General Chemistry I Test Preparation - 1129 Verified Questions

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General Chemistry I Test Preparation

Course Introduction

General Chemistry I is an introductory course that explores the foundational principles of chemistry, including atomic and molecular structure, stoichiometry, chemical reactions, thermochemistry, electronic structure, periodicity, bonding, and properties of gases, liquids, and solids. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills and understanding how chemical principles apply to real-world phenomena. Students gain hands-on experience through laboratory work, reinforcing concepts covered in lectures and promoting scientific inquiry. This course prepares students for further study in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.

Recommended Textbook

Principles of Chemistry The Molecular Science 1st Edition by John W. Moore

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Chapter 1: The Nature of Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The energy is the capacity to do _____________.

Answer: work

Q2) Which characteristics apply to the gaseous state?

I. low density

II. high density

III. rapid molecular motion

IV. slow molecular motion

V. large distance between particles

A) I, V

B) II, V

C) II, III, V

D) I, IV, V

E) I, III, V

Answer: E

Q3) Burning of hydrogen fuel is a(n) _____________ change.

Answer: chemical

Q4) Filtering impurities out of water is a(n) _____________ process.

Answer: physical

Q5) A mixture that is nonuniform in composition is a(n) _____________ mixture.

Answer: heterogeneous

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which sample contains the fewest number of atoms?

A) 216 g Cr

B) 435 g Ni

C) 512 g Mn

D) 619 g Pt

E) 642 g Rb

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is the most correct for the cathode ray experiments?

A) The ray bent towards the positive exterior plate, proving that the ray was made up of negative particles.

B) The cathode ray experiment can be considered equivalent with the discovery of electrons.

C) The behavior of the ray was independent of the metal chosen to make the plates in side the vacuum tube, proving that all metals contain a common particle.

D) All of these.

E) None of these.

Answer: D

Q3) <sup>14</sup>O, <sup>16</sup>O, <sup>18</sup>O are called _____________.

Answer: isotopes

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Chapter 3: Chemical Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Give the formula for an alkane containing five carbon atoms.

Answer: C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>

Q2) An organic compound contains 60.0% carbon, 4.44% hydrogen and the remainder oxygen. It has a molecular weight of 180. Determine the empirical formula of the compound.

A) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>O

B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

C) C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>4</sub>

D) C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

E) C<sub>11</sub>H<sub>16</sub>O

Answer: C

Q3) Which compound is incorrectly named?

A) Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> iron(III) hydroxide

B) NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub> ammonium nitrate

C) K<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub> potassium dichromate

D) Ba(OH)<sub>2</sub> barium hydroxide

E) Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> sodium sulfite

Answer: E

Q4) A compound that forms between a non-metal and a non-metal is a(n)

Answer: covalent compound

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Quantities of Reactants and Products

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Sample Questions

Q1) A reaction has a theoretical yield of 48.23 g. It produces 28.81 g of product. Calculate the percent yield.

Q2) Stoichiometric coefficients found in a balanced equation can be used to derive _____________ ratios.

Q3) Which statement about the expression 6 C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> is not true?

A) There are half as many oxygen atoms as hydrogen atoms.

B) There are 144 total atoms.

C) There are twice as many hydrogen atoms as carbon atoms.

D) There are six times as many carbon atoms as oxygen atoms.

E) There are 6 total molecules.

Q4) The efficiency of a particular synthesis method is evaluated by determining the: A) molecular weight of the product. B) stoichiometric coefficients.

C) limiting reactant.

D) theoretical yield. E) percent yield.

Q5) A decomposition reaction occurs when _____________ reactant(s) produces two or more products.

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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following factors cause exchange reactions to occur?

A) formation of a gas, precipitate or water

B) formation of a gas or a precipitate

C) formation of a gas only

D) formation of a precipitate only

E) formation of water only

Q2) A solution is made by dissolving 15.0 g of CaCl<sub>2</sub> in enough water to make exactly 500.0 mL of solution. What is the molarity of the solution?

