and deoxyribose
C)ribose and uracil
D)uracil and thymine
E)ribose and thymine
Q2) Both DNA and RNA have double-helical structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An amino acid is a compound that contains at least
A)one amino group and one amide group.
B)two amino groups and one carboxylic acid group.
C)one hydroxyl group and one methyl group.
D)one carboxylic acid group and one amino group.
E)one methyl group and one amide group.
Q4) The primary structure of a protein refers to the unique amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain.
A)True
B)False
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