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General Chemistry II builds upon the foundational concepts introduced in the first semester of general chemistry. This course explores more advanced topics including chemical kinetics, chemical equilibria, acid-base equilibria, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and an introduction to nuclear and organic chemistry. Students will develop a deeper understanding of how chemical reactions occur and how energy changes drive these processes. Emphasis is placed on problem-solving, quantitative analysis, and laboratory skills that reinforce theoretical principles. The course is designed for science majors and provides the essential knowledge required for further study in chemistry and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) One liter is approximately the same as one U.S. A)ounce.
B)pint.
C)quart.
D)gallon.
Answer: C
Q2) An international group of zookeepers with successful breeding programs made the following animal exchanges last year.Using the same bartering system,how many oryxes can a zoo obtain in exchange for 15 flamingos? 3 oryxes = 1 tiger 2 flamingos = 1 anteater
1 camel = 6 anteaters 5 lemurs = 1 rhino
1 rhino = 4 monkeys 3 lemurs = 1 camel
3 monkeys = 1 tiger 1 rhino = 4 oryxes
A)one oryx
B)three oryxes
C)four oryxes
D)five oryxes
Answer: B
Q3) Stored energy is ________ energy,and energy of motion is ________ energy.
Answer: potential,kinetic

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Q1) A sample of pure lithium chloride contains 16% lithium by mass.What is the % lithium by mass in a sample of pure lithium carbonate that has twice the mass of the first sample?
A)8.20%
B)16.4%
C)32.8%
D)65.6%
Answer: B
Q2) Which horizontal row of the periodic table contains the most elements?
A)row 4
B)row 5
C)row 6
D)They all contain the same number of elements. Answer: C
Q3) Which element can form more than one kind of monatomic ion?
A)Sr
B)Al
C)Sn
D)O Answer: C
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Q1) Tablets of ascorbic acid,or Vitamin C,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>6</sub>,are taken as a dietary supplement.If a typical tablet contains 500 mg,how many atoms of carbon (C)are in a tablet?
Answer: 1.026 × 10<sup>22</sup> atoms of carbon
Q2) How many moles are in 7.8 g of acetamide,CH<sub>3</sub>CONH<sub>2</sub>?
Answer: 0.13 moles
Q3) How many Fe(II)ions are there in 5.00 g of FeSO<sub>4</sub>?
A)5.46 × 10<sup>-26</sup> iron(II)ions
B)1.98 × 10<sup>22</sup> iron(II)ions
C)1.83 × 10<sup>25</sup> iron(II)ions
D)4.58 × 10<sup>26</sup> iron(II)ions
Answer: B
Q4) Which statement about elemental analysis by combustion is not correct?
A)Carbon is determined from the amount of CO<sub>2</sub> formed.
B)Hydrogen is determined from the amount of H<sub>2</sub>O formed.
C)Oxygen is determined from the amount of H<sub>2</sub>O formed.
D)Only carbon and hydrogen can be determined directly from CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which one of the following compounds behaves as an acid when dissolved in water?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
B)CH<sub>4</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>
D)KOH
Q2) The reaction shown below is classified as a(n)________ reaction. AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ HCl(aq) AgCl(s)+ HNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
Q3) Which of the following compounds is not an Arrhenius acid?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
B)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>
C)HNO<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
Q4) A student prepared a stock solution by dissolving 20.0 g of NaOH in enough water to make 150.mL of solution.She then took 15.0 mL of the stock solution and diluted it with enough water to make 65.0 mL of a final solution.What is the concentration of NaOH for the final solution?
A)0.769 M
B)0.548 M
C)1.40 M
D)1.82 M
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Q1) Light behaves as if it were a stream of small particles,called ________,each having an amount of energy called a ________.
Q2) Which has the highest Z<sub>eff</sub> for its valence electrons?
