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General Chemistry I provides a foundational understanding of the principles of chemistry, introducing students to the study of matter, its properties, structure, and the changes it undergoes. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermochemistry, and basic chemical reactions. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills and laboratory techniques essential for further study in chemistry and related sciences. The course is designed for students pursuing studies in science, engineering, and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Q1) Which of the following items does NOT contain chemicals?
A)drain cleaner
B)organically grown vegetables
C)air
D)insecticides
E)All of the above contain chemicals.
Answer: E
Q2) A sample of wood with a mass of 3.0 grams was burned in an open dish.The ashes weighed 1.2 grams.
What happened to the rest of the wood?
A)The remaining mass was destroyed.
B)The remaining 1.8 grams was converted into gaseous compounds.
C)Nothing,the burned wood simply has a mass of 1.2 grams.
D)The remaining 1.8 grams was converted into heat.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Theories can be tested and validated through experimentation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The decimal value 0.01 is equal to which exponential?
A)10<sup>-3</sup>
B)10<sup>-2</sup>
C)10<sup>-4</sup>
D)10<sup>-5</sup>
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) The correct number of significant figures in the number 0.002320 is:
A)7
B)4
C)3
D)ambiguous
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) When the temperature of an object is reported as 23.7°C,the actual temperature can be assumed to be between 23.6°C and 23.8°C.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The large heat capacity of water produces large fluctuations in temperature near bodies of water during the summer months.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which type of energy is associated with position?
A)chemical
B)electrical
C)potential
D)kinetic
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and indefinite shape?
A)liquid
B)solid
C)gas
D)plasma
E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Q1) Cr is a member of which family?
A)noble gases
B)halogens
C)alkaline earth metals
D)alkali metals
E)none of the above
Q2) Ernest Rutherford proved the existence of electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about ions is INCORRECT?
A)Cations are positive ions and anions are negative ions.
B)Cations are formed when an atom loses electrons.
C)Anions are formed when an atom gains electrons.
D)Cations always have the same number of protons as electrons.
E)All statements are correct.
Q4) The atomic mass of individual atoms of an element may vary.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A compound has a formula mass of 61.98 amu and is comprised of atoms of sodium and oxygen in a definite ratio.The name of the compound described here is
A)sodium monoxide.
B)disodium oxide.
C)sodium oxide.
D)sodium dioxide.
E)none of the above
Q2) Chemical formulas normally list the most metallic elements first.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of carbon and oxygen?
A)CO<sub>2</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>O
C)CO
D)CO<sub>3</sub>
E)Carbon and oxygen do not form an ionic compound.
Q4) The ionic compound that forms between aluminum and oxygen is AlO.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> could be an empirical formula.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One mole of (NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>HPO<sub>4</sub> contains how many moles of hydrogen atoms?
A)4
B)2
C)8
D)9
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the mass of 3.09 × 10<sup>24</sup> atoms of sulfur in grams?
A)9.64 × 10<sup>22</sup>
B)9.91 × 10<sup>25</sup>
C)165
D)0.160
E)none of the above
Q4) One mole of water contains 6.022 × 10<sup>23 </sup>hydrogen atoms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What would be the formula of the precipitate that forms when Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (aq)and K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)are mixed?
A)K(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B)PbSO<sub>4</sub>
C)PbK<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
E)none of the above
Q2) In writing the chemical equation for a precipitation reaction,what abbreviation of the physical state must appear with one of the products?
A)(s)
B)(g)
C)(l)
D)(w)
E)none of the above
Q3) Combustion reactions emit heat and so can be classified as endothermic.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How many grams of calcium phosphate are theoretically produced if we start with 3.40 moles of Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> and 2.40 moles of Li<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?
Reaction: 3Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub>+ 2Li<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sub> </sub> 6LiNO<sub>3</sub> + Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
A)310
B)248
C)1054
D)351
E)not enough information
Q2) The conversion factor between mass and moles for a compound is the molar mass.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The conversion factor for moles of carbon dioxide to mass of carbon dioxide is: 1 mole CO<sub>2</sub> 44.01 g
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most energetic photons are gamma rays.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A photon of red light contains the same amount of energy as a photon of blue light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the correct order of the electromagnetic spectrum from shortest wavelength to longest?
A)Gamma Rays X-rays Ultraviolet Radiation Visible Light Infrared Radiation Microwaves Radio Waves
B)Visible Light Infrared Radiation Microwaves Radio Waves Gamma Rays X-rays Ultraviolet Radiation
C)Radio Waves X-rays Ultraviolet Radiation Visible Light Infrared Radiation Microwaves Gamma Rays
D)Gamma Rays X-rays Visible Light Ultraviolet Radiation Infrared Radiation Microwaves Radio Waves
E)Gamma Rays X-rays Infrared Radiation Visible Light Ultraviolet Radiation Microwaves Radio Waves
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Q1) What is the molecular geometry of SiH<sub>4</sub>?
