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General Chemistry I provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of chemistry, including atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, and basic thermochemistry. The course covers the properties and behavior of elements and compounds, periodic trends, and the application of chemical concepts to real-world problems. Laboratory experiences reinforce theoretical concepts, develop experimental skills, and promote scientific inquiry and analysis. This foundational course prepares students for advanced studies in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Q1) A scientific theory describes the underlying reasons for observations and laws.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Atoms and molecules determine how matter behaves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The definition of a scientific law is:
A)the same as a hypothesis.
B)a way of learning that emphasizes observation and experimentation.
C)the underlying reason for a scientific theory.
D)a number of similar observations generalized into a brief statement summarizing past observations and predicting new ones.
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q4) The atomic theory explains why the law of conservation of mass is true.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Which measurement below represents the heaviest mass?
A)1 mg
B)1 kg
C)1 pg
D)1 Mg
E)1 dg
Answer: D
Q2) In addition or subtraction,the result carries the same number of decimal places as the quantity carrying the fewest decimal places.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A solution map is the section near the back of the textbook that provides the answers to assigned problems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following statements about physical and chemical changes is FALSE?
A)In a chemical change,matter changes its composition.
B)In a physical change,matter does not change its composition.
C)Phase changes are always physical changes.
D)Chemical reactions are chemical changes.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Answer: E
Q2) Which type of energy is associated with motion?
A)chemical
B)electrical
C)potential
D)kinetic
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The temperature of 0°F is colder than the temperature of 0°C.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Group 7A elements are also called:
A)noble gases.
B)halogens.
C)alkaline earth metals.
D)alkali metals.
E)none of the above
Q2) John Dalton formalized an atomic theory that gained acceptance in the early 19th century.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a correct name,symbol combination?
A)beryllium,Be
B)magnesium,Mg
C)iron,I
D)manganese,Mn
E)silicon,Si
Q4) The charges on electrons and neutrons cancel each other to give neutral atoms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The correct name for HNO<sub>3</sub> is hydronitric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the correct formula for a compound that has three oxygen atoms and one sulfur atom?
A)O<sub>3</sub>S
B)SO<sub>3</sub>
C)3OS
D)SO3
E)none of the above
Q3) The formula for potassium chlorate is KClO<sub>3</sub>.The formula for magnesium chloride is MgCl<sub>2</sub>.What is the formula for magnesium chlorate?
A)MgClO<sub>3</sub>
B)Mg<sub>2</sub>ClO<sub>3</sub>
C)Mg(ClO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
D)Mg<sub>2</sub>(ClO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
E)none of the above
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Q1) How many atoms are present in 2.5 moles?
A)6.6 x 10<sup>23</sup>
B)6.6 x 10<sup>-25</sup>
C)1.5 x 10<sup>24</sup>
D)6.02 x 10<sup>23</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) Calculate the molar mass of calcium nitrate.
A)136.03 g/mol
B)102.09 g/mol
C)132.10 g/mol
D)164.10 g/mol
E)none of the above
Q3) A 42.7 gram sample of potassium nitrate contains how many grams of potassium?
A)39.1
B)16.5
C)21.4
D)8.54
E)none of the above
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Q1) Considering the following precipitation reaction:
Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ 2KI(aq) PbI<sub>2</sub>(s)+
2KNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
Which ion would NOT be present in the complete ionic equation?
A)Pb<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup>
B)K<sup>+</sup>
C)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)I<sup>-</sup>
E)All the above ions are in the complete ionic equation.
Q2) We remove the spectator ions from the complete ionic equation to form the net ionic equation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The formation of a gas is evidence of a chemical reaction while the emission of light is not.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An oxidation-reduction reaction must involve reaction with oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries 4 muffins. You can make 1 dozen muffins from 3 eggs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many moles of aluminum are needed to make 9 moles of molecular hydrogen?
Given the reaction: 2 Al + 6 HCl 2 AlCl<sub>3</sub> + 3H<sub>2</sub>
A)2 moles
B)3 moles
C)4 moles
D)6 moles
E)none of the above
Q3) How many moles of water are made from complete reaction of 1.4 moles of hydrogen gas?
Given the reaction: 2H<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2H<sub>2</sub>O
A)2.8
B)0.7
C)1.4
D)2.1
E)not enough information
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Q1) The possible values for the principal quantum numbers are: n = 0,1,2,3,4.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of carbon?
A)12
B)6
C)4
D)2
E)none of the above
Q3) The lowest energy orbital in the quantum-mechanical model is the A)zero orbital.
B)1a orbital.
C)1p orbital.
D)1s orbital.
E)none of the above
Q4) A photon of red light contains the same amount of energy as a photon of blue light.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of sodium and fluorine is NaF.