Q3) A 64.05 mL sample of 0.250 M CH<sub>3</sub>COOH is to be exactly neutralized with 0.500 M KOH. How many milliliters of KOH will be required?

A) 64.1 mL

B) 32.0 mL

C) 128 mL

D) 16.0 mL

E) 8.01 mL

Q4) Give an example of a strong base.

Q5) When an element is _____________, it loses electrons.

Q6) A neutralization reaction involves the reaction of a(n) _____________ with a(n)

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Energy and Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a(n) _____________ reaction, the energy of bond breaking is greater than the energy of bond making.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of potential energy?

A) holding a baseball B) running around bases C) pitching a baseball D) swinging a bat

E) sliding into home plate

Q3) Determine the quantity of ice required to absorb exactly 50 kJ of energy when the ice warms from -50.0°C to -10.0°C (specific heat of ice = 2.06 J g<sup>-1</sup> °C<sup>-1</sup>).

A) 0.485 g

B) 0.607 g

C) 485 g

D) 607 g

E) 2.43 × 10<sup>3</sup> g

Q4) In an endothermic reaction, heat is transferred from the _____________ to the _____________.

Q5) Enthalpy change is equal to heat transfer at constant _______________.

Page 8

Q6) Energy of motion is called _____________.

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Chapter 7: Electron Configurations and the Periodic Table

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first ionization energy is the amount of energy required to remove one ____________ from a neutral atom.

Q2) What is the electron configuration of O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>?

A) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>5</sup>

B) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>

C) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>4</sup>

D) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>2</sup>

E) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>3</sup>

Q3) What is the electron configuration of Al<sup>3+</sup>?

A) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>5</sup>

B) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>4</sup>

C) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>2</sup>

D) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>

E) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>1</sup>

Q4) Atoms or ions that have the same electron configurations are:

A) paramagnetic.

B) diamagnetic.

C) ferromagnetic.

D) lanthanides.

E) isoelectronic.

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Chapter 8: Covalent Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which molecule does not contain a multiple bond?

A) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

B) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>

C) CH<sub>2</sub>O

D) CO<sub>2</sub>

E) O<sub>2</sub>

Q2) Assume all hydrocarbons given are linear. Which compound will contain no multiple bonds?

A) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>

B) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>

C) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>

D) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>16</sub>

E) C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>18</sub>

Q3) Oxygen atoms contribute _____________ electrons to a Lewis Dot structure.

Q4) In a polar covalent bond, _____________ are _____________ shared.

Q5) The correctly drawn Lewis dot structure for linear H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub> contains _____________ lone electron pairs, _____________ single bonds and _____________ double bonds.

Q6) An element is allowed to have an expanded octet if empty _____________ are available.

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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) For which molecule will the electron-pair geometry be different than the molecular geometry?

A) NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>

B) CO

C) CH<sub>4</sub>

D) BH<sub>3</sub>

E) H<sub>2</sub>O

Q2) Which statement is false? A molecule may be polar if

A) it has polar bonds

B) it has does not have nonpolar bonds

C) it is not symmetrical

D) it has a permanent dipole

E) it has all nonpolar bonds

Q3) If the molecular geometry of a substance is linear, the electron-pair geometry could be ____ with the central atom having ____ lone pairs.

A) triangular planar; one

B) tetrahedral; two

C) tetrahedral; four

D) triangular bipyramidal; two

E) triangular bipyramidal; three

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Chapter 10: Gases and the Atmosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about ideal gases and the gas laws is false?

A) Most gases are ideal or almost ideal gases at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.

B) The laws are summarized as equations that describe the behavior of ideal gases.

C) Variables that appear in the laws are temperature, pressure, volume, and amount of gas.

D) A gas will behave ideally under all conditions.

E) The laws describe the macroscopic behavior of ideal gases.

