
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
General Chemistry II continues the foundational study of chemistry, building on concepts introduced in General Chemistry I. This course covers topics such as chemical kinetics, chemical equilibrium, acid-base chemistry, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and introductory topics in nuclear and organic chemistry. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving exercises, students develop a deeper understanding of molecular interactions, energy changes, and reaction mechanisms, equipping them with the knowledge to analyze and solve more complex chemical problems.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry A Molecular Approach 4th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Q1) Identify the type of energy that is NOT chemical energy.
A) battery
B) gasoline in a car
C) light bulb
D) ball rolling down the hill
E) food
Answer: D
Q2) Choose the compound from the list below.
A) silver
B) methanol
C) helium
D) tin
E) sodium
Answer: B
Q3) Identify a gas.
A) definite volume and definite shape
B) definite volume and no definite shape
C) definite shape and no definite volume
D) no definite shape and no definite volume
Answer: D
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Q1) The average atomic mass for silver is ________.
A) 28.09
B) 14
C) 107.87
D) 47
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following elements is a good conductor of heat and electricity?
A) carbon
B) chlorine
C) xenon
D) aluminum
Answer: D
Q3) An atom of <sup>13</sup>C contains ________ protons.
A) 6
B) 19
C) 7
D) 9
E) 13
Answer: A
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Q1) How many chloride ions are there in 7.50 mol of aluminum chloride?
A) 3.00 chloride ions
B) 22.5 chloride ions
C) 4.52 × 10<sup>24</sup> chloride ions
D) 1.35 × 10<sup>25</sup> chloride ions
Answer: D
Q2) Balance the following equation.
_____ C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>20</sub> + _____ O<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub> _____ H<sub>2</sub>O + _____ CO<sub>2</sub>
Answer: C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>20</sub> + 14 O<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub> 10 H<sub>2</sub>O + 9 CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Calculate the molar mass for Ba(ClO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>.
A) 336.23 g/mol
B) 236.78 g/mol
C) 99.45 g/mol
D) 137.33 g/mol
E) 188.78 g/mol
Answer: A
Q4) Give the name for HNO<sub>2</sub>.
Answer: nitrous acid

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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnesium burns in air with a dazzling brilliance to produce magnesium oxide: 2 Mg(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 MgO(s)
How many moles of O<sub>2</sub> are consumed when 2.10 mol of magnesium burns?
A) 0.0864
B) 0.952
C) 2.10
D) 4.20
E) 1.05
Q2) Which of the following compounds is NOT an Arrhenius acid?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub> </sub>NH<sub> </sub>
C) HNO<sub>2</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
Q3) If 100.mL of 0.100 M Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is added to 200.mL of 0.150 M NaCl,what is the concentration of Na<sup>+</sup> ions in the final solution? Assume that the volumes are additive.
A) 0.133 M
B) 0.167 M
C) 0.250 M
D) 0.350 M
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Q1) The density of a gas is 1.43 g/L at STP.What is the gas?
A) H<sub>2</sub>
B) F<sub>2</sub>
C) Kr<sub> </sub>
D) O<sub>2</sub>
E) N<sub>2</sub>
Q2) How many liters of O<sub>2</sub> gas at 25°C and 1.00 atm pressure are needed to react with 30.12 grams of potassium hydride according to the chemical equation shown below? 2 KH(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ K<sub>2</sub>O(s)
A) 4.59 L
B) 9.19 L
C) 18.4 L
D) 36.8 L
Q3) Identify the element or molecule that has the highest diffusion rate.
A) H<sub>2</sub>
B) N<sub>2</sub>
C) Ar<sub> </sub>
D) Cl<sub>2</sub>
E) Rn
Q4) Give the major gas in dry air.
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Q1) Use the H°<sub>f</sub> and H°<sub>rxn </sub>information provided to calculate H°<sub>f</sub> for SO<sub>3</sub>(g): H°<sub>f (kJ/mol)</sub> 2 SO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 SO<sub>3</sub>(g) H°<sub>rxn </sub>= -198 kJ SO<sub>2</sub>(g)-297
A) -792 kJ/mol
B) -248 kJ/mol
C) -495 kJ/mol
D) -578 kJ/mol
E) -396 kJ/mol
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) State functions do not depend on the path taken to arrive at a particular state.
B) DE<sub>rxn</sub> can be determined using constant volume calorimetry.
C) Energy is neither created nor destroyed, excluding nuclear reactions.
D) H<sub>rx</sub><sub>n</sub> can be determined using constant pressure calorimetry.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) Define chemical energy.
