General Chemistry II Chapter Exam Questions - 1479 Verified Questions

General Chemistry II

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

General Chemistry II builds upon the foundational concepts introduced in General Chemistry I, delving deeper into chemical principles and their applications. This course covers topics such as chemical kinetics, chemical equilibrium, acid-base equilibria, thermodynamics, electrochemistry, coordination compounds, and an introduction to nuclear and organic chemistry. Emphasis is placed on problem-solving, laboratory techniques, analysis of experimental data, and real-world applications of chemistry in fields such as biology, engineering, and environmental science. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory sessions, students gain a deeper understanding of chemical behavior and the ability to apply these concepts to increasingly complex chemical systems.

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Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski

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Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding

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Q1) Which of the following statements about electronegativity and the periodic table is true?

A) Electronegativity decreases across a row of the periodic table.

B) Electronegativity increases down a column of the periodic table.

C) Electronegativity increases across a row of the periodic table.

D) Electronegativity does not change down a column of the periodic table.

Answer: C

Q2) What 2 things will change between two resonance structures?

A) The position of multiple bonds and non-bonded electrons.

B) The position of multiple bonds and single bonds.

C) The placement of atoms and single bonds.

D) The placement of atoms and non-bonded electrons.

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following would you expect to have ionic bonds?

A) CO

B) FBr

C) NF₃

D) NaCl

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Acids and Bases

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Q1) Rank the following compounds in order of increasing acidity, putting the least acidic first. \[\begin{array} { c c c c }

\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { COOH } & \mathrm { FCH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { COOH } & \mathrm { ClCH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { COOH } & \mathrm { BrCH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { COOH } \\

\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]

A) I < IV < III < II

B) I < III < IV < II

C) II < III < IV < I

D) II < IV < III < I

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following species cannot act as both a Brønsted-Lowry acid and base?

A) HCO₃^-

B) HSO₄^-

C) HO^-

D) H₂PO₄^-

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups

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Q1) Which of the following lists contains common heteroatoms found in organic molecules?

A) N, O, S, P, Cl

B) Na, O, S, P, Cl

C) Na, Mg, S, N, Cl

D) Na, Mg, O, N, Cl

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following statements about the solubility of organic compounds in H₂O is true?

A) The non-polar part of a molecule that is not attracted to water is said to be hydrophilic.

B) The non-polar part of a molecule that is not attracted to water is said to be hydrophobic.

C) The polar part of a molecule that can hydrogen bond to water is said to be hydrophobic.

D) For an organic compound with one functional group that contains an O or N atom, the compound is water soluble only if it has \(\ge\) 5 carbons.

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Alkanes

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Q1) Which of the following compounds has only primary and secondary hydrogen atoms?

A) 2-Methylpentane

B) 2,2,3-Trimethylpentane

C) 3-Methylpentane

D) 2,2-Dimethylpentane

Q2) Which of the following statements about the conformations of acyclic alkanes is not true?

A) The staggered and eclipsed conformations are equally stable.

B) The staggered conformations are more stable than the eclipsed conformations.

C) An energy minimum and maximum occur every 60° as the conformation changes from staggered to eclipsed.

D) Conformations that are neither staggered nor eclipsed are intermediate in energy.

Q3) How many constitutional isomers are there with the molecular formula C₅H₁₂?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry

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Q1) What is the percent ee of a mixture that has 70% of one enantiomer and 30% of the other?

A) 70

B) 85

C) 40

D) 30

Q2) Which of the following is the correct definition for a pair of enantiomers?

A) A pair of stereoisomers that have a plane of symmetry.

B) A pair of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other.

C) A pair of stereoisomers that are not superimposable mirror images of each other.

D) A pair of stereoisomers that are superimposable mirror images of each other.

Q3) A solution containing 0.08 g/mL of a pure R enantiomer in a 1 dm polarimeter rotates plane polarized light by +4°. What is the specific rotation of the S enantiomer?

A) +50°

B) -40°

C) +40°

D) -50°

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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about equilibrium is true?

A) Equilibrium favors the products when the energy of the products is higher than the energy of the reactants.

B) Equilibrium favors the reactants when the energy of the product is lower than the energy of the reactants.

C) Equilibrium favors the products when they are less stable than the starting material of a reaction

D) Equilibrium favors the products when they are more stable than the starting material of a reaction.

Q2) Which of the following statements about elimination reactions is true?

A) Two \(\sigma\) bonds are broken.

B) Two \(\sigma\) bonds are formed.

C) Two \(\pi\) bonds are broken.

