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General Chemistry II is a comprehensive continuation of introductory chemistry, designed to deepen students' understanding of chemical principles and their applications. This course explores topics including chemical kinetics, chemical equilibrium, acids and bases, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, and coordination compounds. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, students develop analytical and critical thinking skills necessary to solve complex chemical problems. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, data analysis, and the practical relevance of chemistry in real-world contexts, laying a solid foundation for advanced study in science and engineering fields.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry and Chemical Reactivity 9th Edition by John C. Kotz\New folder
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is not a comparison of physical properties?
A) Mercury and gallium are both liquids at 50\(^{\circ}\)C.
B) Oxygen is more soluble in water than helium.
C) Silver and gold are malleable metals.
D) Oxygen and nitrogen are both liquids at -200\(^{\circ}\)C.
E) Calcium dissolves more quickly than iron in acids.
Answer: E
Q2) Which term best describes methane,CH<sub>4</sub>?
A) homogeneous mixture
B) ion
C) element
D) chemical compound
E) atom
Answer: D
Q3) Substances like hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>) and oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>) that are composed of only one type of atom are classified as ________. Answer: elements
Q4) The ________ of a substance is defined as its mass per unit volume. Answer: density
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Q1) Express the volume 366.8 cm<sup>3</sup> in liters.
A) 3.668 L
B) 0.03668 L
C) 0.3668 L
D) 36.68 L
E) 366.8 L
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the SI system is/are correct?
1)Prefixes are used to indicate a power of ten multiplier for a given SI base unit of measurement.
2)Degrees Celsius (\(^{\circ}\)C)is the SI base unit for temperature.
3)The kilogram (kg)is the SI base unit for mass.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
Answer: D
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Q1) Millikan's oil drop experiment determined the charge of the ________. Answer: electron
Q2) Naturally occurring element X exists in three isotopic forms: X-28 (27.979 u,77.03% abundance),X-29 (28.976 u,8.00% abundance),and X-30 (29.974 u,14.97% abundance).Calculate the atomic weight of X.
A) 29.64 u
B) 28.36 u
C) 29.05 u
D) 29.60 u
E) 27.38 u
Answer: B
Q3) Oxygen and ________ are the two most abundant elements in the Earth's crust. Answer: silicon
Q4) What element is in the fourth period in Group 3A?
A) Sb
B) Ga
C) In
D) Si
E) Tl
Answer: B

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Q1) In the following reaction,which species is oxidized?
3Rb<sub>2</sub>S(s)+ 8H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)\(\to\) 6Rb<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 3S(s)+ 2NO(g)+ 4H<sub>2</sub>O
A) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B) Rb<sub>2</sub>S
C) Rb<sup>+</sup>
D) NO
E) H<sup>+</sup>
Q2) A solution is a homogeneous mixture composed of one or more ____________ dissolved in a solvent.
Q3) What is the oxidation number of each O in NH<sub>4</sub>(H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>)?
A) -3
B) +1
C) -2
D) +5
E) 0
Q4) _____-oxides produce acids when reacted with water.
Q5) A(n)________ agent gains electrons in an oxidation-reduction reaction.
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Q1) Transmittance,T,is defined as the intensity of light transmitted through a sample divided by the intensity of light incident on the sample.The absorbance,A,is defined as
A) A = -log T
B) A = log (-T)
C) A = 10<sup>T</sup>
D) A = 10<sup>-</sup><sup>T</sup>
E) A = 10<sup>-1/</sup><sup>T</sup>
Q2) If 15.0 g N<sub>2</sub> and 2.00 g H<sub>2</sub> react to produce 1.38 g NH<sub>3</sub>,what is the percent yield of the reaction? N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2 NH<sub>3</sub>(g)
A) 7.57%
B) 12.2%
C) 8.12%
D) 15.1%
E) 8.17%
Q3) In combustion analysis,the gases produced by the combustion of a hydrocarbon are passed through a tube containing finely divided NaOH supported on asbestos.The purpose of the NaOH is to absorb ________ produced by the combustion reaction.
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Q1) Why are you at greater risk from being burned by steam at 100 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C than from liquid water at the same temperature?
Q2) Exactly 212.2 J will raise the temperature of 10.0 g of a metal from 25.0 °C to 60.0 °C.What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?
