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General Chemistry I Exam Questions - 1785 Verified Questions

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General Chemistry I Exam Questions

Course Introduction

General Chemistry I provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of chemistry, including atomic and molecular structure, stoichiometry, chemical reactions, gases, thermochemistry, and the periodic properties of elements. Emphasizing quantitative reasoning and problem-solving skills, the course explores the behavior of matter at the macroscopic, microscopic, and symbolic levels. Laboratory activities reinforce theoretical concepts through hands-on experiments, fostering an understanding of the scientific method and safe laboratory practices. General Chemistry I lays the groundwork for further studies in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.

Recommended Textbook

Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo

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18 Chapters

1785 Verified Questions

1785 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: What Is Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents a physical change only?

A)barbecuing a steak

B)adding electricity to water to produce hydrogen and oxygen gas

C)chopping a piece of wood

D)burning a propane camping stove

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following may not be classified as matter?

A)tooth filling

B)sand

C)heat

D)seawater

Answer: C

Q3) By what chemical symbol do we know the element magnesium?

A)Mn

B)Ma

C)M

D)Mg

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: The Numerical Side of Chemistry

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140 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Solve the equation 4x + 3y = 246 for the x-variable, and report the value for x when y = 2.36.

Answer: (246 - 3y)/4 = x; when y = 2.36, x = 59.7

Q2) The prefix pico- indicates one billionth.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) What is the symbol and name borrowed from Greek which signifies one thousand?

Answer: k, for kilo

Q4) Which value below properly expresses the number 0.0247 in scientific notation?

A)2.47 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>

B)2.47 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>

C)2.47 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>

D)24.7

Answer: B

Q5) When determining the number of significant figures in a number, leading zeros are not significant.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 4

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Chapter 3: The Evolution of Atomic Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following has more protons than electrons?

A)Mg<sup>+2</sup>

B)Al

C)P<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup>

D)O<sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>

Answer: A

Q2) A neutral atom's atomic number is equal to ________.

A)the number of nucleons

B)the sum of protons and neutrons

C)the number of electrons

D)the number of neutrons

Answer: C

Q3) How is the term "mass number" defined for a given atom or isotope?

A)as the mass of one mole of that element or isotope

B)as the sum of the protons, neutrons, and electrons it contains

C)as the sum of the protons and neutrons its nucleus contains

D)as the number of protons its nucleus contains

Answer: C

Q4) lead-207

Answer: atomic number 82, mass number 207, symbol Pb

Page 5

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Chapter 4: The Modern Model of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following subshells appear in the second shell?

A)s

B)s,p

C)s, p, d

D)p

Q2) Which of the following species does not match the electronic configuration 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>4s<sup> 2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>6 </sup>?

A)Br<sup>-</sup>

B)Sr<sup>+2</sup>

C)As<sup>-3</sup>

D)Se<sup>+2</sup>

Q3) Microwave is radiation of a lower energy than that of visible light.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Modern scientists accept the notion that electrons are found in circular orbits around a central, positively charged nucleus.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which element is the more reactive, sodium (Na)or potassium (K)?

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Chemical Bonding and Nomenclature

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Sample Questions

Q1) Every single COVALENT bond represents ________ electrons.

A)one

B)two

C)four

D)One cannot say unless the atoms that make up the bond are known.

Q2) In its ground state, sulfur has two electrons and always needs four more to reach the octet.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The number of bonds phosphorus usually has is 3.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When covalent bonds are broken energy is released.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The H<sup>-</sup> ion is called ________.

A)hydroxide

B)hydride

C)hydranion

D)hydrogen

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Chapter 6: The Shape of Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following SO<sub>2</sub>, HCl, CO<sub>2</sub> are linear.

A)True

B)False

Q2) SCN<sup>-</sup>

Q3) Which of the following will be affected by the presence of an electric field?

A)H<sub>2</sub>

B)O<sub>2</sub>

C)HCl

D)N<sub>2</sub>

Q4) In the VSEPR model the multiple bond is treated as a single electron group, just the way a single bond is treated.

A)True

B)False

Q5) CN<sup>-</sup>

Q6) The ball-and-stick model emphasizes the bonding pattern.