Q2) What is the density (in g/L) of methane (CH<sub>4</sub>) at 25°C and 1.2 atm of pressure? The value of R = 0.0821 L atm mol<sup>-1</sup> K<sup>-1</sup>.

A) 4.90 × 10<sup>-2</sup> g/L

B) 1.20 g/L

C) 0.787 g/L

D) 9.9 g/L

E) 6.21 × 10<sup>3</sup> g/L

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Chapter 11: Liquids, Solids, and Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which group includes only exothermic processes?

A) freezing, vaporization, deposition

B) freezing, condensation, deposition

C) melting, condensation, deposition

D) melting, evaporation, sublimation

E) melting, condensation, sublimation

Q2) The volatility of a liquid is increased by

A) decreasing the temperature and increasing the atmospheric pressure.

B) decreasing the temperature and decreasing the atmospheric pressure.

C) increasing the temperature and increasing the atmospheric pressure.

D) increasing the temperature and decreasing the atmospheric pressure.

E) decreasing the temperature and maintaining the atmospheric pressure.

Q3) Which choice is an example of a metallic solid?

A) NaCl

B) crystal

C) iron

D) quartz

E) glass

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Chapter 12: Chemical Kinetics: Rates of Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The units for the rate constant k must always include

A) a volume unit

B) a concentration unit

C) a time unit

D) all of these

E) none of these

Q2) The kinetics of a reaction are observed to be third-order. The least likely mechanism

A) involves three molecules reacting together in a single step.

B) involves two molecules reacting in one step, and the third in a subsequent step.

C) involves a single intermediate.

D) involves more than one intermediate.

E) involves a fast step followed by a slow step.

Q3) When studying kinetics, it is more accurate to measure instantaneous reaction rates at particular times rather than the average rates of reaction over time intervals. Explain why.

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Chapter 13: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concentration equilibrium constant, K<sub>c</sub>, and the pressure equilibrium constant, K<sub>p</sub>, are related by the expression

A) K<sub>c</sub> = K<sub>p</sub>(RT)<sup>Dn</sup>

B) K<sub>c</sub> = K<sub>p</sub>(Dn)<sup>RT</sup>

C) K<sub>p</sub> = K<sub>c</sub>(RT)<sup>Dn</sup>

D) K<sub>p</sub> = K<sub>c</sub>(R)<sup>TDn</sup>

E) K<sub>p</sub> = K<sub>c</sub>(Dn)<sup>RT</sup>

Q2) Which statement concerning product-favored reactions is not correct?

A) If a reaction is product-favored at high temperature, the entropy of the products is probably greater than the entropy of the reactants.

B) If a reaction is product-favored at low temperature, the enthalpy of the products is probably less than the enthalpy of the reactants.

C) If the entropy of the products is greater than the entropy of the reactants, the reaction is product-favored.

D) An endothermic reaction is product-favored.

E) The value of the equilibrium constant is greater than 1.

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Chapter 14: The Chemistry of Solutes and Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) If 50. mL of solution containing 2.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> ppm sodium ion is diluted to 4.0

L, what is the final concentration of sodium ion?

A) 2.5 ppm

B) 2.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> ppb

C) 2.5%

D) 2.5 mg/L

E) all of these are correct

Q2) The driving force for osmosis is

A) temperature.

B) pressure.

C) identity of the solute.

D) enthalpy.

E) entropy.

Q3) A coolant consisting of a 50/50 mixture by volume of ethylene glycol and water utilizes the

A) colligative properties of solutions

B) freezing point elevation constant of water

C) boiling point elevation constant of water

D) boiling point depression constant of water

E) a and c

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Chapter 15: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Typically, for a weak acid and its conjugate base

A) K<sub>a</sub> / K<sub>b</sub> = 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>

B) K<sub>a</sub> × K<sub>b</sub> = 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>

C) K<sub>a</sub> / K<sub>b</sub> = 1.0

D) K<sub>a</sub> × K<sub>b</sub> = 1.0

E) K<sub>a</sub> × K<sub>b</sub> = 14

Q2) Which compound is the most acidic?

