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General Chemistry I is an introductory course that covers the fundamental principles of chemistry, including atomic and molecular structure, periodic properties of the elements, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermochemistry, and basic chemical reactions. Students will develop problem-solving skills and gain hands-on laboratory experience to better understand chemical concepts and their real-world applications. This course lays the groundwork for further study in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 12th Edition by Raymond Chang
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the density of a salt solution if 75.0 mL of the solution has a mass of 32.0 g
A) 0.127 g/mL
B) 0.227 g/mL
C) 0.327 g/mL
D) 0.427 g/mL
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Convert 4.89 mm to µm.
A) 4.89 x 10<sup>-6</sup> µm
B) 4.89 x 10<sup>-3</sup> µm
C) 4.89 x 10<sup>3</sup> µm
D) 4.89 x 10<sup>6</sup> µm
E) 4.89 x 10<sup>9</sup> µm
Answer: C
Q3) Brewed coffee is a pure substance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Of the following which is the formula of an anion that contains a metal
A) Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup>
B) NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
C) SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
D) SO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Answer: A
Q2) Use the periodic table above to identify where the alkali metals are located.
A) Group 1A
B) Group 2B
C) Group 3A
D) Group 7A
E) Group 8A
Answer: A
Q3) An ion is an atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What are the two different ions present in the compound FeCl<sub>3</sub>
Answer: \(Fe^{2+}, Cl^-\)

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Q1) What is the coefficient of H<sub>2</sub>O when the equation below is properly balanced ___ PCl<sub>3</sub>(l) + ___ H<sub>2</sub>O(l) \(\rarr\) ___ H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>(aq) + ___ HCl(aq)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) none of these
Answer: C
Q2) A compound with an empirical formula of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>3</sub> has a molar mass of 531.47 g/mol. What is the molecular formula
A) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>3</sub>
B) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>4</sub>Br<sub>6</sub>
C) CHBr
D) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>4</sub>Br<sub>3</sub>
E) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>Br<sub>9</sub>
Answer: B
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Q1) How many total electrons are transferred in the following reaction
2Na(s) + Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) 2NaCl(s)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q2) What mass of K<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> is needed to prepare 200. mL of a solution having a potassium ion concentration of 0.150 M
A) 4.15 g
B) 10.4 g
C) 13.8 g
D) 2.07 g
E) 1.49 g
Q3) A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
A)True B)False
Q4) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> is an example of a diproticacid.
A)True B)False

6
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Q1) The mole fraction of oxygen molecules in dry air is 0.2095. What volume of dry air at 1.00 atm and 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C is required for burning 1.00 L of hexane (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>, density = 0.660 g/mL) completely, yielding carbon dioxide and water
A) 187 L
B) 712 L
C) 894 L
D) 1780 L
E) 8490 L
Q2) A gaseous compound is 30.4% nitrogen and 69.6% oxygen by mass. A 5.25-g sample of the gas occupies a volume of 1.00 L and exerts a pressure of 1.26 atm at -4.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. Which of these choices is its molecular formula
A) NO
B) NO<sub>2</sub>
C) N<sub>3</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
E) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
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Q1) The specific heat of gold is 0.129 J/g·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. What is the molar heat capacity of gold
A) 0.039 J/mol·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 0.129 J/mol·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C) 25.4 J/mol·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
D) 39.0 kJ/mol·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
E) 197 J/mol·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
Q2) Which of the following processes always results in an increase in the energy of a system
A) The system loses heat and does work on the surroundings.
B) The system gains heat and does work on the surroundings.
C) The system loses heat and has work done on it by the surroundings.
D) The system gains heat and has work done on it by the surroundings.
E) None of these is always true.
Q3) The heat capacity of 10.0 g of water is 83.7 J/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The work done on the surroundings by the expansion of a gas is w = -PDV.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) "No two electrons in an atom can have the same four quantum numbers" is a statement of
A) the Pauli exclusion principle.
B) Bohr's equation.
C) Hund's rule.
D) de Broglie's relation.
E) Dalton's atomic theory.
Q2) An electron gains energy in the transition from a 6s subshell to a 5d subshell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which element has the following ground-state electron configuration
[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>5</sup>
A) arsenic
B) bromine
C) iodine
D) selenium
E) tellurium
Q4) An electron gains energy in the transition from a 4d subshell to a 5s subshell.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The law of octaves states that every eighth element has similar properties when arranged in order of increasing
A) nuclear binding energy.