A)True B)False
Q2) A chemical bond is classified as a covalent bond if it involves the transfer of electrons.
A)True B)False
Q3) Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound between barium and sulfur is: A)BaS
B)Ba<sub>2</sub>S
C)BaS<sub>2</sub>
D)BaS<sub>3</sub> E)none of the above
Q4) A correct Lewis structure for an atom of carbon would have eight dots surrounding the symbol of the element.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) As we climb a mountain to a higher altitude,we experience a pressure decrease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A gas may not behave ideally under conditions of low pressure or high temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the temperature (°C)of 2.48 moles of gas stored in a 30.0 L container at 1559 mm Hg?
(R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K)
A)302
B)189
C)29
D)-84
E)none of the above
Q4) Gases fill the entire volume of their container.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Without intermolecular forces,solids and liquids would not exist and all matter would be gaseous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ice is an example of a molecular solid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) H<sub>2</sub> boils at a higher temperature than He because H<sub>2</sub> undergoes hydrogen bonding.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which intermolecular forces are found in CCl<sub>4</sub>?
A)dispersion forces
B)dipole-dipole forces
C)hydrogen bonding
D)X-forces
E)none of the above
Q5) Intermolecular forces hold atoms and molecules in place in a solid.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) After you have completed the task of diluting a solution,which statement below must be TRUE?
A)The new solution has more volume but has a lower concentration than before.
B)The new solution has more volume but has a higher concentration than before.
C)The new solution has less volume but has a lower concentration than before.
D)The new solution has less volume but has a higher concentration than before.
E)none of the above
Q2) A solution that is 35 percent by mass NaCl contains 35 grams of NaCl dissolved in 100 grams of water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the mass percent of a sodium fluoride solution prepared by dissolving 0.64 moles of sodium fluoride into 63.5 grams of water?
A)26.9%
B)42.3%
C)70.3%
D)29.7%
E)none of the above
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Q1) Exactly 17.0 mL of a H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> solution was required to neutralize 45.0 mL of 0.235 M NaOH.What was the concentration of the H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> solution?
GIVEN: H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ 2NaOH (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l)+ Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)
A)5.63 M
B)0.622 M
C)0.00529 M
D)0.311 M
E)none of the above
Q2) Bases feel slippery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the concentration of the hydronium ions in an acidic solution?
A)0.0 M
B)1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
C)1.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>14</sup> M
D)> 1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
E)< 1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
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Q1) Adding heat to an endothermic reaction causes the reaction to shift to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For a given chemical equation,the coefficients for each substance become the exponents for each substance in the written equilibrium expression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Le Chatelier's Principle states that:
A)a disturbing force must be applied to a system in order for it to reach equilibrium.
B)when a system at equilibrium is disturbed,a new equilibrium constant is established.
C)when a chemical system at equilibrium is disturbed,the system shifts in order to minimize the effect.
D)when a chemical system is at equilibrium it is no longer possible to alter the system. E)none of the above
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Q1) The cathode is the electrode at which reduction occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you properly balance the following half reaction in acid solution,how many electrons would appear on the product side of the equation? NO (g) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>1</sup><sup>-</sup> (aq)
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)5
E)none of the above
Q3) The reducing agent is reduced during the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To achieve the largest battery voltage possible,the battery should be assembled from a metal high on the activity series list with a metal ion low on the activity series list.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between a galvanic (voltaic)cell and an electrolytic cell.
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Q1) A gamma ray is a high energy photon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an atom emits a beta particle,its atomic number increases by one because it now has one additional proton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If an object has 25% of the C-14 (t<sub>1/2</sub> = 5,730 yrs)activity as a living organism,the age of the item is:
A)11,460 years.
B)17,190 years.
C)22,920 years.
D)28,650 years.
E)More information is needed.
Q4) Alpha particles have lower penetrating power than the other types of radioactive emissions..
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
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Q1) Which of the following compounds will undergo an addition reaction?
A)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) What will be the major product(s)when C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> undergoes an addition reaction with Cl<sub>2</sub>?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Name the following compound: CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-OCH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub>
A)butyl ethyl ether
B)hexyl ether
C)ethyl butylone
D)2-hexone
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Q1) Which sequence below represents the correct base pairs that can exist in DNA?
A)A with T and C with G
B)A with C and T with G
C)A with G and C with T
D)A with U and T with G
E)none of the above
Q2) Which protein structure provides the large-scale bends and folds in the protein?
A)Primary Structure
B)Secondary Structure
C)Tertiary Structure
D)Quaternary Structure
E)Pental Structure
Q3) A codon is:
A)a series of three bases that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.
B)a series of three phosphates that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.
C)a series of three sugars that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.
D)a series of three proteins that specify one of the twenty amino acids.
E)none of the above
Q4) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
Q5) Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure.
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