A) GeH<sub>4</sub>

B) H<sub>2</sub>Se

C) HBr

D) AsH<sub>3</sub>

E) H<sub>2</sub>O

Q3) Which pair of substances represents a conjugate acid-base pair?

A) CH<sub>3</sub>COO<sup>-</sup> and H<sub>2</sub>O

B) H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>

C) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH and CH<sub>3</sub>COO<sup>-</sup>

D) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH and H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>

E) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH and OH<sup>-</sup>

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Chapter 16: Additional Aqueous Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which liquid or solution would CuI(s) have the greatest solubility?

A) 0.1 M aqueous ammonia

B) distilled water

C) 0.1 M aqueous copper(I) nitrate

D) saturated aqueous calcium hydroxide

E) 0.1 M aqueous sodium iodide

Q2) The common ion effect predicts that the solubility of a salt in a solution already containing one of the ions in the salt will be ____ than the solubility in water. This is predictable, because ____.

A) more; Le Chatelier's Principle predicts that the common ion will suppress precipitation B) more; the presence of the common ion will increase that concentration, hence K<sub>sp</sub> will fall

C) less; Le Chatelier's Principle predicts that the common ion will suppress dissolving D) less; the presence of the common ion will increase that concentration, hence K<sub>sp</sub> will rise

E) less; at equilibrium, Q will be less than K<sub>sp</sub>

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Chapter 17: Thermodynamics: Directionality of Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which has the highest entropy?

A) H<sub>2</sub>O(g) at 150<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

B) H<sub>2</sub>O(g) at 100<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

C) H<sub>2</sub>O(l) at 100<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

D) H<sub>2</sub>O(l) at 4<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C (the temperature of maximum density)

E) H<sub>2</sub>O(s) at -50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C

Q2) Consider the options given for the distribution of three units of energy to three particles. Which arrangement is least likely?

A) A*B*C*

B) A**B*

C) A**C*

D) A***

E) B**C*

Q3) It is possible for a substance, with respect to a given reaction, to A) be kinetically and thermodynamically stable.

B) be kinetically stable but not thermodynamically stable.

C) be thermodynamically stable but not kinetically stable.

D) fall in either category a or category b.

E) fall in either category a or category c.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Electrochemistry and Its Applications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the value of E<sub>cell</sub> for a zinc-platinum electrochemical cell when the concentration of Pt<sup>2+</sup>(aq) is 0.050 M and the concentration of Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq) is 1.1 M. E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>cell</sub> = 1.96 V under standard conditions. Pt is the less active metal.

A) 2.04 V

B) 2.00 V

C) 1.96 V

D) 1.92 V

E) 1.88 V

Q2) Explain why galvanizing steel chain-link fencing is a more effective strategy to prevent corrosion than simply painting it.

Q3) If cadmium metal and the Fe(III) ion are mixed in aqueous solution, a solution containing Cd(II) and Fe(II) results. The balanced equation for this process is

A) Cd(s) + Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq) Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq) + Cd<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

B) Cd(s) + 2 Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq) 2 Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq) + Cd<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

C) 2 Cd(s) + Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq) Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq) + 2 Cd<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

D) 2 Cd(s) + Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq) 2 Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq) + Cd<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

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Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The force holding the protons and neutrons together in a nucleus is known as

A) binding energy

B) gamma radiation

C) electrostatic attraction

D) gravity

E) mass defect

Q2) Major technical obstacle(s) to the achievement of a controlled fusion reaction is (are)

I. attaining a temperature of at least 1.0 ´ 108 K

II. containment of the plasma long enough to generate a net output of energy

III. recovering the energy in some useable form

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) I, II, and III

E) I and II only

Q3) Calculate the binding energy per nucleon for bromine-81, with a mass of 80.9163 amu. The mass of a proton is 1.007825 amu and the mass of a neutron is 1.008665 amu.

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