A)Na
B)Mg
C)Si
D)Cl
Q3) Which grouping of elements,indicated by letter on the periodic table above,represents the d-block elements?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) Molybdenum has an anomalous electron configuration.Write the electron configuration of Mo using shorthand notation.
A)[Kr] 5s<sup>0</sup> 4d<sup>6</sup>
B)[Kr] 5s<sup>0</sup> 4d<sup>0</sup> 5p<sup>6</sup>
C)[Kr] 5s<sup>1</sup> 4d<sup>5</sup>
D)[Kr] 5s<sup>2</sup> 4d<sup>4</sup>
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Q1) Which element,indicated by letter on the periodic table above,has a 2+ ion with the electron configuration [Ar]3d<sup>10</sup>?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q2) Which element has the most favorable (most negative)electron affinity?
A)B
B)C
C)Li
D)N
Q3) Which of these elements has the most favorable (most negative)electron affinity?
A)Ca
B)N
C)Ne
D)S
Q4) Using shorthand notation,the ground-state electron configuration for Tl<sup>+</sup> is predicted to be ________.
Q5) The element in period 3 with the smallest seventh ionization energy is ________.
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Q6) The ion that has 28 protons and 26 electrons is ________.
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Q1) What is the bond order of the O-O bond in O<sub>2</sub>?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
Q2) The electronegativity for both sulfur and carbon is 2.5.Therefore the compound
CS<sub>2</sub> would be expected to
A)be ionic with C as the anion.
B)be ionic with C as the cation.
C)have nonpolar covalent bonds between C and S.
D)have polar covalent bonds between C and S.
Q3) Covalent bonding is a
A)gain of electrons.
B)loss of electrons.
C)transfer of electrons.
D)sharing of electrons.
Q4) Using only the elements Mg,Cl,and/or P,give the formula of a compound having largely polar covalent bonds.
Q5) Classify bonds in As<sub>4</sub> as largely ionic,nonpolar covalent,or polar covalent.
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Q1) The VSEPR model predicts the O-S-O bond angle in SO<sub>2</sub> to be A)90°.
B)109.5°.
C)less than 120° but greater than 109.5°. D)120°.
Q2) In the drawing of acetaldehyde,CH<sub>3</sub>CHO,the largest partial positive charge ( +)occurs on
A)atom (a).
B)atom (b).
C)atom (c).
D)atom (d).
Q3) The intermolecular forces formed when KI is dissolved in water are ________ forces.
Q4) Which of the following best describes CO<sub>2</sub>? It has a molecular geometry that is
A)linear molecular shape with no lone pairs on the I atom.
B)linear molecular shape with lone pairs on the I atom.
C)non-linear molecular shape with no lone pairs on the I atom.
D)non-linear molecular shape with lone pairs on the I atom.
Q5) The molecular geometry of OCCl<sub>2</sub> is ________.
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Q1) For the expansion of an ideal gas into a vacuum at constant temperature, H = 0.What can be said about E and S?
A) E is negative and S is positive.
B) E is zero and S is positive.
C) E is negative and S is zero.
D) E is positive and S is negative.
Q2) A reaction for which E = -850 kJ is one in which products have 850 kJ ________ internal energy than the reactants,and products are ________ stable than the reactants.
Q3) Which is the most exothermic reaction?
A)CH<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 2 O<sub>2</sub>(g) CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(g)
B)CH<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 2 O<sub>2</sub>(g) CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
C)CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(l) CH<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 2 O<sub>2</sub>(g)
D)CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(g) CH<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 2 O<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q4) The energy of motion is
A)electrical energy. B)dam energy.
C)reserve energy.
D)kinetic energy.
Q5) The SI unit for energy is the ________.
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Q1) Which of the following would have a density of 1.89 g/L at 7.0°C and 0.987 atm?