D) Two \(\pi\) bonds are formed.

Q3) Which of the following statements about addition reactions is true?

A) Two \(\pi\) bonds are formed.

B) Two \(\pi\) bonds are broken.

C) Two \(\sigma\) bonds are formed.

D) One \(\pi\) bond is formed.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution

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Q1) Rank the following ions in order of increasing nucleophlicity in polar protic solvents, starting with the least nucleophilic ion. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } \mathrm { F } ^ { * } & \mathrm { Cl } ^ { - } & \mathrm { Br } ^ { - } & \mathrm { I } ^ { - } \\

\text {I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]

A) I < II < III < IV

B) IV < III < II < I

C) I < II < IV < III

D) IV < III < I < II

Q2) Which compound is most likely to follow second-order kinetics in a substitution reaction?

A) CH₃Br

B) (CH₃)₃CCH₂Br

C) CH₃CH₂Br

D) (CH₃)₂CHBr

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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is not true?

A) It is fastest with tertiary halides.

B) It exhibits first-order kinetics.

C) A better leaving group should make a faster reaction.

D) All bonds are broken and formed in a single step.

Q2) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is true?

A) All bonds are broken and formed in multiple steps.

B) The reaction is not concerted.

C) Entropy favors the reactants of an E2 reaction.

D) Entropy favors the products of an E2 reaction.

Q3) Which of the following represents the rate law for an E2 reaction?

A) Rate = k[alkyl halide]

B) Rate = k[alkyl halide][base]

C) Rate = k[alkyl halide]²

D) Rate = k[base]²

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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides

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Q1) Which of the following ethers cannot be prepared by the Williamson ether synthesis?

A) Isopropyl methyl ether

B) tert-Butyl methyl ether

C) tert-Butyl phenyl ether

D) Methyl phenyl ether

Q2) Which of the following statements about carbocation rearrangement is not true?

A) A less stable carbocation can rearrange to a more stable carbocation by shift of a hydrogen atom.

B) A less stable carbocation can rearrange to a more stable carbocation by shift of an alkyl group.

C) 1,2-Shifts convert a less stable carbocation to a more stable carbocation.

D) The migrating group in a 1,2-shift moves with one bonding electron.

Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of ethyl methyl ether with excess HBr?

A) Bromomethane and ethanol

B) Bromoethane and methanol

C) Bromoethane and bromomethane

D) Ethanol and methanol

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11

Chapter 10: Alkenes

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Q1) Markovnikov addition of HBr to CH₃CH=CH₂ involves which of the following?

A) Initial attack by bromide anion (Br^-).

B) Initial attack by bromine radical (Br ).

C) Formation of a primary carbocation.

D) Formation of a secondary carbocation.

Q2) Which of the following statements about the stereochemistry of electrophilic addition of HX to alkenes is true?

A) Achiral starting materials yield an unequal mixture of two enantiomers.

B) Hydrohalogenation occurs with syn stereochemistry only.

C) Hydrohalogenation occurs with anti stereochemistry only.

D) Hydrohalogenation occurs with syn and anti addition of HX.

Q3) Rearrangements can occur in which of the following reactions?

A) Addition of Cl₂ to an alkene.

B) Addition of HOBr to an alkene.

C) Addition of H₂O/H₃O⁺ to an alkene.

D) None of the above.

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Chapter 11: Alkynes

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Q1) Which of the following bases can deprotonate acetylene? You are given the pK_a values of the conjugate acids in parentheses. \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { NH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 40 \right) \quad \mathrm { CO } _ { 3 } ^ { 2 - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 10.2 \right) \quad \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 44 \right) \quad \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \right) _ { 3 } \mathrm { CO } ^ { - } \left( \mathrm { p } K _ { a } = 18 \right)\)

I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\q uad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\)IV

A) Only I and II

B) Only I and III

C) Only II and III

D) Only II and IV

Q2) Which of the following statements about tautomers is true?

A) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a hydrogen atom.

B) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a carbon atom.

C) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a hydrogen atom.

D) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a carbon atom.

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Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction

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Q1) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium? CH₃Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH₃Li + LiCl

A) Oxidized

B) Reduced

C) Oxidized and Reduced

D) Neither oxidized nor reduced

Q2) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH₄ is true?

A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H^-).

B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H^- occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.

C) The reaction follows S_N1 mechanism.

D) The nucleophile, H^-, is a weak nucleophile.

Q3) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?

A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.

B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.

C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.

D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.

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14

Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy

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Q1) What type(s) of molecular motion is (are) observed using infrared spectroscopy?