A)True

B)False

Q7) O<sub>3</sub> (ozone)

Q8) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>

Q9) CBr<sub>4</sub>

Page 8

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Page 9

Chapter 7: Intermolecular Forces and the Phases of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following chemical substances would you expect to have the lowest boiling point (you may consider molecular mass and the degree of intermolecular forces as primary controlling factors)?

A)CH<sub>4</sub>

B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

Q2) Polar molecules may exhibit ________.

A)London forces

B)hydrogen bonding

C)dipolar forces

D)all of the above

Q3) London forces are extremely weak for ________.

A)nitrogen gas

B)methane gas

C)oxygen gas

D)all of the above

Q4) The reason why quartz has a high melting point is hydrogen bonding.

A)True

B)False

Page 10

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Chapter 8: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of a synthesis reaction?

A)HCl + NaOH NaCl + H<sub>2</sub>O

B)Mg + HCl H<sub>2</sub> + MgCl<sub>2</sub>

C)2 Na + Cl<sub>2</sub> 2NaCl

D)KClO<sub>3</sub> KCl + O<sub>2</sub>

Q2) Which of the following equations is not a decomposition reaction?

A)CaSO<sub>4 </sub> 2H<sub>2</sub>O CaSO<sub>4</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O

B)NaClO<sub>3</sub> NaCl + O<sub>2</sub>

C)H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O + O<sub>2</sub>

D)K + H<sub>2</sub>O KOH + H<sub>2</sub>

Q3) It takes ________ moles of potassium hydroxide to neutralize ________ moles of sulfuric acid.

A)1; 1

B)1; 2

C)2; 1

D)3; 1

Q4) Ammonium phosphate is water soluble but ammonium carbonate is water insoluble.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Stoichiometry and the Mole

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not contain 3.0 × 10<sup>24</sup> atoms?

A)60 g of carbon

B)one mole of methane

C)two moles of water

D)160 g sulfur

Q2) If 14 kg of nitrogen yields 23 kg nitrogen dioxide, the % yield for the reaction is

A)100%

B)50%

C)25%

D)12%

Q3) The balanced equation involves the corresponding coefficients ________.

A)1: 9: 6: 7

B)1: 10: 6: 7

C)2: 19: 6: 7

D)2: 21: 6: 7

Q4) The % N in ferric nitrate is 17.4%.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Electron Transfer in Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the following reaction: Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO<sub>2</sub>, which atom(s)has a more negative oxidation state on the product side than the reactant side?

A)iron

B)oxygen

C)carbon

D)carbon and oxygen

Q2) A spontaneous electrochemical cell is called a galvanic cell.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following elements may have an oxidation number of +1 or -1?

A)hydrogen

B)sodium

C)potassium

D)lithium

Q4) In a chemical bond, which atom gets to own the shared electrons?

A)the larger element

B)the smaller element

C)the more electronegative element

D)the most electropositive element

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Chapter 11: What If There Were No Intermolecular Forces

the Ideal Gas

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Sample Questions

Q1) 0.123 g of a gas occupy a volume of 124 mL at 120. °C and 760. torr. The possible formula of the gas is ________.

A)CH<sub>4</sub>

B)CO<sub>2</sub>

C)Cl<sub>2 </sub>

D)O<sub>2</sub>

Q2) The value of the gas constant R is equal to ________ Latm/ Kmole.

A)0.0821

B)8.21

C)82.1

D)0.00821

Q3) The density of sulfur vapor at 1273 K and 740 torr is 0.5977 g/L. Sulfur at that temperature will be ________.

A)monoatomic

B)diatomic

C)triatomic

D)tetraatomic

Q4) The molar volume of 32 g of oxygen gas is 22.4 L at STP.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Air is a gas solution where oxygen is the solvent.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A 2.154 g sample of an unknown non-electrolyte is dissolved in 50 g of water (K<sub>f</sub> of water = 1.86 °C). If the solution freezes at -1.23 °C, the molecular mass of the non-electrolyte is ________.