A) 0.606 J/(g·°C)
B) 1.65 J/(g·°C)
C) 14.5 J/(g·°C)
D) 50.8 J/(g·°C)
E) none of these
Q3) Heat capacity is defined as
A) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of substance by 1 K.
B) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 K.
C) the amount of heat required to vaporize a solid or liquid.
D) the maximum amount of heat that a substance may absorb without decomposing.
E) 4.18 cal/g.K.
Q4) The heat required to convert a solid at its melting point to a liquid is called the heat of ________.
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Q1) Which type of experiment demonstrates that an electron has the properties of a wave?
A) nuclear fission
B) electron diffraction
C) light emission from atomic gases
D) mass spectroscopy
E) photoelectric effect
Q2) The energy required to break one mole of hydrogen-hydrogen bonds in H<sub>2</sub> is 436 kJ/mol.What is the longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single H-H bond?
A) 0.474 nm
B) 119 nm
C) 132 nm
D) 274 nm
E) 474 nm
Q3) Occupied states or energy levels in the hydrogen atom with n > 1 are called _____ states.
Q4) The Bohr model predicts that the energy of an atom's electron is ________,meaning that the electron can only occupy orbitals of specific energies.
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Q1) For which of the following atoms is the 2+ ion diamagnetic in the ground state?
A) Ni
B) Fe
C) Zn
D) Mn
E) Cu
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning ground state electron configurations is/are CORRECT?
1)For a hydrogen atom with one electron,the 2s and 2p orbitals have identical energies.
2)For a lithium atom with three electrons,the 2s and 2p orbitals have different energies.
3)The effective nuclear charge felt by an electron in a 2p orbital is greater for a carbon atom than for a boron atom.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
Q3) The f-block elements are also referred to as the ________ and actinides.
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Q1) Use VSEPR theory to predict the molecular geometry of BrF<sub>5</sub>.
A) tetrahedral
B) see-saw
C) trigonal-bipyramidal
D) square-pyramidal
E) octahedral
Q2) Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?
A) sulfur dioxide,SO<sub>2</sub>
B) phosphorus trifluoride,PF<sub>3</sub>
C) hydrogen fluoride,HF
D) phosphorus pentafluoride,PF<sub>5</sub>
E) nitrogen trifluoride,NF<sub>3</sub>
Q3) The molecule H<sub>2</sub>S has
A) 2 bonding pairs and 3 lone pairs
B) 2 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs
C) 3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair
D) 3 bonding pairs and 3 lone pairs
E) none of these
Q4) In PCl<sub>5</sub>,the Cl-P-Cl bond angle between an axial and an equatorial chlorine atom is ________ degrees.
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Q1) Refer to Diagram 9-1.According to molecular orbital theory,what is the bond order of Li<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>?
A) 0
B) 0.5
C) 1
D) 1.5
E) 2
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning hybrid orbitals is/are CORRECT?
1)The number of hybrid orbitals equals the number of atomic orbitals that are used to create the hybrids.
2)When atomic orbitals are hybridized,the s orbital and at least one p orbital are always hybridized.
3)To create tetrahedral structures,the s orbital and all three p orbitals must be hybridized.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
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Q1) A particular gas exerts a pressure of 7.54 \(\times\) 10<sup>4</sup> Pa.What is this pressure in units of atmospheres? (1 atm = 760 mm Hg = 101.3 kPa = 1.013 bar)
A) 0.744 atm
B) 7.44 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup> atm
C) 0.764 atm
D) 0.754 atm
E) 7.64 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup> atm
Q2) When 0.5000 grams of an unknown hydrocarbon,C<sub>x</sub>H<sub>y</sub>,is completely combusted with excess oxygen,1.037 L CO<sub>2</sub> gas and is produced at 98.3 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C and 1.000 atm.What is the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon? (R = 0.08206 L.atm/mol.K)
A) CH
B) CH<sub>2</sub>
C) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>
D) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>5</sub>
E) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
Q3) A pressure of 1.00 atm has a metric equivalent of 1.01 \(\times\) 10<sup>5</sup>
Q4) What are two ways in which real gases differ from ideal gases?
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Q1) Which of the following compounds has a boiling point closest to that of argon?
