General Chemistry
Final Exam
Course Introduction
General Chemistry is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of chemistry, including atomic structure, periodic trends, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermochemistry, and chemical reactions. The course lays the groundwork for understanding the behavior and interactions of matter at the molecular level, while integrating laboratory experiments to develop practical skills in observation, measurement, and analysis. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced studies in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Chapter 1: Matter and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total length of two pieces of rubber tubing which are 7.69 cm and 4.028 cm in length? Express this answer to the correct number of significant figures.
A)11.7 cm
B)11.69 cm
C)11.718 cm
D)11.72 cm
E)12 cm
Answer: D
Q2) In scientific notation,the number 0.0046 is expressed as
A)46 × 10<sup>-3</sup>.
B)4.6 × 10<sup>-3</sup>.
C)4.6 × 10<sup>-2</sup>.
D)4.6 × 10<sup>-1</sup>.
E)46 × 10<sup>-1</sup>.
Answer: B
Q3) Gasoline has a density of about 0.65 g/mL.How much does 34.0 L weigh in pounds?
Answer: Convert 34.0 L to mL then multiply by the density to obtain the grams. Convert grams to pounds:34,000 mL × 0.65 g/mL × 1 lb/454 g = 48.7 lbs.
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Chapter 2: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) An element with 2 valence electrons is ________.
A)Se
B)Si
C)Ca
D)Rb
Answer: C
Q2) Another name for atomic mass unit (amu)is the A)avogadro.
B)dalton.
C)Kekule
D)kelvin. E)mendeleev.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is an alkali metal?
A)Al
B)Cl
C)He
D)Na
E)O
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Ionic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The permanganate ion is composed of
A)one atom of magnesium,four atoms of oxygen,and one extra electron.
B)one atom of manganese,four atoms of oxygen,and one extra electron.
C)four atoms of magnesium,four atoms of oxygen,and one extra electron.
D)four atoms of manganese,four atoms of oxygen,and one extra electron.
E)one manganese(II)ion,four oxide ions,and two extra electrons.
Answer: B
Q2) Which is the correct formula for the ionic compound containing iron(III)ions and oxide ions?
A)FeO
B)FeO<sub>2</sub>
C)Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D)Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E)Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Answer: D
Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?
Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.
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Chapter 4: Molecular Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which element listed is the least electronegative?
A)nitrogen
B)hydrogen
C)oxygen
D)fluorine
E)chlorine
Q2) Which group contains only elements which normally exist as diatomic molecules?
A)nitrogen; sulfur,bromine B)helium; neon,argon
C)nitrogen; oxygen,fluorine D)hydrogen; lithium,sodium E)oxygen; phosphorus,germanium
Q3) The formula for sulfur hexabromide is ________.
A)SF<sub>6</sub>
B)SBr<sub>6</sub>
C)SBr<sub>4</sub>
D)SiBr<sub>6</sub>
E)SiB<sub>6</sub>
Q4) Which point identifies the bond length between the two atoms of the diatomic molecule whose potential energy is shown on the graph?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Classification and Balancing of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the reaction shown is balanced,there are ________ atoms of oxygen and ________ atoms of hydrogen on each side.
(NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ Ba(C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (aq) BaSO<sub>4</sub> (s)+ NH<sub>4</sub>C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> (aq)
A)6; 11
B)16; 18
C)8; 14
D)4; 7
E)16; 28
Q2) The net ionic equation for the reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid solution is
A)Zn (s)+ 2 H<sup>+</sup> (aq) Zn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g).
B)Zn (s)+ 2 HCl (aq) ZnCl<sub>2</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g).
C)Zn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g) ZnS (s)+ 2 H<sup>+</sup> (aq).
D)ZnCl<sub>2</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g) ZnS (s)+ 2 HCl (aq).
E)none of these
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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions: Mole and Mass
Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement concerning the mole is not correct?