A) Stretching and bending

B) Rotation and excitation

C) Spin flipping

D) Fragmentation

Q2) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has a molecular ion peak in its mass spectrum at mass 104, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3200-2850 cm^-1?

A) The compound has a molecular mass of 104.

B) The compound contains a C=O group and C_sp₃-H hybridized bonds.

C) The compound contains an OH group and C_sp₃-H hybridized bonds.

D) Both (The compound has a molecular mass of 104) and (The compound contains a C=O group and C_sp₃-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.

E) Both (The compound has a molecular mass of 104) and (The compound contains an OH group and C_sp₃-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

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Q1) Which of the following statements about ¹³C NMR is not true?

A) "In ¹³C proton-decoupled NMR spectra, all peaks are singlets."

B) "¹³C NMR spectra display peaks for only carbons that bear hydrogen atoms."

C) "¹³C NMR chemical shifts occur over a greater range than ¹H NMR chemical shifts."

D) "¹³C NMR easily differentiates between the different hybridized carbons (sp³, sp² and sp hybridized carbons)."

Q2) Which of the following spectroscopy methods does not involve the interaction of organic molecules with electromagnetic radiation?

A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

B) Infrared spectroscopy

C) Mass spectroscopy

D) Ultraviolet spectroscopy

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16

Chapter 15: Radical Reactions

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Q1) How many monochlorination products can be formed from the reaction of (CH₃)₃CH with Cl₂ and hv?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Q2) Which of the following statements about chlorination and bromination is true?

A) Bromination is unselective, yielding a mixture of products.

B) Chlorination is often selective, yielding one major product.

C) Chlorination is faster than bromination.

D) Bromination is faster than chlorination.

Q3) Which of the following statements about chlorination is true?

A) The rate-determining step in chlorination is endothermic.

B) The transition state resembles the product.

C) The more stable radical is formed faster.

D) A mixture of products results.

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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes

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Q1) Which of the following is the appropriate term for the mechanism of the addition of HBr to 1,3-dienes?

A) Nucleophilic addition

B) Electrophilic addition

C) Free radical addition

D) Conjugate addition

Q2) What is the kinetic product obtained from the addition of 1 equivalent of HBr to 1,3-butadiene?

A) 3-Bromo-1-butene

B) 1-Bromo-2-butene

C) 2-Bromo-2-butene

D) 2-Bromo-1-butene

Q3) Which of the following statements about the Diels-Alder reaction is true?

A) The diene can react only when it adopts the s-trans conformation.

B) Electron-withdrawing substituents in the diene increase reaction rate.

C) Electron-donating substituents in the dienophile increase the reaction rate.

D) The stereochemistry of the dienophile is retained in the product.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds

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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the Hückel's criteria for aromaticity?

A) The molecule must be cyclic.

B) The molecule must be planar.

C) The molecule must be completely conjugated.

D) The molecule must have 4n pi electrons.

Q2) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?

A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.

B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.

C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.

D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.

Q3) Where do the protons in benzene appear in the ¹H NMR spectrum?

A) Around 1600 cm^-1

B) Around 120 ppm

C) Around 0 ppm

D) Around 7 ppm

Q4) Which of the following is not a criterion for antiaromaticity?

A) The molecule must be cyclic.

B) The molecule must have (4n + 2) pi electrons.

C) The molecule must be planar.

D) The molecule must be completely conjugated.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution

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Q1) What is the electrophile in aromatic nitration?

A) NO⁺

B) NO₂⁺

C) NO₃⁺

D) NO₂H

Q2) Which of the following substituents are deactivators in electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) HO -

B) CH₃NH -

C) CH₃O -

D) (CH₃)₃N⁺ -

Q3) What is the reactive intermediate formed in the addition-elimination mechanism of nucleophilic aromatic substitution?

A) Carbocation

B) Radical

C) Benzyne

D) Carbanion

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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H

Bond

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Q1) Where do the two noteworthy peaks of carboxylic acids appear in ¹HNMR spectra?

A) Between 10 and 12 ppm for the OH proton and 2-2.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.

B) Between 6 and 9 ppm for the OH proton and 2-2.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.

C) Between 10 and 12 ppm for the OH proton and 1-1.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.

D) Between 6 and 9 ppm for the OH proton and 1-1.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.

Q2) What is the overall charge of the amino acid, alanine, at pH = 7?

A) + 1

B) - 1

C) No overall charge

D) + 2

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;

Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction

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Q1) What reagent can be used to cleave a silyl ether protecting group?