A)Ar
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)CO
D)O<sub>2</sub>
Q2) If 0.40 mol of NaN<sub>3 </sub>reacts completely in the reaction shown below,then ________ L of N<sub>2</sub> will be produced at STP. 2 NaN<sub>3</sub>(s) 2 Na(s)+ 3 N<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q3) What is the temperature of SO<sub>2</sub> gas if the average speed (actually the root-mean-square speed)of the molecules is 750 m/s?
A)1.92 K
B)1.44 × 10<sup>3</sup> K
C)1.92 × 10<sup>3</sup> K
D)1.44 × 10<sup>6</sup> K
Q4) Which one of the following is not used to describe the condition of a gas?
A)number of moles
B)electronic configuration
C)temperature
D)pressure
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Q1) The highest coordination number for spherical packing is found in the A)body-centered cubic structure.
B)simple cubic structure.
C)body-centered cubic and face-centered cubic.
D)cubic closest-packing and hexagonal closest packing.
Q2) A certain metal can exist in two different cubic cells,body-centered and face-centered cubic.Which unit cell will have the greater density?
Q3) The layers of graphite are held together by A)covalent bonds.
B)ion-ion forces.
C)London dispersion forces.
D)cationic forces.
Q4) Which of the following compounds forms an ionic solid?
A)water
B)carbon dioxide
C)potassium bromide
D)zince
Q5) Rubber is classified as an ________ solid,whereas diamond is classified as a ________ solid.
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Q1) Calculate the freezing point of a solution of 30.0 g methyl salicylate,C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>2</sub>,dissolved in 800.g of benzene,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>.K<sub>f</sub> for benzene is 5.10°C/m and the freezing point is 5.50°C for benzene.
A)-1.56°C
B)1.56°C
C)3.93°C
D)7.06°C
Q2) What is the approximate boiling temperature of the liquid formed from the condensation of the vapor above a boiling solution that is 0.70 X<sub>A</sub> and 0.30 X<sub>B</sub>?
A)50°C
B)55°C
C)90°C
D)100°C
Q3) Molality is defined as moles of solute per A)kilogram of solvent.
B)liter of solvent.
C)mole of solvent.
D)total moles present.
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Q1) At an elevated temperature the decomposition of a gaseous oxide,AO<sub>2</sub> occurs with a rate constant,k = 0.54 M<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup>.If the half-life of this reaction is 926 seconds when [AO<sub>2</sub>] = 2.0 × 10<sup>-3</sup> M and 462 seconds when [AO<sub>2</sub>] = 4.0 × 10<sup>-3</sup> M,this reaction is ________ order.
Q2) The reaction that occurs in a Breathalyzer,a device used to determine the alcohol level in a person's bloodstream,is given below.If the rate of appearance of Cr<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub> is 1.24 mol/min at a particular moment,what is the rate of disappearance of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O at that moment? 2 K<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub> + 8 H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + 3 C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O 2 Cr<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub> + 2 K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + 11
H<sub>2</sub>O
A)0.413 mol/min
B)0.826 mol/min
C)1.86 mol/min
D)3.72 mol/min
Q3) The rate-determining step in a reaction is shown below.The molecularity of this reaction is ________. NO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ NO<sub>2</sub>(g) NO(g)+ NO<sub>3</sub>(g)
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Q1) Which change in the system will drive equilibrium to the left in the reaction below? N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(g) NO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ NO<sub>3</sub>(g)
A)decrease the amount of NO<sub>3</sub>
B)increase the amount of N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
C)decrease the volume
D)increase the volume
Q2) Which picture (2)-(4)represents the equilibrium mixture after addition of four more CO<sub>2</sub> molecules?
A)picture (2)
B)picture (3)
C)picture (4)
D)None of these
Q3) At some temperature,a 4.0 L flask is found to contain 10.0 mol of CO<sub>2</sub>,8.0 mol of C,and 10.0 mol of CO,at equilibrium.What is the value of the equilibrium constant,K<sub>c</sub>,for this reaction?
