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General Chemistry II Pre-Test Questions - 1129 Verified Questions

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General Chemistry II

Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

General Chemistry II builds upon the foundational concepts introduced in General Chemistry I, delving deeper into the principles of chemical reactions and molecular interactions. Topics typically include chemical kinetics, chemical equilibrium, acid-base theory, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and an introduction to coordination compounds. Students will develop problem-solving skills through laboratory experiments and quantitative analysis, gaining a comprehensive understanding of the chemical processes that govern both organic and inorganic systems. This course is essential for students pursuing further study in chemistry, biology, engineering, and health sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Principles of Chemistry The Molecular Science 1st Edition by John W. Moore

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19 Chapters

1129 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Nature of Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a chemical reaction, 36 g of water is broken down to yield 32 g of oxygen gas and 4 g of hydrogen gas. This is an example of:

A) The Law of Constant Composition.

B) The Law of Multiple Proportion .

C) The Law of Conservation of Energy.

D) The Law of Conservation of Mass.

E) Dalton's Atomic Theory.

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is a qualitative statement?

A) The compound is contaminated.

B) The reactants are 99.95% pure.

C) The sample has a mass of 85 grams.

D) The reaction produced 112 g of a pure white solid.

E) The gas volume is twenty-two liters.

Answer: A

Q3) Burning of hydrogen fuel is a(n) _____________ change. Answer: chemical

Q4) Color is a(n) _____________ property.

Answer: physical

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) There are ____ millimeters in a centimeter.

A) 1 × 10<sup>1</sup>

B) 1 × 10<sup>2</sup>

C) 1 × 10<sup>3</sup>

D) 1 × 10<sup>-1</sup>

E) 1 × 10<sup>-2</sup>

Answer: A

Q2) Which element is highly reactive?

A) Cu

B) Kr

C) C

D) Al

E) K

Answer: E

Q3) The metric prefix _____________ means one millionth.

Answer: micro

Q4) Write the atomic symbol for an atom that contains 24 protons, 24 electrons and 26 neutrons.

Answer: 11ea782d_fd70_540d_bbd5_b1588926a94a_TB5061_11

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Chapter 3: Chemical Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about constitutional isomers is true?

A) Constitutional isomers have the same physical properties.

B) Constitutional isomers always contain identical covalent bonding patterns.

C) Constitutional isomers have the same molecular formulas.

D) Constitutional isomers have the same chemical properties.

E) Constitutional isomers only occur among straight chain compounds.

Answer: C

Q2) Caffeine has the empirical formula C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>5</sub>N<sub>2</sub>O and an approximate molecular weight of 194.2 g/mol. What is its molecular formula?

A) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>5</sub>N<sub>2</sub>O

B) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>NO

C) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>10</sub>N<sub>4</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

D) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>4</sub>N<sub>4</sub>O<sub>4</sub>

E) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

Answer: C

Q3) Name the alkane with the formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>.

Answer: propane

Q4) The molecular formula for copper (II) oxide is _____________. Answer: CuO

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Chapter 4: Quantities of Reactants and Products

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Sample Questions

Q1) The complete combustion of a hydrocarbon produces 90.36 g of CO<sub>2</sub> and 46.25 g of H<sub>2</sub>O. What is the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon?

A) CH

B) CH<sub>2</sub>

C) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>

D) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>

E) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>

Q2) A reaction has a theoretical yield of 48.23 g. It produces 28.81 g of product. Calculate the percent yield.

Q3) A combination reaction is considered the opposite of a(n) _____________ reaction.

Q4) What is the maximum possible quantity of product obtained from a chemical reaction called?

A) percent yield

B) molecular weight of the product

C) stoichiometric coefficients

D) limiting reactant

E) theoretical yield

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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a nonelectrolyte?

A) Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>

B) NaCl

C) KI

D) HBr

E) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

Q2) A chemical reaction for which spectator ions are deleted is called a(n) _____________ ionic equation.

Q3) A neutralization reaction involves the reaction of a(n) _____________ with a(n)

Q4) Which of the methods described below will yield 500 mL of a 0.100 M KMnO<sub>4</sub> solution?

A) Add exactly 500 mL of water to 7.90 g of KMnO<sub>4</sub>.

B) Add exactly 500 mL of water to KMnO<sub>4</sub>.

C) Dissolve 7.90 g of KMnO<sub>4</sub> in water and dilute to exactly 500 mL.

D) Dissolve 15.8 g KMnO<sub>4</sub> in water and dilute to exactly 500 mL.

E) Dilute 220 mL of 1.00 M KMnO<sub>4</sub> to exactly 500 mL.

Q5) When an element is _____________, it loses electrons.

Q6) Molarity is a unit of solution concentration expressed in moles per

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Chapter 6: Energy and Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the quantity of ice required to absorb exactly 50 kJ of energy when the ice warms from -50.0°C to -10.0°C (specific heat of ice = 2.06 J g<sup>-1</sup> °C<sup>-1</sup>).

A) 0.485 g

B) 0.607 g

C) 485 g

D) 607 g

E) 2.43 × 10<sup>3</sup> g

Q2) Which of the following statements is false?