A) NaOMe

B) MeMgBr

C) Bu₄NF

D) Pd/C

Q2) If the starting material has no stereogenic centers, when carbonyl compounds are reduced with a reagent such as LiAlH₄ or NaBH₄ and a new stereogenic center is formed, what will the composition of the product mixture be?

A) Forms a racemic mixture of the two possible enantiomers

B) Forms more of one enantiomer than another because of steric reasons around the carbonyl

C) Forms more of one enantiomer than another depending on the temperature of the reaction

D) Forms different products depending on the solvent used

Q3) What reagent would be used to reduce an amide to an amine?

A) NaBH₄

B) LiAlH(OtBu)₃

C) LiAlH₄

D) FeCl₃

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition

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Q1) When an aldehyde is reacted with excess ethanol with an acid as a catalyst, what is the product called?

A) Hemiacetal

B) Di-ether

C) Di-alkoxy alkane

D) Acetal

Q2) Why can't you use acidic conditions (such as aqueous hydrochloric acid) for the addition of a Grignard reagent to a ketone?

A) Because the Grignard reagent will react with the acid and be quenched.

B) Because the ketone will be protonated and thus unreactive.

C) Because the ketone will form an unreactive enol.

D) Because the Grignard reagent won't dissolve in aqueous solutions.

Q3) Using IR spectroscopy, how can you tell the difference between a ketone and an aldehyde?

A) A ketone has no carbonyl stretch at 1720 cm^-1.

B) An aldehyde has a carbonyl stretch at 1820 cm^-1.

C) An aldehyde has two C-H stretches between 2700-2850 cm^-1.

D) A ketone has no C-H stretches.

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23

Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives

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Q1) Where is the carbonyl absorption found in the IR spectrum of a simple ester?

A) 2.5 ppm

B) 2250 cm^-1

C) 3800 cm^-1

D) 1740 cm^-1

Q2) Why is an amide less reactive to nucleophilic acyl substitution than an acid chloride?

A) Nitrogen is a better leaving group.

B) Chloride is a better leaving group.

C) Nitrogen donates more electron density into the carbonyl.

D) The amide anion is less basic.

Q3) How can you convert a carboxylic acid into an ester?

A) Heat with an alcohol and catalytic acid

B) Deprotonate with a base and react with an alcohol

C) Deprotonate with a base and react with an alkyl halide

D) Both (a) heat with an alcohol and catalytic acid and (c) deprotonate with a base and react with an alkyl halide

E) Both (a) heat with an alcohol and catalytic acid and (b) deprotonate with a base and react with an alcohol

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl

Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon

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Q1) It has been found that \(\beta\)-dicarbonyl compounds have a greater concentration of the enol form over the keto form. This can be explained by:

A) The C=C of the enol is conjugated with the carbonyl group.

B) The -OH of the enol can hydrogen bond to the oxygen of the nearby carbonyl group.

C) Both A and B above are true.

D) None of the choices are true.

Q2) Which of the following bases will completely convert 1,4-cyclohexandione into an enolate?

A) Sodium hydroxide

B) Sodium methoxide

C) Sodium tert-butoxide

D) Sodium hydride

Q3) If you want to form a thermodynamic enolate, you want to:

A) Keep the reaction as cold as possible.

B) Use an aprotic solvent such as THF.

C) Use a protic solvent such as ethanol.

D) Use a carboxylic acid.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following statements about Aldol reactions with either aldehydes or ketones is true?

A) Equilibrium favors the products with aldehydes; equilibrium favors the starting materials with ketones.

B) Equilibrium favors the starting materials with aldehydes; equilibrium favors the products with ketones.

C) Equilibrium favors the products with both aldehydes and ketones.

D) Equilibrium favors the starting materials with both aldehydes and ketones.

Q2) What type of esters can undergo Claisen reactions?

A) All esters can undergo Claisen reactions.

B) Only esters with two hydrogen atoms on the \(\alpha\) carbon can undergo Claisen reactions.

C) Only esters with three hydrogen atoms on the \(\alpha\) carbon can undergo Claisen reactions.

D) Only esters with two or three hydrogen atoms on the \(\alpha\) carbon can undergo Claisen reactions.

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Chapter 25: Amines

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Q1) What is the name given to naturally occurring amines derived from plant sources?

A) Enamines

B) Imines

C) Alkaloids

D) Alkamines

Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides cannot be used to prepare primary amines by the Gabriel synthesis?

A) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

B) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane

C) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane

D) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane

Q3) Why is pyrrole much less basic than pyridine?