Q4) Where does the energy absorbed during an endothermic reaction go?
Q5) Explain the difference between H and DE.
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Q1) Which of the following occurs as the wavelength of a photon increases?
A) The frequency decreases.
B) The energy increases.
C) The speed decreases.
D) Planck's constant increases.
E) None of the above occurs as the wavelength of a photon increases.
Q2) Calculate the wavelength (in nm)of the blue light emitted by a mercury lamp with a frequency of 6.88 × 10<sup>14</sup> Hz.
A) 229 nm
B) 436 nm
C) 206 nm
D) 485 nm
E) 675 nm
Q3) How many different values of m<sub>l</sub> are possible in the 4d sublevel?
A) 2
B) 0
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Q4) Why don't we observe the wavelength of everyday macroscopic objects?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the following in order of increasing IE<sub>1</sub>. N F As
A) N < As < F
B) As < N < F
C) F < N < As
D) As < F < N
E) F < As < N
Q2) Which of the following have the same number of valence electrons?
A) Cs, Bi, At
B) Al, Ge, Sb
C) P, As, Sb
D) Xe, Rn, At
E) Fr, Ra, Lr
Q3) When filling degenerate orbitals,electrons fill them singly first,with parallel spins.This is known as (the)
A) Pauli exclusion principle.
B) Hund's rule.
C) Aufbau principle.
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
Q4) Why do successive ionization energies increase?
Q5) Why do Li,Na,and K have similar chemical properties?
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Q1) Place the following in order of decreasing magnitude of lattice energy. NaF RbBr KCl
A) RbBr > NaF > KCl
B) NaF > KCl > RbBr
C) KCl > NaF > RbBr
D) NaF > RbBr > KCl
E) RbBr > KCl > NaF
Q2) Which of the following contains an atom that does NOT obey the octet rule?
A) LiF
B) SnO<sub>2</sub>
C) BrF<sub>3</sub>
D) IF
E) O<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Define bond energy.
Q4) How many lone pairs are on the Br atom in BrF<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q5) List the most electronegative atom.
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Q1) Soap works with water because
A) the polar head and the nonpolar tail attracts water.
B) the polar head attracts the grease and the nonpolar tail attracts water.
C) the polar head attracts water and the nonpolar tail attracts the grease.
D) the polar head and the nonpolar tail attracts the grease.
Q2) What is the molecular geometry of NCl<sub>3</sub>?
A) T-shaped
B) tetrahedral
C) trigonal planar
D) trigonal pyramidal
E) octahedral
Q3) Give the hybridization for the Br in BrF<sub>5</sub>.
A) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>
B) sp<sup>3</sup>d
C) sp<sup>3</sup>
D) sp<sup>2</sup>
E) sp
Q4) Give the electron geometry,molecular geometry,and hybridization for both carbons in CH<sub>3</sub>COOH.
Q5) According to molecular orbital theory,what is an antibonding orbital?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the characteristics of a liquid.
A) indefinite shape and volume
B) indefinite shape, but definite volume
C) definite shape and volume
D) none of the above
E) all of the above
Q2) Capillary action occurs because
A) cohesive forces are greater than adhesive forces.
B) adhesive forces equal adhesive forces.
C) adhesive forces are greater than cohesive forces.
D) surface tension is high.
E) surface tension is low.
Q3) Identify the place which has the highest boiling point of water.
A) Death Valley, 282 feet below sea level
B) A pressurized passenger jet, 39,000 feet
C) Panama City, Florida, sea level
D) Mt. Everest, 29,035 feet
E) Denver, Colorado, 5,280 feet
Q4) Define volatile.
Q5) Define viscosity.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between the conduction band and the valence band.
Q2) Cesium has a radius of 272 pm and crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure.What is the edge length of the unit cell?
A) 314 pm
B) 385 pm
C) 544 pm
D) 628 pm
Q3) Identify a use for cement.
A) beakers
B) bridges
C) furniture
D) wooden decks
E) bricks
Q4) Which of the following is considered an atomic solid?
A) F<sub>2</sub>
B) CsBr
C) N<sub>2</sub>
D) Nb
E) None of these is an atomic solid.
Q5) Give the edge length in terms of r for a simple cubic cell.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parts per million requires a multiplication factor of ________.
A) 10<sup>-9</sup>
B) 10<sup>-3</sup>
C) 10<sup>3</sup>
D) 10<sup>15</sup>
E) 10<sup>6</sup>
Q2) A solution is prepared by dissolving 16.2 g of benzene (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>)in 282 g of carbon tetrachloride (CCl<sub>4</sub>).The concentration of benzene in this solution is ________ molal.The molar masses of C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub> and CCl<sub>4</sub> are 78.1 g/mol and 154 g/mol,respectively.