A)1.25
B)0.50
C)0.40
D)2.50
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Q1) What is the pH of a 0.020 M HClO<sub>4</sub> solution?
A)0.020
B)0.040
C)1.70
D)12.30
Q2) What is the pH of a solution prepared by diluting 25.00 mL of 0.020 M Ba(OH)<sub>2</sub> with enough water to produce a total volume of 250.00 mL?
A)2.40
B)2.70
C)11.30
D)11.60
Q3) Which one of the following salts,when dissolved in water,produces the solution with the lowest pH?
A)RbCl
B)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl
C)SrCl<sub>2</sub>
D)AlCl<sub>3</sub>
Q4) The pH of a 0.055 M KOH solution is ________.
Q5) A proton hydrated by ten water molecules has the formula ________.
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Q1) Calculate the molar solubility of thallium(I)chloride in 0.20 M NaCl at 25°C.K<sub>sp</sub> for TlCl is 1.7 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
A)3.4 × 10<sup>-5</sup> M
B)8.5 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M
C)5.8 × 10<sup>-3</sup> M
D)1.3 × 10<sup>-2</sup> M
Q2) Addition of 0.0125 mol KOH to 150 mL of a 0.150 M formic acid/0.100 M sodium formate buffer results in a pH = ________.The K<sub>a</sub> of formic acid is 1.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
Q3) Which of the solutions are buffer solutions?
A)(1)and (2)
B)(1)and (3)
C)(2)and (3)
D)(2)and (4)
Q4) At 25°C calcium fluoride has a solubility product constant K<sub>sp</sub> = 3.5 × 10<sup>-11</sup>.The solubility of CaF<sub>2</sub> at this temperature is ________ mol/L.
Q5) What is the K<sub>a</sub> of the amino acid glutamine if it is 33.0% dissociated at pH = 8.82?
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Q1) For the reaction N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 NO<sub>2</sub>(g), G° = 102.6 kJ.At 25°C the equilibrium constant K<sub>p</sub> = ________.
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the standard states of F<sub>2</sub>(g)and C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>(aq)?
A)The standard state for F<sub>2</sub>(g)is the pure gas at 1 atm and for C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>(aq)is the pure solid at 1 atm.
B)The standard state for F<sub>2</sub>(g)is the pure gas at 1 mol/L and for C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>(aq)is the pure solid at 1 atm.
C)The standard state for F<sub>2</sub>(g)is the pure gas at 1 atm and for C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>(aq)is the solution at a concentration of 1 mol/L.
D)The standard state for F<sub>2</sub>(g)is the pure gas at 1 mol/L and for C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>(aq)is the solution at a concentration of 1 mol/L.
Q3) If the entropy of a collection of molecules in 5000 boxes is 1.76 × 10<sup>-20</sup> J/K,how many molecules are there?
Q4) What is the entropy of 12 molecules in a system of 100 boxes?
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Q1) According to the balanced chemical equation 5 H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(aq)+ 2 MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 6 H<sup>+</sup>(aq) 10 CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 8 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
0.3500 grams of oxalic acid,H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub> will react with ________ mL of 0.100 M potassium permanganate,KMnO<sub>4</sub> solution.
A)15.5 mL
B)38.9 mL
C)77.7 mL
D)97.2 mL
Q2) An electrolytic cell is A)a battery.
B)a cell in which the cell reaction is spontaneous.
C)a cell in which an electric current drives a nonspontaneous reaction.
D)a cell in which reactants are continuously supplied to the cell.
Q3) For the galvanic cell that uses the reaction 2 Al(s)+ 3 Ni<sup>2+</sup>(aq) 2 Al<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 3 Ni(s) the value of n in the relationship G° = -nFE° is ________.
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Q1) Breaking a chemical bond requires approximately 10<sup>2</sup> kJ/mol of energy.What is closest to the order of magnitude of the energy required to split a nucleus in to its individual protons and neutrons?