A) F<sub>2</sub>
B) Cl<sub>2</sub>
C) HCl
D) NaF
E) HF
Q2) Make a sketch to show the hydrogen bonding between two acetic acid molecules (HC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>).
Q3) In a certain mountain range,water boils at 93°C.What is the atmospheric pressure under these conditions? The enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100°C is 40.7 kJ/mol.(R = 8.314 J/K·mol; 1 atm = 760 mmHg)
A) 2040 mmHg
B) 278 mmHg
C) 591 mmHg
D) 977 mmHg
E) 283 mmHg
Q4) ________ is a measure of the degree to which the electron cloud surrounding an atom or molecule can be distorted in an electric field.
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Q1) If an ionic compound with the formula MX<sub>2</sub> forms a face-centered cubic unit cell with the cations (M<sup>2n+</sup>)at the lattice points,the anions (X<sup>n</sup><sup>-</sup>)will occupy
A) all of the tetrahedral holes in each unit cell.
B) half of the tetrahedral holes in each unit cell.
C) all of the octahedral holes in each unit cell.
D) the center of each face in each unit cell.
E) the cubic hole in the center of the each unit cell.
Q2) The metal potassium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice.If the density of potassium is 0.856 g/cm<sup>3</sup>,what is the unit cell volume?
A) 3.88 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup> pm<sup>3</sup>
B) 3.64 \(\times\) 10<sup>4</sup> pm<sup>3</sup>
C) 1.52 \(\times\) 10<sup>8</sup> pm<sup>3</sup>
D) 7.59 \(\times\) 10<sup>7</sup> pm<sup>3</sup>
E) 7.27 \(\times\) 10<sup>4</sup> pm<sup>3</sup>
Q3) Sodium chloride crystallizes in a(n)________ cubic unit cell with chloride ions occupying the lattice points.The sodium ions occupy interstitial regions,with each cation in contact with six chloride ions.
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Q1) If a 25.0-g sample of a nonelectrolyte is dissolved in 145.0 g of water,the resulting solution will freeze at -0.89°C.What is the molar mass of the nonelectrolyte? (K<sub>fp</sub> for water is 1.858°C/m.)
A) 76 g/mol
B) 0.36 g/mol
C) 990 g/mol
D) 290 g/mol
E) 360 g/mol
Q2) What is the freezing point of an aqueous 1.36 m NaCl solution? (K<sub>fp</sub> for water is 1.858°C/m.)Assume no ion pairing occurs.
A) 5.1°C
B) 2.5°C
C) -5.1°C
D) 0.0°C
E) -2.5°C
Q3) Henry's law states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to its pressure above the liquid.This law holds correct for gases such as nitrogen and oxygen.However,Henry's law does not hold correct for hydrogen chloride gas.Why?
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Q1) For the formation of 1 mol of nitrosyl chloride at a given temperature,\(\Delta\)<sub>r</sub>H = -36 kJ/mol.
NO(g)+ ½ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) NOCl(g)
The activation energy for this reaction is 67 kJ/mol.What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction?
A) 67 kJ/mol
B) 31 kJ/mol
C) 103 kJ/mol
D) -36 kJ/mol
E) -103 kJ/mol
Q2) A first-order reaction is 40.0% complete at the end of 23.9 minutes.What is the value of the rate constant?
A) 3.83 \(\times\) 10<sup>-2 </sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
B) 2.14 \(\times\) 10<sup>-2 </sup>min<sup>-1</sup>
C) 26.1 min<sup>-1</sup>
D) 46.8 min<sup>-1</sup>
E) none of these
Q3) If a catalyst is present in a different phase from the reactants and products,it is referred to as a(n)________ catalyst.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1)For a chemical system,if the reaction quotient (Q)is greater than K,reactant must be converted to products to reach equilibrium.
2)For a chemical system at equilibrium,the forward and reverse rates of reaction are equal.
3)For a chemical system at equilibrium,the concentrations of products divided by the concentrations of reactants equals one.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) If a stress is applied to an equilibrium system,the system will respond in such a way as to relieve that stress.This is a statement of ________ principle.
Q3) In 1913,the Haber-Bosch process was patented.The product of the Haber-Bosch process is ________.
Q4) The symbol Q is called the ________.