A) 7.36 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
B) 0.736
C) 0.102
D) 0.0543
E) 5.43
Q3) Give the preparation of rock candy.
Q4) Define colloid.
Q5) Define osmosis.
Q6) Explain why water does not dissolve in gasoline.
Q7) Define Tyndall effect.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the rate-determining step.
A) the slowest step
B) the faster step
C) the fast step
D) always the last step
E) always the second step
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The half-life of a zero-order reaction is dependent on concentration.
B) The half-life of a second-order reaction is not dependent on concentration.
C) The rate of second-order reactions is dependent on concentration.
D) The rate of a first-order reaction is dependent on concentration.
E) None of the statements is FALSE.
Q3) The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 0.54 s<sup>-1</sup>.What is the half-life of this reaction if the initial concentration is 0.33 M?
A) 0.089 s
B) 1.8 s
C) 0.31 s
D) 5.6 s
E) 1.3 s
Q4) What is a catalyst and what function does it serve?
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Q1) The reaction below has a K<sub>c</sub> value of 1.0 × 10<sup>12</sup>.What is the value of K<sub>p</sub> for this reaction at 200 K? 2 SO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 SO<sub>3</sub>(g)
A) 6.1 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
B) 1.0 × 10<sup>12</sup>
C) 1.6 × 10<sup>-11</sup>
D) 1.6 × 10<sup>13</sup>
E) 6.1 × 10<sup>10</sup>
Q2) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium.What will happen if O<sub>2</sub> is added to the reaction? 4 FeS<sub>2</sub>(s)+ 11 O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)+ 8 SO<sub>2</sub>(g)
A) The equilibrium constant will increase.
B) The equilibrium will change in the direction of the reactants.
C) The equilibrium will change in the direction of the products.
D) No change in equilibrium is observed.
E) The equilibrium constant will decrease.
Q3) Define Le Chatelier's Principle.
Q4) Can the K<sub>p</sub> and K<sub>c</sub> for a reaction ever have the same value? Why or why not?
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Q1) Which one of the following will form a basic solution in water?
A) KC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
B) KCN
C) NaClO<sub>2</sub>
D) LiBrO
E) All of the above will form basic solutions.
Q2) Calculate the pH of a 1.60 M CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>3</sub>Cl solution.K<sub>b</sub> for methylamine,CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>,is 3.7 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>.
A) 1.61
B) 5.18
C) 8.82
D) 12.39
Q3) Calculate the pOH in an aqueous solution with a pH of 7.85 at 25°C.
A) 4.15
B) 5.15
C) 6.15
D) 7.15
E) 8.15
Q4) What is the difference between a strong and weak acid?
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Q1) A sample contains Ba<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>,<sub> </sub>HgS,AgCl,NH<sub>4</sub>Br,and CoS.Identify the precipitate after the addition of 6 M HCl; then H<sub>2</sub>S and 0.2 M HCl; and then OH<sup>-</sup> to a pH of 8.
A) Ba<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B) HgS
C) AgCl
D) NH<sub>4</sub>Br
E) CoS
Q2) Determine the solubility of the ions that is calculated from the Ksp for Mg<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>.
A) 2S<sup>3</sup>
B) S<sup>3</sup>
C) 4S<sup>3</sup>
D) S<sup>2</sup>
E) 2S<sup>2</sup>
Q3) Consider the K<sub>sp</sub> values for two compounds: MZ,K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.5 × 10<sup>-2</sup><sup>0</sup> and MZ<sub>2</sub>,K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.5 × 10<sup>-20</sup>.Why don't these compounds have the same molar solubility?
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Q1) Give the name of the reaction that does not achieve the theoretical limits with respect to free energy in thermodynamics.
A) reversible reaction
B) forward reaction
C) reverse reaction
D) equilibrium reaction
E) irreversible reaction
Q2) Calculate G<sub>rxn</sub> at 298 K under the conditions shown below for the following reaction. CaCO<sub>3</sub>(s) CaO(s)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g) G° = +131.1 kJ
P(CO<sub>2</sub>)= 0.033 atm
A) -49.3 kJ
B) -8.32 kJ
C) +122.6 kJ
D) +39.7 kJ
E) +43.3 kJ
Q3) How many microstates are possible in a collection of four particles that are present,with two particles each in two connected flasks? Sketch them below.
Q4) Why can endothermic reactions be spontaneous?