A)10<sup>3</sup> kJ/mol
B)10<sup>4</sup> kJ/mol
C)10<sup>8</sup> kJ/mol
D)10<sup>10</sup> kJ/mol
Q2) If the mass of one neutron is 1.00866 amu,the mass of one proton is 1.00728 amu,and the mass of <sup>14</sup>C nucleus is 13.99995 amu,calculate the binding energy for the <sup>14</sup>C nucleus.
A)9.92 × 10<sup>9</sup> kJ/mol
B)1.02 × 10<sup>10</sup> kJ/mol
C)5.54 × 10<sup>11</sup> kJ/mol
D)5.95 × 10<sup>11</sup> kJ/mol
Q3) The rate of a nuclear reaction can be changed by A)adding a catalyst.
B)increasing the volume.
C)increasing the temperature.
D)None of these
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Q1) Which of the following statements best explains why transition metals lose electrons from s orbitals before d orbitals?
A)Electrons from s orbitals are lower in energy than d orbitals.
B)The d orbitals experience a greater drop in energy when electrons are removed.
C)Electrons from d orbitals are less shielded from the nucleus than electrons in s orbitals.
D)Electrons in s orbitals are paired.
Q2) Using the above schematic of an artist's color wheel,determine the color seen if a substance absorbs red and yellow light.
A)blue
B)green
C)orange
D)violet
Q3) Which first row transition element has the highest melting point?
A)Sc
B)V
C)Fe
D)Zn
Q4) The coordination number of chromium in [Cr(EDTA)]<sup>-</sup> is ________.
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Q1) Which picture (1)-(4)shows the electron populations when the silicon is doped with arsenic?
A)picture (1)
B)picture (2)
C)picture (3)
D)picture (4)
Q2) A light emitting diode with a band gap of 181 kJ/mol emits light in what region of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
A)infrared
B)ultraviolet
C)visible - blue
D)visible - red
Q3) What metal is isolated from the ore rutile and what is the chemical formula of rutile?
A)aluminum,Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3 </sub> xH<sub>2</sub>O
B)cassiterite,SnO<sub>2</sub>
C)cinnabar,HgS<sub> </sub>
D)titanium,TiO<sub>2</sub>
Q4) The number of electrons that half fill a composite s-d band is ________.
Q5) The principal source of chromium is chromite.What is the formula of chromite?
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Q1) The percentage of carbon in the endohedral fullerene complexes KrC<sub>60</sub> and XeC<sub>60</sub> is ________%C and ________%C,respectively.
Q2) Which one of the following elements can form more than four bonds with other elements?
A)C
B)O
C)F
D)P
Q3) Which one of the following compounds exhibits the strongest hydrogen bonding between its molecules?
A)HF
B)HBr
C)H<sub>2</sub>O
D)Ar
Q4) In the reaction below,________ is the oxidizing agent and ________ is the reducing agent.
N<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(l)+ N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(l) 3 N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 4 H<sub>2</sub>O(g)
Q5) Lithium reacts with oxygen to form an oxide with the formula ________.
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Q1) Which of the following pairs have the most similar chemical properties?
A)alkynes and esters
B)alkenes and aromatics
C)amines and carboxylic acids
D)ketones and aldehydes
Q2) (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>C- represents a ________ (normal,secondary,tertiary)butyl group.
Q3) Which of the following statements about isomers is false?
A)All alkanes have branched chain isomers.
B)As the number of carbon atoms increase in a compound,so do the number of possible isomers.
C)Isomers have different physical properties.
D)Isomers have the same formula but different molecular structures.
Q4) In the protein,Val-Tyr-His-Pro,which amino acid contains the N-terminal group?
A)histidine
B)proline
C)tyrosine
D)valine

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Q5) Monosaccharides are classified as either ________ or ________.
Q6) Linoleic acid,a fatty acid,contains ________ carbons and ________ double bonds.
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