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General Chemistry II is a continuation of introductory chemistry, exploring more advanced concepts in chemical reactions, kinetics, equilibrium, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and coordination compounds. The course builds on foundational principles, emphasizing quantitative problem-solving and laboratory techniques. Topics such as acids and bases, solubility, reaction rates, and the interplay of energy and matter are introduced, providing students with a deeper understanding of chemical processes in both theoretical and practical contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo
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Q1) What is the name of the element whose symbol is "Co"?
A)Carbon
B)Chromium
C)Coal
D)Cobalt
Answer: D
Q2) Evaporated ethanol can be isolated by cooling, without changing its disinfectant properties.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is the name given to the element with the symbol "As"?
A)silver
B)argon
C)antimony
D)arsenic
E)astatine
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following temperatures are not possible?
A)2000 °C
B)-425 °F
C)-425 °C
D)5 K
Answer: C
Q2) The prefix micro- indicates one millionth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) How many significant digits are there in the number 6046.2?
A)4
B)3
C)5
D)1
Answer: C
Q4) Specific heat may be measured as cal. g/°C.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which representative element is found in the fourth group and fifth period?
A)Br
B)Te
C)Sn
D)Ge
Answer: C
Q2) lead-207
Answer: atomic number 82, mass number 207, symbol Pb
Q3) How is the term "atomic number" defined for a given atom or isotope?
A)as the mass of one mole of that element or isotope
B)as the sum of the protons, neutrons, and electrons it contains
C)as the sum of the protons and neutrons its nucleus contains
D)as the number of protons its nucleus contains
Answer: D
Q4) Which of the following elements is an actinide?
A)Np
B)Pr
C)W
D)Fr
Answer: A

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Sample Questions
Q1) Should an oxygen atom (O)gain two electrons, it would then have the same ground state electronic configuration as an atom of neon (Ne), thus satisfying the octet rule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the number of outer shell electrons in fluorine?
A)2
B)5
C)7
D)9
Q3) The wavelengths in infrared radiation are larger than those of the ultraviolet region. A)True
B)False
Q4) The f-block represents a region on the periodic table which is 10 elements in width. A)True
B)False
Q5) Which element is the more reactive, sodium (Na)or potassium (K)?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methane has ________ covalent bonds and ________ lone pairs.
A)4; 2
B)4; 1
C)4; 0
D)2; 4
Q2) The number of valence electrons that belong to the oxygens in the carbonate anion is ________.
A)15
B)18
C)20
D)24
Q3) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) Metals are generally more electronegative than non-metals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When covalent bonds are broken energy is released.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Would you expect a chemical bond formed between the elements boron and chlorine to be ionic or covalent in character?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules is not linear?
A)hydrogen cyanide
B)beryllium chloride
C)boron trifluoride
D)acetylene, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>
Q2) In which of the three phases of matter would you expect hydrogen bonding between water molecules to be the strongest?
A)solid phase (H<sub>2</sub>O Os very close together)
B)liquid phase (H<sub>2</sub>O Os more separated than solid phase)
C)gas phase (H<sub>2</sub>O Os much farther apart than liquid phase)
D)It is equally strong in all three phases.
Q3) When drawing the three-dimensional structure diagram of a molecule the bold line
A)projects out from the page
B)goes back behind the page
C)the bond is in the plane of the page
D)One cannot say unless the formula of the molecule is known.
Q4) SO<sub>3</sub>
Q5) CSe<sub>2</sub>
Q6) PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3</sup><sup>-</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following experiences the strongest London forces?
A)carbon tetrachloride
B)water
C)hydrogen
D)helium
Q2) The gas to liquid change of state is called ________.
A)sublimation
B)condensation
C)evaporation
D)melting
Q3) copper (II)carbonate, CuCO<sub>3</sub> (or cupric carbonate
Q4) Which of the following is not a solid at 0 °C?
A)salt
B)carbon dioxide
C)sugar
D)iron
Q5) calcium chloride, CaC1<sub>2</sub>
Q6) chromium, Cr
Q7) ethanol, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O, m.p.: -117 °C
Q8) magnesium chloride, MgC1<sub>2</sub>, m.p.: 714 °C
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Q1) Which of the following equations is not a decomposition reaction?
A)CaSO<sub>4 </sub> 2H<sub>2</sub>O CaSO<sub>4</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
B)NaClO<sub>3</sub> NaCl + O<sub>2</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O + O<sub>2</sub>
D)K + H<sub>2</sub>O KOH + H<sub>2</sub>
Q2) What is the coefficient for iron after the following reaction is balanced Fe + O<sub>2</sub> Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>?
A)1
B)3
C)4
D)6
Q3) Bond breaking releases energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The equation Zn + CuCl<sub>2</sub> Cu + ZnCl<sub>2</sub> is an example of a ________ reaction.
A)combination
B)single replacement
C)double replacement
D)decomposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sample is composed of 2.78 g iron and 1.19 g oxygen. The empirical formula is
A)FeO<sub>2</sub>
B)Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
C)Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)FeO
Q2) What is the percentage by mass of iron (Fe)in the mineral hematite (Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>)?
A)40%
B)60%
C)70%
D)30%
Q3) Which of the following compounds has its chlorine composition equal to 83.5%?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>ClO<sub>2</sub>
B)C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>17</sub>ClS
C)CCl<sub>4</sub>
D)CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
Q4) Determine the number of grams of copper present in a 4.0 kg sample of the mineral chalcopyrite (CuFeS<sub>2</sub>).