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Q1) What is the hydroxide-ion concentration in a 0.22 M solution of Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>? For carbonic acid,K<sub>a1</sub> = 4.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-7</sup> and K<sub>a2</sub> = 4.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>-11</sup>.(K<sub>w</sub> = 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-14</sup>)
A) 6.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>-3</sup> M
B) 2.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup> M
C) 7.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-5</sup> M
D) 4.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-9</sup> M
E) 3.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-6</sup> M
Q2) At 25 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C,all of the following ions produce an acidic solution,except ____.
A) NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
B) HSO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
D) [Fe(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
E) [Al(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
Q3) Write a net ionic equation for the neutralization reaction of hydrochloric acid and potassium hydroxide.Identify the spectator ion(s).
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Q1) A solution containing 10.mmol of CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup> and 5.0 mmol of HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>is titrated with 1.7 M HCl.What total volume of HCl must be added to reach the second equivalence point? (1 mmol = 0.001 mol)
A) 8.8 mL
B) 5.9 mL
C) 2.9 mL
D) 14.7 mL
E) 19.7 mL
Q2) What mass of sodium hydroxide must be added to 40.0 mL of 0.607 M acetic acid in order to create a buffer with a pH of 4.66? K<sub>a</sub> for acetic acid is 1.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>-5</sup>.
A) 33 g
B) 0.44 g
C) 1.0 g
D) 0.000035 g
E) 0.97 g
Q3) For a monoprotic acid titration,the ________ point in a titration is the point where the moles of strong base added equals the moles of acid initially present.
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Q1) When a real gas is compressed from low pressure to a higher pressure,its temperature increases.Predict the signs \(\Delta\)H and \(\Delta\)S.
A) (\(\Delta\)H) < 0 and \(\Delta\)S < 0
B) (\(\Delta\)H) < 0 and \(\Delta\)S > 0
C) (\(\Delta\)H) > 0 and \(\Delta\)S < 0
D) (\(\Delta\)H) > 0 and \(\Delta\)S > 0
E) (\(\Delta\)H) < 0 and \(\Delta\)S = 0
Q2) A statement of the first law of thermodynamics is that
A) in a spontaneous process,the entropy of the universe increases.
B) there is no disorder in a perfect crystal at 0 K.
C) the total energy of the universe is always decreasing.
D) the total energy of the universe is constant.
E) mass and energy are conserved in all chemical reactions.
Q3) In which reaction is \(\Delta\)<sub>r</sub>S° expected to be negative?
A) 2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>(g)+ 7O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 4CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 6H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
B) Ga(l)\(\to\) Ga(s)
C) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ 2SO<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(l)
D) CO<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)CO<sub>2</sub>(s)
E) all of above
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Q1) The unit for electromotive force,emf,is the Volt.A Volt is equal to A) one joule per second.
B) one coulomb per joule.
C) one joule per coulomb.
D) one coulomb per second.
E) one second per joule.
Q2) Which of the following reactions would require the use of an inert electrode when used in a voltaic cell?
A) Cu(s)+ 2Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)<sup> </sup>\(\to\) 2Ag(s)+ Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq) B) 3Cu(s)+ 2Au<sup>3+</sup>(aq)<sup> </sup>\(\to\) 3Cu<sup>2+ </sup>+ 2Au(s)
C) Cu(s)+ 2Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)<sup> </sup>\(\to\) Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2Ag(s) D) Co(s)+ 2MnO<sub>2</sub>(s)+ 2NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>(aq)<sup> </sup>\(\to\) Co<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ Mn<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)+ 2NH<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O( \(\ell\) ) E) 3Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2Al(s)<sup> </sup>\(\to\) 3Zn(s)+ 2Al<sup>3+</sup>(aq)
Q3) Write balanced reduction and oxidation half-reactions for the processes that occur at the cathode and anode of a fuel cell used aboard NASA's space shuttles.
Q4) Explain the function of a salt bridge in a voltaic cell.
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Q1) What is the correct name for NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>?
A) nitric oxide
B) nitrite
C) nitrogen trioxide
D) nitrous oxide
E) nitrate
Q2) What mass of sulfur dioxide gas would be produced from 6.00 kg of coal which contains 1.15 % sulfur by mass?