B) number of electrons.
C) number of neutrons.
D) atomic mass.
E) atomic number.
Q2) Which two electron configurations represent elements that would have similar chemical properties
(1) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>4</sup> (2) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>5</sup> (3) [Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>5</sup> (4) [Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>5</sup>
A) (1) and (2)
B) (1) and (3)
C) (2) and (3)
D) (2) and (4)
E) (3) and (4)
Q3) Amphoteric oxides exhibit both acidic and basic properties.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which one of the following is most likely to be a covalent compound
A) KF
B) CaCl<sub>2</sub>
C) SF<sub>4</sub>
D) Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E) CaSO<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which of the following solids would have the highest melting point
A) NaI
B) NaF
C) MgO
D) MgCl<sub>2</sub>
E) KF
Q3) Which one of the following compounds utilizes both ionic and covalent bonding
A) C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O
B) NH<sub>3</sub>
C) Na<sub>2</sub>S
D) NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>
E) K<sub>3</sub>N
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Q1) The hybridization of the central nitrogen atom in the molecule N<sub>2</sub>O is A)sp.
B) sp<sup>2</sup>.
C) sp<sup>3</sup>.
D) sp<sup>3</sup>d.
E) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>.
Q2) Predict the geometry and polarity of the CS<sub>2</sub> molecule.
A) linear, polar
B) linear, nonpolar
C) tetrahedral, nonpolar
D) bent, nonpolar
E) bent, polar
Q3) Which of the following species have the same geometries
A) NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> and H<sub>2</sub>O
B) NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> and BeH<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O and BeH<sub>2</sub>
D) NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>, H<sub>2</sub>O, and BeH<sub>2</sub>
Q4) A species with a bond order of 1/2 may be stable.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) At a given temperature CCl<sub>4</sub> has a weaker surface tension than H<sub>2</sub>O.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which two properties are more typical of molecular compounds than of ionic compounds
1. They are gases or liquids at room temperature.
2. They have high melting points.
3. Solids do not conduct electricity, but liquids do.
4. Atoms share electrons.
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
E) 3 and 4
Q3) H<sub>2</sub>S has stronger intermolecular forces of attraction than H<sub>2</sub>Se.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the mass percent CH<sub>3</sub>OH of a 0.256 m CH<sub>3</sub>OH(aq) solution
A) 0.819 %
B) 0.992 %
C) 1.23 %
D) 1.29 %
E) 1.51 %
Q2) A solution is prepared by adding 6.24 g of benzene (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>, 78.11 g/mol) to 80.74 g of cyclohexane (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>, 84.16 g/mol).
Calculate the mole fraction and molality of benzene in this solution.
A) Mole fraction = 0.0769; molality = 0.789 m
B) Mole fraction = 0.0869; molality = 0.789 m
C) Mole fraction = 0.0769; molality = 0.989 m
D) Mole fraction = 0.0869; molality = 0.989 m
E) None of the above
Q3) The vapor pressure of a solution depends on the chemical nature of the solvent.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) B is a catalyst in the following mechanism: \(\begin{array}{lr} \mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}+\mathrm{B} & \text { slow } \\ \mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}+\mathrm{E} & \text { fast } \end{array}\)
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reaction 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) 2NO(g) + O<sub>2</sub>(g) is suspected to be second order in NO<sub>2</sub>. Which of the following kinetic plots would be the most useful to confirm whether or not the reaction is second order
A) A plot of [NO<sub>2</sub>]<sup>-1</sup> vs. t
B) A plot of ln [NO<sub>2</sub>]<sup>-1</sup> vs. t
C) A plot of ln [NO<sub>2</sub>] vs. t
D) A plot of [NO<sub>2</sub>]<sup>2</sup> vs. t
E) A plot of [NO<sub>2</sub>] vs. t
Q3) In the reaction, 2N<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) 2N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub>, oxygen and nitrogen gases are formed at the same rate (mol/L·s).