A) The lone pair of electrons in pyrrole is located on an sp² orbital.

B) The lone pair of electrons in pyrrole is part of the aromatic \(\pi\) system.

C) The lone pair of electrons in pyrrole is not part of the aromatic \(\pi\) system.

D) The pK_a of the conjugate acid of pyrrole is much greater than the conjugate acid of pyridine.

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Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis

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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about a carbene?

A) A carbene is a neutral reactive intermediate.

B) A carbene contains a divalent carbon.

C) A carbene is sp³ hybridized.

D) A carbene is surrounded by six electrons.

Q2) Which of the following is not a step in the Suzuki reaction?

A) Oxidative addition of R-X to the palladium catalyst

B) Substitution of the R group to the palladium catalyst

C) Transfer of the alkyl group from the organoborane to palladium

D) Reductive elimination of R-R, forming the new C-C bond

Q3) What do the Suzuki reaction, the Heck reaction, and the organocuprate reaction all have in common when they react with an alkyl halide?

A) All reactions form new carbon-carbon bonds.

B) They all use palladium as a catalyst in one step of the reaction.

C) They are all stereospecific reactions.

D) They all require harsh conditions.

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Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions

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Q1) How many bonding molecular orbitals are present in 1,3,5,7,9-decapentaene?

A) 4

B) 5

C) 10

D) 12

Q2) Which of the following statements about sigmatropic reactions is not true?

A) A sigmatropic reaction is an intramolecular pericyclic reaction.

B) In a sigmatropic reaction, \(\sigma\) bond is broken in one of the reactants.

C) The \(\pi\) bonds rearrange in a sigmatropic reaction.

D) The number of \(\pi\) bonds in the reactants and product differs in a sigmatropic reaction.

Q3) Which of the following statements about [2+2] cycloaddition reactions between two alkenes is true?

A) The reaction is initiated by heat.

B) The reaction is initiated by light.

C) The product is a cyclopentane derivative.

D) Each reactant contains two \(\sigma\) electrons that participate in the formation of new bonds.

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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates

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Q1) What is the composition of lactose?

A) two glucose units with a \(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycoside bond

B) one glucose and one fructose unit with a \(\alpha\)-glycosidic bond to the 2'carbon of a fructofuranose ring

C) one galactose and one glucose unit with a \(\beta\)-1,4'-glycoside bond

D) repeating unit of glucose units joined in a \(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic linkage

Q2) Upon hydrolysis of amylose, what sugar is formed?

A) sucrose

B) maltose

C) lactose

D) glucose

Q3) Which of the following best describes the relationship between D-glucose and D-fructose?

A) enantiomers

B) epimers

C) anomers

D) constitutional isomers

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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the Merrifield synthesis?

A) It uses a solid phase technique for the synthesis of peptides.

B) It uses DCC (dicyclohexylcarbodiimide) to form the amide bond in a peptide synthesis.

C) It uses BOC (tert-butoxycarbonyl) as a protecting group for peptide synthesis.

D) It uses aqueous phase techniques for the synthesis of large polypeptides.

Q2) Why does the formation of salts of a racemic mixture of N-acetyl valine with a single enantiomer of \(\alpha\)-methylbenzylamine enable the separation of the two enantiomers of N-acetyl valine?

A) They form amides.

B) They form diastereomers.

C) They form salts.

D) They form meso compounds.

Q3) Which of the following is (are) globular protein(s)?

A) hemoglobin

B) keratins

C) collagens

D) elastins

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Chapter 30: Lipids

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Q1) What is the correct classification of the following compound?

CH₃(CH₂)₁₅COOH

A) saturated triglyceride

B) simple lipid

C) wax

D) saturated fatty acid

Q2) What is the first key enzyme required for the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?

A) protein Kinase C

B) synthase

C) transferase

D) COX (cyclic oxygenase)

Q3) What is the name of the reaction of triglycerides with a base?

A) esterification

B) transesterification

C) ozonolysis

D) saponification

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Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers

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Q1) Which type of polymerization process uses benzoyl peroxide (or other peroxides) as an initiator?

A) free-radical chain-growth

B) cationic chain-growth

C) anionic chain-growth

D) acid-catalyzed step-growth

Q2) What is the purpose of plasticizers?

A) to harden plastics

B) to soften plastics

C) to initiate polymerizations

D) to cross-link polymer chains

Q3) Which of the following initiators can be used for anionic chain-growth polymerization?

A) benzoyl peroxide

B) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Li

C) BF₃

D) Al(CH₂CH₃)₃, TiCl₄

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