A) 276 g
B) 12.0 g
C) 34.5 g
D) 138 g
E) 103 g
Q3) The largest known source of tar sands is found in
A) the United States of America.
B) United Arab Emirates.
C) Venezuela.
D) Saudi Arabia.
E) Canada.
Q4) Explain why the melting of Arctic sea ice will not raise the sea level.
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Q1) What is the oxidation state of the common ion formed from F?
A) 1+
B) 2+
C) 3-
D) 2-
E) 1-
Q2) Which group 1A metal is the strongest reducing agent?
A) Li
B) Na
C) K
D) Rb
E) Cs
Q3) The building block of silicate minerals is the
A) linear SiO unit.
B) the bent SiO<sub>2</sub> unit.
C) trigonal-bipyramidal SiO<sub>5</sub> unit.
D) tetrahedral SiO<sub>4</sub> unit.
E) the linear SiO<sub>2</sub> unit.
Q4) A class of aluminosilicate,called a(n)________,contains regularly spaced holes and cavities.This type of aluminosilicate is often used as a catalyst.
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Q1) When 8.1 moles of [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2</sub> is dissolved in water,how many moles of ions are in solution?
A) 73
B) 24
C) 5.1
D) 2.7
E) 6.1
Q2) Determine the number of unpaired electrons in an octahedral,high-spin Cr(II)complex.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) What is the correct formula for sodium tetrachlorocuprate(II)?
A) Na<sub>3</sub>[CuCl<sub>4</sub>]
B) Na<sub>2</sub>[CuCl<sub>4</sub>]
C) Na[CuCl<sub>4</sub>]
D) Na<sub>4</sub>[CuCl<sub>4</sub>]
E) Na<sub>2</sub>[CuCl<sub>6</sub>]
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Q1) Which of the following is the general formula of an alkyne containinng one triple bond?
A) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2</sub><sub>n</sub><sub>+2</sub>
B) C<sub>2</sub><sub>n</sub>H<sub>2</sub><sub>n</sub><sub>-2</sub>
C) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>n</sub>
D) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2</sub><sub>n</sub>
E) C<sub>n</sub><sub>+2</sub>H<sub>n</sub>
Q2) Cis-1,2-dichloroethylene and trans-1,2-dichloroethylene are examples of ________ isomers.
Q3) What is the product of the reduction of butanone?
A) 1-butene
B) 2-butanol
C) cis-2-butene
D) acetone
E) butanoic acid
Q4) Molecules with nonsuperimposable mirror images are termed chiral.Pairs of nonsuperimposable,mirror image molecules are called ________.
Q5) The process by which long chain hydrocarbons in petroleum are shortened is called ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning protein synthesis is/are correct?
1)Protein synthesis occurs in the ribosomes.
2)tRNA moves mRNA to the ribosome.
3)mRNA is cleaved more rapidly than DNA.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1 and 3
Q2) Which of the following is not a lipid?
A) triglycerides
B) fatty acids
C) glycerol
D) steroids
E) phospholipids
Q3) Starch and cellulose are polysaccharides made up long chains of glucose linked by glycosidic bonds.Despite the identical composition,why can humans digest starch but not cellulose?
Q4) The amide linkages in a protein and also called ___ bonds.
Q5) A compound which contains both a positive and negative charge is called a ____.
Page 27
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Sample Questions
Q1) In positron emission tomography (PET),a positron emitted from an unstable isotope travels a short distance before it is annihilated by
A) an electron,creating a proton that is detected by the instrument.
B) a neutron,creating two gamma rays that travel in opposite directions.
C) an electron,creating two gamma rays that travel in opposite directions.
D) an alpha particle,creating two protons that travel in opposite directions.
E) gamma ray,creating an electron that is detected by the instrument.
Q2) Radioactive isotopes with greater than 83 protons in the nucleus that sit below the band of stability are most likely to decay by what mode(s)?
A) alpha emission
B) beta emission
C) positron emission or alpha emission
D) electron capture or beta emission
E) electron capture or positron emission
Q3) Explain the difference between 1 rad and 1 rem of radiation.
Q4) Explain the treatment named boron neutron capture therapy (BNCT).
Q5) All isotopes of atomic number greater than ________ are unstable and radioactive.
Q6) A unit used to quantify biological damage is called the ________ or rem.
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