A)bent
B)linear
C)tetrahedral
D)trigonal pyramidal
E)not enough information
Q2) A correct Lewis structure for an atom of carbon would have eight dots surrounding the symbol of the element.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the molecular geometry if you have a double bond,a single bond and 1 lone pair around the central atom?
A)bent
B)linear
C)tetrahedral
D)trigonal pyramidal
E)not enough information
Q4) The correct Lewis structure for potassium in KCl is: K<sup>+</sup>.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A sample of helium gas initially at 37.0°C,785 torr and 2.00 L was heated to 58.0°C while the volume expanded to 3.24 L.What is the final pressure in atm?
A)517
B)0.681
C)1.79
D)3.21
E)none of the above
Q2) A "shielding gas" mixture of argon and carbon dioxide is sometimes used in welding to improve the strength of the weld.If a gas cylinder of this two-part mixture was at 4.0 atm pressure and this mixture was 90.% argon,what would be the pressure due to the carbon dioxide gas component?
A)3.6 atm
B)0.40 atm
C)10.atm
D)4.0 atm
E)none of the above
Q3) A pedometer is a device created by Torricelli to measure pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which sequence correctly shows the increasing density of the three phases of water?
A)solid < liquid < gas
B)gas < liquid < solid
C)gas < solid < liquid
D)liquid < gas < solid
E)none of the above
Q2) Liquids that are viscous flow more slowly than liquids that are not viscous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the heat of vaporization(kJ/mol)if it takes 3,452 J of heat to completely vaporize 2.68 moles of the liquid at its boiling point?
A)1288
B)1.29
C)0.776
D)12.2
E)none of the above
Q4) Evaporation is an endothermic process.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In order for a solute to dissolve in solution:
A)the solute-solvent forces must be greater than the solute-solute forces.
B)the solute-solute forces must be greater than the solute-solvent forces.
C)the solute-solvent forces must equal the solute-solute forces.
D)the polarity of the solute and solvent must be opposite.
E)none of the above
Q2) The molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 15.0 grams of NaCl in 1000 mL water is 0.15 M.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ionic solutes typically dissolve in nonpolar solvents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If 50 grams of salt dissolves into 250 grams of water,the resulting solution must have a mass of 300 grams.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Steel is an example of a solid solution.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Bases have a bitter taste.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A neutralization reaction between an acid and sodium hydroxide formed water and the salt named sodium sulfate.What was the formula of the acid that was neutralized?
A)H<sub>2</sub>S
B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C)HCl
D)Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
E)none of the above
Q3) A 25.0 ml sample of 0.105 M HCl was titrated with 31.5 ml of NaOH.What is the concentration of the NaOH?
A)0.0833 M
B)0.132 M
C)0.105 M
D)0.075 M
E)none of the above
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Q1) A reaction that has K<sub>eq</sub> = 2.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> will have high concentrations of products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For the reaction 2 N<sub>2</sub>O(g) O<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 2 N<sub>2</sub> (g),what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure increases?
A)shifts to the left
B)shifts to the right
C)does nothing
D)doubles
E)halves
Q3) What is the molar solubility, (S),of FeS if the K<sub>sp</sub> = 5.9 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup> for this substance?
A)1.2 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>8</sup> M
B)5.9 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup> M
C)7.7 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
D)3.5 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>37</sup> M
E)none of the above
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Q1) Reduction can be defined as the gain of oxygen atoms by another element.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the oxidation state of the underlined element in the compound: H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>?
A)+1
B)+2
C)-2
D)+6
E)+4
Q3) A spontaneous redox reaction can be used to produce electrical current.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction: CH<sub>4</sub> + 2O<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O.
A)CH<sub>4</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)CO<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
E)none of the above

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Q1) Nuclear power plants produce energy by fission reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of emission has a negative charge?
A)alpha
B)beta
C)positron
D)gamma
E)none of the above
Q3) The emitted particle with the mass of an electron but carrying a 1+ charge is named the A)proton.
B)proelectron.
C)positron.
D)plusion.
E)none of the above
Q4) A nuclear reaction typically changes the identity of the element involved.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
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Q1)
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH is named 5-pentanol.
A)True
B)False
Q2) R-O-R is an ether functional group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following compounds will undergo an addition reaction?
A)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) The formula of methyl propanoate is: CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>COOCH<sub>3</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Alkynes are compounds with at least one triple bond.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The four main classes of biochemical compounds are carbohydrates,lipids,proteins and nucleic acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nucleic acids contain a chemical code that ensures the correct amino acid sequence for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A globular shape is an example of which type of structure?
A)Primary Structure
B)Secondary Structure
C)Tertiary Structure
D)Quaternary Structure
E)Pental Structure
Q4) The complementary strand of DNA to the pattern GAATC is TCCGA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
Q6) Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure.
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