A)33

B)65

C)130

D)260

Q3) How are the solubilities of gases (solutes)in liquids (solvents)affected by changing pressure?

A)Gases are more soluble in liquids when pressure is decreased.

B)Pressure has no effect on how soluble a gas is in a liquid.

C)Gases are less soluble in liquids when pressure is increased.

D)Gases are more soluble when the pressure is increased.

Q4) Alloys are solid solutions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: When Reactants Turn Into Products

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Sample Questions

Q1) A catalyst need not be present in large quantities.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If the products have a higher energy than the reactants ________.

A)the reaction is exothermic

B)the reaction is endothermic

C)the reactants have less energy than the products

D)both B and C

Q3) The greater the concentration of the reactants, the greater the rate of the reaction.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Adding a catalyst increases the rate of reaction by providing the additional energy needed to overcome a large energy of activation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The reaction energy profile can tell if a reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) An equilibrium condition can be approached when the rate of a "forward" reaction slows down and the rate of a "reverse" reaction speeds up.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The equilibrium concentrations for the reaction Cl<sub>2</sub> (g)+ PCl<sub>3</sub> (g) PCl<sub>5</sub> (g)at 300 K are [Cl<sub>2</sub>] = 0.75 M, [PCl<sub>3</sub>] = 0.45 M, and [PCl<sub>5</sub>] = 0.73 M. Based on the calculated value of the equilibrium constant, the reaction is ________.

A)favorable

B)unfavorable

C)temperature dependent

D)temperature independent

Q3) Refer to the reaction shown above. Adding helium to the reaction vessel will

A)shift the reaction to the right

B)shift the reaction to the left

C)have no effect

D)cannot be determined, since the temperature is unknown

Q4) 3O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2O<sub>3</sub> (g)

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Chapter 15: Electrolytes, Acids, and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a weak electrolyte when dissolved in distilled water?

A)ammonia

B)acetic acid (vinegar)

C)potassium chloride

D)hydrogen fluoride

Q2) Which of the following produces only one OH<sup>-</sup><sup> </sup>ion per molecule of base when dissolved in water?

A)potassium hydroxide

B)calcium hydroxide

C)aluminum hydroxide

D)barium hydroxide

Q3) Which of the following is not a strong electrolyte when dissolved in distilled water?

A)potassium chloride

B)sulfuric acid

C)acetic acid

D)potassium hydroxide

Q4) What is the OH<sup>-</sup> concentration of a solution of pH 8.36?

Q5) What were the defining characteristics of bases as known to the alchemists?

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Chapter 16: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the MRI procedure the human is placed in a magnetic field and radio waves are used to probe certain nuclei in the body.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If the half-life of a hypothetical isotope is 5 hr, the leftover amount of an original quantity of 20.0 g after 15 hr will be ________.

A)2.5 g

B)5.0 g

C)6.67 g

D)10.0 g

Q3) A nuclear reaction involves much higher energies than a chemical reaction.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Isotopes with the lowest possible n/p ratio are the most stable.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The n/p > 1 ratio appears in elements whose atomic number is greater than 24.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: The Chemistry of Carbon

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which compounds typically have an unpleasant smell?

A)amines

B)esters

C)alcohols

D)ethers

Q2) 1-propanol is the formula for rubbing alcohol.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following names is incorrect?

A)1-hexene

B)2-hexene

C)3-hexene

D)4-hexene

Q4) Construct a line drawing for the hydrocarbon whose IUPAC name is 2-methyl-2-butene.

Q5) The general formula for an ether is R-O-R.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Convert the hydrocarbon formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub> to a line drawing representation of this same formula.

Page 20

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Chapter 18: Synthetic and Biological Polymers

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Sample Questions

Q1) The human body is able to synthesize as much of every type of amino acid as it needs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is not an amino acid?

A)threonine

B)tyrosine

C)thymine

D)lysine

Q3) According to the text, the number of amino acids that a human body cannot synthesize is ________.

A)5

B)10

C)15

D)20

Q4) Sucrose is the smallest building block for carbohydrates.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Cellulose and starch are both polysaccharides of glucose. Explain why humans can consume and digest starch but not cellulose.

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