A)The molar mass of any compound is equal to its molecular weight in grams.
B)A mole of metal contains N<sub>A</sub> atoms of that metal.
C)A mole of any compound contains one mole of each kind of atom found in that compound.
D)A mole of a diatomic element contains 2 × N<sub>A</sub> moles of atoms of the element.
E)All of these statements are correct.
Q2) Consider the reaction N<sub>2</sub> (g)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2 NO (g).
a.How many g NO can be produced when 25.0 g of nitrogen reacts?
b.How many g NO can be produced when 25.0 g of oxygen reacts?
c.Based on your answers in a and b,predict the amount of NO that can be produced when 25.0 g nitrogen is reacted with 25.0 g of oxygen.
d.Explain the reasoning used in part c.
Q3) The molar mass of Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> is ________ g.
A)72.86
B)74.88
C)89.87
D)104.86
E)106.87
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions: Energy, rates, and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of dissolving sugar in water,the entropy increases.This means that the sign of S is ________,and that the randomness of the system ________.
A)undetermined; increases B)positive; decreases C)positive; increases D)negative; decreases E)negative; increases
Q2) The label on a package of cookies states that there are 100 calories per serving.Explain the different meanings of this statement to a chemist and to a nutritionist.Be sure your answer explains the difference between kilocalories and Calorie.
Q3) A process or reaction which takes in heat from the surroundings is said to be A)conservative.
B)endothermic.
C)exothermic.
D)isothermal.
E)endergonic.
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Chapter 8: Gases, liquids, and Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the new pressure if a 400 mL gas sample at 380 mm Hg is expanded to 800 mL with no change in temperature?
A)190 mm Hg
B)380 mm Hg
C)570 mm Hg
D)760 mm Hg
E)950 mm Hg
Q2) The vapor pressure of a liquid
A)decreases with increasing temperature.
B)is independent of temperature.
C)is equal to one atmosphere at the normal boiling point. D)cannot be measured.
Q3) In a gas mixture of 35% He and 65% O<sub>2</sub> the total pressure is 800 mm Hg.What is the partial pressure of O<sub>2</sub>?
A)35 mm Hg
B)65 mm Hg
C)100 mm Hg
D)280 mm Hg
E)520 mm Hg
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Chapter 9: Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many grams of NaOH are needed to make 750 mL of a 2.5% (w/v)solution?
A)3.9 g
B)7.5 g
C)19 g
D)20 g
E)50 g
Q2) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 3.50 mol NaCl in enough water to make 1.50 L of solution?
A)0.429 M
B)2.33 M
C)5.25 M
D)87.8 M
E)137 M
Q3) If a normal blood sample contains 4.5 mEq/L of calcium ion,how many mg of calcium are contained in a 25.0 mL blood sample?
A)9.0 mg
B)5.6 mg
C)2.8 mg
D)2.3 mg
E)1.4 mg
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Chapter 10: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the statements regarding equivalents of acids and bases are true except A)equivalents are the same as moles.
B)equivalents of acid are based on the number of hydrogen ions produced per formula unit of acid.
C)equivalents are used to determine normality of solutions.
D)the equivalent weight of a base is the weight that produces one mole of hydroxide ions.
E)one equivalent of any acid will neutralize one equivalent of any base.
Q2) The [OH<sup>-</sup>] and the pH of 0.035 M KOH at 25°C are,respectively,
A)0.035 M and +1.46.
B)0.035 M and -1.46.
C)2.9 × 10<sup>-13</sup> M and -12.54.
D)0.035 and +12.54.
E)2.9 × 10<sup>-13</sup> M and +12.54.
Q3) The base forms a new ________ bond in a Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction.
A)covalent
B)aquo
C)hydrogen
D)ionic
E)metallic
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Chapter 11: Nuclear Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a radioactive isotope decays into a nucleus which is also unstable and undergoes decay,and this process is repeated several times,the succession of reactions is called a A)decay series.