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Q1) Balance the following redox reaction if it occurs in acidic solution.What are the coefficients in front of H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>and H<sub>2</sub>O in the balanced reaction? MnO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(aq) Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g)
A) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 5, H<sub>2</sub>O = 8
B) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 1, H<sub>2</sub>O = 1
C) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 5, H<sub>2</sub>O = 1
D) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 1, H<sub>2</sub>O = 4 E) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 3, H<sub>2</sub>O = 2
Q2) Use the standard half-cell potentials listed below to calculate the standard cell potential for the following reaction occurring in an electrochemical cell at 25°C.(The equation is balanced.) Pb(s)+ Br<sub>2</sub>(l) Pb<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 Br (aq) Pb<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e Pb(s)E° = -0.13 V Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> 2 Br<sup>-</sup>(aq)E° = +1.07 V
A) +1.20 V
B) +0.94 V
C) -0.94 V
D) -1.20 V
E) -0.60 V
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Q1) Atoms with Z > ________ are radioactive and decay in one or more steps involving mostly alpha and beta decay.
A) 72
B) 130
C) 83
D) 150
E) 30
Q2) Why is an alpha emitter much more harmful if is ingested than when applied to the skin?
Q3) Describe what is meant by the term "valley of stability"?
Q4) Identify the common radiotracers used in the diagnosis of medical problems.
A) fluorine-17
B) iodine-132
C) thallium-202
D) iron-58
E) iodine-131
Q5) List two problems associated with nuclear power.
Q6) Explain the concept of "magic numbers."
Q7) Define chain reaction in terms of the fission of uranium nucleus.
Q8) Define radioactivity.
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Q1) Identify the compound that is in nail polish remover.
A) benzaldehyde
B) butanone
C) acetone
D) butanal
E) vanillin
Q2) Identify the alkane with the highest boiling point.
A) pentane
B) butane
C) ethane
D) methane
E) propane
Q3) Identify the alcohol in rubbing alcohol.
A) 2-pentanol
B) isopropyl alcohol
C) methanol
D) 1-butanol
E) ethanol
Q4) What is meant by the term "structural isomer"? Draw a structural isomer of CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub>.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Monosaccharides are the building blocks of amino acids.
B) Nucleotides are the building blocks of polysaccharides.
C) Fatty acids are responsible for DNA replication.
D) Polysaccharides are the building blocks of amino acids.
E) Carbohydrates are water soluble and responsible for short term energy storage.
Q2) Give the definition of biochemistry.
A) the study of the chemistry of living organisms
B) the study of the biology of dead organisms
C) the study of the chemistry of dead organisms
D) the study of the biology of living organisms
E) the study of polymers
Q3) How do cis- and trans-fats differ?
Q4) Why does the melting point of fatty acids decrease with the number of double bonds present?
Q5) What is a codon?
Q6) Why are lipids well-suited as structural components of cell membranes?
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?
A) Phosphoric acid is used to produce the "fizziness" in soda.
B) Sodium phosphate is an additive in baked goods to give them a longer shelf life.
C) Phosphorus can range in oxidation state from -3 to +5.
D) The phosphorus in the phosphite ion has an oxidation state of - 3
E) None of the above is true.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Coke is composed of charcoal and air.
B) Activated carbon has a low surface area.
C) Heating wood in the absence of air produces charcoal.
D) Carbon monoxide is nontoxic.
E) None of the above is true.
Q3) Identify the compound that smells like a rotten egg.
A) SO<sub> </sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D) S<sub>4</sub>
E) H<sub>2</sub>S
Q4) Describe the Frasch process for obtaining sulfur.
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Q1) Identify the element with the highest thermal conductivity.
A) copper
B) vanadium
C) silver
D) iron
Q2) Identify the metal that has the most brightly colored ions.
A) magnesium
B) manganese
C) copper
D) chromium
E) cobalt
Q3) Identify the element that has the most crystal structures at varying temperatures.
A) nickel
B) copper
C) vanadium
D) cobalt
E) manganese
Q4) Describe the difference between a substitutional alloy and an interstitial alloy.
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Q1) Identify the geometry of [Zn(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>+2</sup>.
A) tetrahedral
B) octahedral
C) linear
D) square planar
E) trigonal planar
Q2) Identify the isomers that have ligands with different spatial arrangements about the metal ions.
A) linkage isomers
B) geometric isomers
C) coordination isomers
D) optical isomers
E) structural isomers
Q3) What type of geometry (according to valence bond theory)does V exhibit in the complex ion: [V(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>?
A) square bipyramidal
B) see-saw
C) trigonal pyramidal
D) bent
E) square planar
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