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assign the oxidation state of:
a)each rhenium, in Re<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>
b)zirconium, in ZrCl<sub>4</sub>
c)sulfur in Na<sub>2</sub>S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
d)iodine in KIO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which atom in the compound KClO<sub>3</sub> has a negative oxidation state?
A)potassium
B)oxygen
C)both potassium and chlorine
D)both chlorine and oxygen
Q3) Identify the reduced species in the following chemical process (a lead storage battery): Pb + PbO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sup>+</sup> + 2HSO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
2PbSO<sub>4</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O .
A)PbO<sub>2</sub>
B)Pb
C)H<sup>+</sup>
D)2HSO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) The highest oxidation state sulfur can have is in the sulfate form.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) 88 g of carbon dioxide gas will occupy ________ at STP.
A)11.2 L
B)22.4 L
C)44.8 L
D)67.2 L
Q2) The density of carbon dioxide as STP is ________.
A)0.46 g/ L
B)1.97 g/ L
C)3.94 g/ L
D)5.62 g/ L
Q3) Assuming that the pressure and quantity of a gas sample remain constant, what will be the final volume of a 4.86 L sample of a gas originally at 281 °C when heated to 300 °C?
A)5.03 L
B)3.89 L
C)2.92 L
D)2.78 L
Q4) The molar volume of 32 g of oxygen gas is 22.4 L at STP.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)Difference in energy attributed to solvent separation consumes energy.
B)Difference in energy attributed to solute separation consumes energy.
C)Solvation releases energy.
D)All the above statements are correct.
Q2) Henry's law gives the relationship between ________.
A)colligative properties and the freezing point
B)solubility of a gas and concentration
C)solubility of a gas and pressure
D)hydrophobic and hydrophilic solutions
Q3) The process of surrounding solute ions with solvent molecules is called solvation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three ways a given solution's "percent composition" can be described?
Q5) Transparent solutions are examples of homogeneous matter.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Industrial chemists often have their choice of catalysts to use when designing, for example, a factory that produces ammonia. Explain why biochemists studying life processes (such as protein metabolism)do not have the same variety of choices for which enzyme they would use.
Q2) It is possible to determine a given reaction's mechanism without performing any experiments of any kind.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true about enzymes?
A)They speed up reactions in a selective fashion.
B)They are very large proteins.
C)They contain specifically shaped pockets that fit only specific reactant molecules.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?
A)burning propane gas in a barbecue
B)burning gasoline when driving a car
C)creating an explosion by detonating nitroglycerine
D)All of the above are exothermic reactions.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the equilibrium shown above. Adding a catalyst will ________.
A)turn the solution red.
B)turn the solution less red.
C)turn the solution clear.
D)have no effect on the color.
Q2) When a reaction shows one arrow pointing from left to right, this means ________.
A)the reaction has reached equilibrium
B)the reaction favors the right direction
C)there is practically no reactant left
D)both B and C
Q3) Refer to the equilibrium shown above. Adding a couple of drops of an aqueous KCl solution will ________.
A)turn the solution red.
B)turn the solution less red.
C)turn the solution clear.
D)have no effect on the color.
Q4) Changing the temperature of a reaction will not change the equilibrium value.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A drop of a full unit in the pH scale ________.
A)reduces the acidity 10×
B)increases the acidity 10×
C)reduces the acidity 2×
D)increases the acidity 2×
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest acid?
A)acetic acid, K<sub>a</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
B)nitrous acid, K<sub>a</sub> = 4.5 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
C)hydrogen peroxide, K<sub>a</sub> = 2.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup>
D)hypochlorous acid, K<sub>a</sub> = 3.5 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>8</sup>
Q3) Sulfuric acid is a diprotic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following could be considered an Arrhenius base?
A)HCl
B)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
C)KOH
D)HF
Q5) The pH of a given aqueous solution of acetic acid is 3.76. What is the concentration of OH<sup>-</sup> in this solution?
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Q1) <sup>1</sup><sup>35</sup>Nd <sup>24</sup>Mg + ______
Q2) The daughter isotope of <sup>196</sup>Po when it undergoes alpha-emission is <sup>200</sup>Pb.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is able to penetrate the easiest through human tissue?
A)alpha rays
B)beta rays
C)neutrons
D)gamma rays
Q4) <sup>3</sup>H + <sup>2</sup>H ______ + <sup>1</sup>n
Q5) When a neutron is transformed into a proton what else is emitted?
A)a beta particle
B)an electron
C)an alpha particle
D)Either A or B; both of them represent the same particle.
Q6) Nuclear radiation can cause biological damage by the weakening or breaking of bonds.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Methanol is the compound used in automobile radiators as antifreeze.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The IUPAC name of C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub> is ________.
A)propane
B)butene
C)propyne
D)propene
Q3) Which of the following unbranched/acyclic hydrocarbons is saturated?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
B)C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>20</sub>
C)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>
D)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
Q4) Which hydrocarbon has the lowest boiling point?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
Q5) Draw the structure of butanal.
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Q1) Cellulose and starch are both polysaccharides of glucose. Explain why humans can consume and digest starch but not cellulose.
Q2) The name of the bond that combines two amino acids together is called
A)peptide
B)glycoside
C)acetal
D)ketal
Q3) Which of the following may be classified as a natural biopolymer?
A)carbohydrate
B)protein
C)DNA
D)all of the above
Q4) Viruses are not, technically, truly living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Amino acids are the smallest building blocks for proteins .
A)True
B)False
Q6) Construct the complementary strand of this piece of a DNA molecule:
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