A) Breaking bonds is always endothermic.

B) Bond enthalpies quantify the energy change for the complete separation of two bonded atoms in a molecule at constant pressure.

C) Bond enthalpy values are based on molecules in the gas phase.

D) Breaking weak bonds and making an equal number of strong bonds is exothermic.

E) Breaking weak bonds and making a greater number of equally weak bonds is endothermic.

Q3) According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, the total _____________ of the universe is constant.

Q4) Energy of motion is called _____________.

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Chapter 7: Electron Configurations and the Periodic Table

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Sample Questions

Q1) As one moves closer to the nucleus, what happens to the value of the principal quantum number?

Q2) Which statement below is false?

A) The wavelength of light is the distance between two corresponding points in the wave pattern.

B) The frequency of light is the number of waves that pass a given point in a second.

C) The frequency of light increases as wavelength decreases.

D) The higher the frequency of light, the greater its energy.

E) The higher the frequency of light, the longer the wavelength.

Q3) What is the phenomenon that occurs when certain metals emit electrons when illuminated by particular wavelengths of light?

A) Planck's constant

B) photoelectric effect

C) emission spectrum

D) quantum theory

E) electromagnetic spectrum

Q4) In a vacuum, all light travels with the same _____________

Q5) Which halogen has the most negative electron affinity?

Q6) Electrons in the lowest _____________ level are in the ground state.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Covalent Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which element is the least electronegative?

A) calcium

B) cesium

C) iron

D) barium

E) potassium

Q2) Which statement concerning the interaction between two atoms is incorrect?

A) If two atoms are widely separated, there is very little attraction between them.

B) When two atoms are one bond length apart, the electrons on one atom are attracted to the nucleus of the other atom.

C) When two atoms have very little separation between them, repulsion occurs.

D) A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared between the bonded atoms.

E) As atoms get closer together, their electrons attract each other.

Q3) The ____________ of an element is its ability to pull electrons towards itself when participating in a covalent bond.

Q4) The cyanide ion, CN<sup>-</sup>, has a(n) ____________ of -1 on the carbon and 0 on the nitrogen.

Q5) Oxygen atoms contribute _____________ electrons to a Lewis Dot structure.

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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which interaction(s) exist(s) between ClF<sub>3</sub> molecules?

I. London forces.

II. ion-dipole forces

III. dipole-dipole attractions

IV. Hydrogen bonding

A) I only

B) I and III

C) II and III

D) III only

E) III and IV

Q2) Use the VSEPR model to predict the electron-pair geometry and bond angles of PF<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>.

A) octahedral, 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

B) square planar, 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

C) tetrahedral, 109.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

D) triangular pyramidal, 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

E) tetrahedral, 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Gases and the Atmosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which description of the kinetic-molecular theory of gases is true?

A) The space between two gas molecules is much greater than the size of each gas molecule.

B) The forces of attraction and repulsion do not exist for gas molecules.

C) Colliding gas molecules have the same speed before and after the collision.

D) Gas molecules move randomly in all directions with the same speed.

E) Gas molecules lose energy with every collision and will eventually stop moving.

Q2) Which statement about greenhouse gases and global warming is false?

A) Global warming increases with increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

B) Planting trees would reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide.

C) Global warming can cause flooding, weather changes, and changes in agricultural patterns.

D) Human activity is the sole source of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

E) Computer models are used to predict future global temperature changes.

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12

Chapter 11: Liquids, Solids, and Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about network solids is false?

A) Graphite and diamond are examples of network solids.

B) Network solids consist of nonmetal atoms connected by covalent bonds.

C) Graphite is an example of a three-dimensional network solid.

D) All atoms in a network solid are connected to all other atoms through a network of bonds.

E) Silicates are an important class of network solids.

Q2) What is the correct order for the surface tension of the following substances?

A) CHCl<sub>3</sub> < H<sub>2</sub>O < C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>

B) H<sub>2</sub>O < CHCl<sub>3</sub> < C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>

C) CHCl<sub>3</sub> < C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub> < H<sub>2</sub>O

D) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub> < CHCl<sub>3</sub> < H<sub>2</sub>O

E) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub> < H<sub>2</sub>O < CHCl<sub>3</sub>

Q3) Which choice is an example of a metallic solid?

A) NaCl

B) crystal

C) iron

D) quartz

E) glass

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Chemical Kinetics: Rates of Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The kinetics of a reaction are observed to be third-order. The least likely mechanism

A) involves three molecules reacting together in a single step.

B) involves two molecules reacting in one step, and the third in a subsequent step.

C) involves a single intermediate.

D) involves more than one intermediate.

E) involves a fast step followed by a slow step.

Q2) The half-life for the first-order conversion of A to B is 2.22 hr. What is the rate constant?

A) 0.312 hr<sup>-1</sup>

B) 0.465 hr<sup>-1</sup>

C) 1.54 hr<sup>-1</sup>

D) 2.22 hr<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>

E) 3.20 hr<sup>-1</sup>

Q3) When studying kinetics, it is more accurate to measure instantaneous reaction rates at particular times rather than the average rates of reaction over time intervals. Explain why.