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The equilibrium constant expression for the reaction 2BrF<sub>5</sub> (g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) Br<sub>2</sub> (g) + 5F<sub>2</sub> (g) is
A) K<sub>c</sub> = [Br<sub>2</sub>] [F<sub>2</sub>] / [BrF<sub>5</sub>]
B) K<sub>c</sub> = [Br<sub>2</sub>] [F<sub>2</sub>]<sup>5</sup> / [BrF<sub>5</sub>]<sup>2</sup>
C) K<sub>c</sub> = [Br<sub>2</sub>] [F<sub>2</sub>]<sup>2</sup> / [BrF<sub>5</sub>]<sup>5</sup>
D) K<sub>c</sub> = [BrF<sub>5</sub>]<sup>2</sup> / [Br<sub>2</sub>][F<sub>2</sub>]<sup>5</sup>
E) K<sub>c</sub> = 2[BrF<sub>5</sub>]<sup>2</sup> / ([Br<sub>2</sub>] *5[F<sub>2</sub>]<sup>5</sup>)
Q2) Concerning the following reaction at equilibrium: 3Fe(s) + 4H<sub>2</sub>O(g) Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(s) + 4H<sub>2</sub>(g), increasing the concentration of the Fe(s) would:
A) Shift the equilibrium to the right
B) Shift the equilibrium to the left
C) Increase the value of the equilibrium constant, K
D) Decrease the value of the equilibrium constant, K
E) Cause no change
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Q1) Calculate the H<sup>+</sup> ion concentration in a 8.8 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> solution.
A) 8.8 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B) 1.8 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
C) 2.2 * 10<sup>-11</sup> M
D) 1.1 * 10<sup>-11</sup> M
E) 5.7 * 10<sup>-12</sup> M
Q2) If the pH of pure water is 7.0, the hydroxide ion concentration in pure water is 1 * 10<sup>-7</sup> M.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which solution will have the lowest pH
A) 0.25 M HClO
B) 0.25 M HClO<sub>2</sub>
C) 0.25 M HClO<sub>3</sub>
D) 0.25 M HClO<sub>4</sub>
E) 0.25 M NaClO<sub>4</sub>
Q4) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is a stronger acid than HSO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The solubility product for barium sulfate is 1.1 * 10<sup>-10</sup>. Calculate the molar solubility of barium sulfate.
A) 5.5 * 10<sup>-11</sup> mol/L
B) 1.1 * 10<sup>-5</sup> mol/L
C) 2.1 * 10<sup>-5</sup> mol/L
D) 1.1 * 10<sup>-10</sup> mol/L
E) 2.2 * 10<sup>-10</sup> mol/L
Q2) Within what pH range is a HOCl - NaOCl buffer effective
A) pH 2.0 - pH 4.0
B) pH 7.5 - pH 9.5
C) pH 6.5 - pH 8.5
D) pH 6.5 - pH 9.5
E) pH 1.0 - pH 14.0
Q3) For which type of titration will the pH be neutral at the equivalence point
A) Strong acid vs. strong base.
B) Strong acid vs. weak base.
C) Weak acid vs. strong base.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
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Q1) For the reaction 2NO(g) + O<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g) if initially P(NO) = 1.5 atm, P(O<sub>2</sub>) = 1.4 atm, and P(NO<sub>2</sub>) = 2.0 atm, calculate \(\Delta\)G for this reaction at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. The following data is valid at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C: \(\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline & \Delta \mathrm{G}_{\mathrm{f}}{ }^{\circ}(\mathrm{kJ} / \mathrm{mol}) \\
\hline \mathrm{NO} & 86.7 \\ \hline \mathrm{NO}_{2} & 51.8 \\ \hline \end{array}\)
A) -69.9 kJ/mol
B) -69.2 kJ/mol
C) 522.1 kJ/mol
D) -79.9 kJ/mol
E) -35.0 kJ/mol
Q2) The standard entropy of any pure substance is 0 J/mol. A)True B)False
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Q1) Consider the following reaction: 2Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq) + Cu<sup>2+</sup> \(\rarr\) 2Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq) + Cu.When the reaction comes to equilibrium, what is the cell voltage
A) 0.43 V
B) 1.11 V
C) 0.78 V
D) -0.43 V
E) 0 V
Q2) How many coulombs (C) of electrical charge must pass through an electrolytic cell to reduce 0.44 mol Ca<sup>2+</sup> ion to calcium metal
A) 190,000 C
B) 85,000 C
C) 21,000 C
D) 42,500 C
E) 0.88 C
Q3) H<sub>2</sub>(g) will form when Sn is placed in 1.0 M HCl.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) As a result of beta decay, the product nucleus is
A) one atomic number lower than the original element.
B) two atomic numbers higher than the original element.
C) one atomic number higher than the original element.
D) two atomic numbers lower than the original element.
E) four atomic numbers lower than the original element.
Q2) Which of the following nuclear processes results in an increase of atomic number in the product element formed
I. Alpha emission
II. Beta emission
III. Positron emission
IV. Electron capture
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) I, II, and III
D) II only
E) IV only
Q3) Calcium-45 is more stable than calcium-44.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In order for a gas to be a "greenhouse gas" it must
A) transmit visible light and absorb infrared radiation.
B) be radioactive.
C) transmit infrared light and absorb visible light.
D) be combustible.
E) absorb both visible light and infrared radiation.
Q2) What mass of solid CaO is needed to remove the sulfur dioxide from 1.0 * 10<sup>6</sup> m<sup>3</sup> of air having an SO<sub>2</sub> concentration of 1.5 * 10<sup>-9</sup> M Assume that the reaction leading to removal of the sulfur dioxide is CaO(s) + SO<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) CaCO<sub>3</sub>(s).
A) 56 g
B) 96 g
C) 37 g
D) 84 g
E) 43 g
Q3) The following balanced equation shows what happens to nitrogen dioxide in sunlight.NO<sub>2</sub>(g) + hn \(\rarr\) NO(g) + O(g)
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Cast iron as it is prepared in a blast furnace is a product of high purity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the band theory, which of these statements provide(s) an explanation for the high electrical conductivity of metals
I. a partly filled conduction band
II. a valence band overlapping an empty conduction band
III. a filled valence band
IV. a large gap between the valence band and the conduction band
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) III
D) III and IV
E) IV
Q3) The following depicts a correctly balanced chemical equation illustrating roasting.2ZnS + 3O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2ZnO + 2SO<sub>2</sub>
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In which of the following compounds is sulfur in a positive oxidation state
A) H<sub>2</sub>S
B) S<sub>8</sub>
C) CaS
D) MnS
E) SO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which one of the following compounds can react with water to form hydrogen gas
A) PCl<sub>5</sub>
B) NO<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D) KH
E) NH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) The following accurately depicts the balanced chemical equation for a laboratory preparation of nitrogen gas.NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>2</sub>(s) \(\rarr\) 2H<sub>2</sub>O(g) + N<sub>2</sub>(g)
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alkali metal hydrides are very reactive with water, forming H<sub>2</sub> gas.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The best name for K<sub>4</sub>[FeCl<sub>2</sub>(CN)<sub>4</sub>] is
A) tetrapotassium dichlorodicyanoiron(II).
B) potassium dichlorodicyanoiron(II).
C) potassium dichlorodicyanoferrate(III).
D) tetrapotassium dichlorobis(cyano)iron(III).
E) potassium dichlorotetracyanoferrate(II).
Q2) How many geometric isomers are possible for the complex [CrF<sub>3</sub>Br<sub>3</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
A) None, only one structure is possible
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the oxidation number of Co in the complex Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>3</sub>Cl<sub>3</sub>
A) +1
B) +2
C) +3
D) +4
E) None of the above

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Q1) Select the one molecule that is a saturated hydrocarbon.
A) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
B) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
C) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
E) C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Cycloalkanes have the general formula
A) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n-4</sub>.
B) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n-2</sub>.
C) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>.
D) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+2</sub>.
E) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+4</sub>.
Q3) Alkynes have the general formula
A) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n-4</sub>.
B) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n-2</sub>.
C) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>.
D) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+2</sub>.
E) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+4</sub>.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/59538
Sample Questions
Q1) A protein that has been reversibly denatured has
A) temporarily lost part or all of its secondary or tertiary structure.
B) temporarily lost part or all of its primary structure.
C) been genetically modified due to errors in the nucleotides in the parent DNA.
D) temporarily lost its amino acid residues.
E) temporarily lost the hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases.
Q2) Which of these molecules is a product of the hydrolysis of DNA
A) acetic acid
B) glucose
C) adenine
D) ribose
E) water
Q3) An amino acid is a compound that contains at least
A) one amino group and one amide group.
B) two amino groups and one carboxylic acid group.
C) one hydroxyl group and one methyl group.
D) one carboxylic acid group and one amino group.
E) one methyl group and one amide group.
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