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Chapter 13: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true for an equilibrium system?

A) in an equilibrium system, molecules that are higher in energy occur less often

B) if there are more product molecules than reactant molecules, entropy favors the products in an equilibrium system

C) the higher the temperature is, the less important the energy effect (DH) becomes

D) the higher the temperature is, the more the entropy effect (dispersal of energy) determines the position of equilibrium

E) all of these

Q2) If the value of K<sub>c</sub> for a given reaction at a given temperature is a small number, the energy of the products is likely to be ____ the energy of the reactants because ____.

A) greater than; the value of K<sub>c</sub> favors the reactants

B) less than; the value of K<sub>c</sub> favors the reactants

C) the same as; the value of K<sub>c</sub> favors neither the products nor the reactants

D) greater than; the value of K<sub>c</sub> favors the products

E) less than; the value of K<sub>c</sub> favors the products

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Chapter 14: The Chemistry of Solutes and Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Increasing the temperature of water containing a dissolved gas will almost always

A) decrease the solubility of the gas

B) increase the solubility of the gas

C) have no effect on the solubility of the gas

D) decrease the solubility of the gas only if the gas is one that naturally occurs in the atmosphere

E) increase the solubility of the gas only if the gas is one that naturally occurs in the atmosphere

Q2) Calculate the boiling point of a mixture where 95.0 g of formic acid, H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>, is dissolved in 250 g of acetic acid. Acetic acid has a K<sub>b</sub> of 2.93<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C/m and boils at 118<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. Assume that formic acid does not ionize when dissolved in acetic acid, and that formic acid is non-volatile.

A) 118<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

B) 142<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

C) 136<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

D) 115<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

E) 126<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following salts forms an acidic solution when dissolved in water?

A) LiF

B) K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

C) NH<sub>4</sub>ClO<sub>4</sub>

D) NaOCl

E) NaNO<sub>3</sub>

Q2) The pH of a 0.172 M solution of benzoic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 6.31 × 10<sup>-5</sup>) is

A) 2.48.

B) 3.44.

C) 4.37.

D) 4.96.

E) 5.63.

Q3) The reaction between the ion of a weak acid or a weak base and water is called a(n) ____ reaction.

A) autoionization

B) hydrolysis

C) decomposition

D) neutralization

E) proteomic

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Chapter 16: Additional Aqueous Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following indicator(s) would be most suitable for the titration of acetic acid (pK<sub>a</sub> = 4.74) with NaOH? Your choices are:

I. bromothymol blue (transition range pH 6 to 8)

II. methyl red (transition range pH 4 to 6.3)

III. phenolphthalein (transition range pH 8.3 to 11)

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) I or II only

E) I, II, or III

Q2) Silver chloride has K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-10</sup>. What is its molar solubility in water?

A) 9.0 × 10<sup>-11</sup> M

B) 3.6 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M

C) 6.7 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

D) 9.5 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

E) 1.3 × 10<sup>-5</sup> M

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18

Chapter 17: Thermodynamics: Directionality of Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) For a particular reaction, the value of DH<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>= +98.8 kJ and DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> = +141.5 J/K. This reaction is

A) product-favored, because DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>universe</sub> is positive B) reactant-favored, because DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>universe</sub> is positive C) reactant-favored, because DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>universe</sub> is negative

D) product-favored, because DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>universe</sub> is negative E) cannot determine without further information

Q2) The boiling point of tin is 232<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. The heat of vaporization of tin at its boiling point is 247 kJ. The entropy of vaporization is A) 2045 J/K.

B) 1065 J/K.

C) 939 J/K.

D) 489 J/K.

E) 2.04 J/K.

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Chapter 18: Electrochemistry and Its Applications

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Sample Questions

Q1) An electrolytic reaction is a system in which

A) the reaction conditions are manipulated to change the value of E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>cell</sub> to a favorable one.

B) a reactant-favored reaction is forced to produce electricity by the input of heat or light.

C) the same element is both oxidized and reduced.

D) electricity is used to produce a chemical reaction.

E) a chemical reaction is used to produce electricity.

Q2) Calculate the mass of cobalt that will be deposited when a current of 2.00 A is passed through a solution of CoSO<sub>4</sub> for 10.0 hours.

A) 6.11 × 10<sup>-3</sup> g

B) 0.366 g

C) 4.40 g

D) 8.72 g

E) 22.0 g

Q3) Is the part of a flashlight battery that is marked "+" the anode or the cathode? Explain why it is labeled in that way.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) <sup>90</sup>Sr is an isotope produced from atmospheric testing of nuclear bombs. If nuclear testing was stopped in 1960, what percentage of radioactivity due to <sup>90</sup>Sr remained in 2000? The half-life of <sup>90</sup>Sr is 28.5 years.

A) 62.2 %

B) 37.8 %

C) 12.3 %

D) 0.85 %

E) virtually 0 %

Q2) A process for disposing of nuclear waste by converting it to an inert glass-like substance is called

A) extraction.

B) incineration.

C) regeneration.

D) reprocessing.

E) vitrification.

Q3) Explain the meaning of the term critical mass in relation to the use of a chain reaction for the production of nuclear power.

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