B)fission reaction.
C)fusion reaction.
D)half-life.
E)none of these
Q2) When a nucleus is bombarded with particles and breaks into two similarly sized nuclei plus one or more small particles,the process is called A)fission.
B)fusion.
C)spontaneous decay.
D)induced decay.
E)mutation.
Q3) Discuss the harmful effects of ionizing radiation on the human body,including the factors affecting the degree of harm and the protective measures that can be used to minimize exposure.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkanes are ________ in water and ________ than water.
A)insoluble,less dense
B)soluble,less dense
C)insoluble,more dense
D)soluble,more dense
Q2) All of the families below include functional groups which contain oxygen except
A)carboxylic acids.
B)alkyl halides.
C)esters.
D)ethers.
E)ketones.
Q3) Which of the following properties is not characteristic of alkanes?
A)Their melting points increase with molecular weight.
B)They are generally less dense than water.
C)They are tasteless and colorless.
D)They are nontoxic.
E)They form strong hydrogen bonds.
Q4) Explain the term "functional group." How do organic chemists use the functional group concept?
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Chapter 13: Alkenes, alkynes, and Aromatic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common reactions involving aromatics are ________ reactions.
A)addition
B)elimination
C)oxidation
D)reduction
E)substitution
Q2) What is the ideal angle between the H-C-H bond in methane?
A)120°
B)109.5°
C)180°
D)90°
E)none of the above
Q3) Which choice represents the carbon skeleton of 2,5-octadiene?
A)C=C=C-C-C-C-C-C
B)C-C=C-C-C=C-C-C
C)C=C-C-C=C-C=C-C
D)C-C=C-C-C-C-C=C
E)C-C=C-C=C-C-C-C
Q4) The term delocalization means "not limited to a particular place or area." Explain how this term describes the behavior of electrons in aromatic compounds.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Some Compounds With Oxygen, sulfur, or a Halogen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compounds of the type R<sub>2</sub>CH-OH are referred to as ________ alcohols.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
E)none of the above
Q2) The common name of 1,2-ethanediol is A)grain alcohol. B)wood alcohol.
C)rubbing alcohol.
D)ethylene glycol (antifreeze) E)glycerol.
Q3) Treatment of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH with a limited amount of oxidizing agent will produce A)an aldehyde.
B)a ketone.
C)an alkene.
D)a carboxylic acid.
E)no reaction.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Amines
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing amine compounds of different classes but similar molar masses,which type will most likely be the highest boiling point?
A)primary amines
B)secondary amines
C)tertiary amines
D)quaternary ammonium salts
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of alkaloids except
A)bitter tasting.
B)physiologically active.
C)basic.
D)toxic to humans in high doses.
E)pleasant smelling.
Q3) Some amine drugs are administered in the form of salts in order to
A)make them form into pills more easily
B)make them taste bitter
C)make them more basic
D)make them more soluble in body fluids
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Chapter 16: Aldehydes and Ketones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which compound has the highest boiling point?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CHO
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
E)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) The correct name for CH<sub>3</sub>CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)CH<sub>2</sub>CHO is
A)2-methylbutanal.
B)3-methyl-1-butanal.
C)3-methylbutanal.
D)isopentanal.
E)3-methyl-1-butanone.
Q3) Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?
A)flavoring
B)hormone
C)preservative
D)sweetener
E)solvent
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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives
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Q1) The amide produced from pentanoic acid and ammonia is A)N-pentanamide.
B)N-methylpentanamide.
C)pentanoicamide.
D)pentanamide.
Q2) Which acid would be expected to have the highest boiling point?
A)acetic
B)benzoic
C)formic
D)oxalic
E)stearic
Q3) Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same carbon atom?
A)aldehyde
B)amide
C)carboxylic acid
D)ester
E)ketone
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Chapter 18: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are major functions of proteins except
A)transport of necessary chemicals.
B)protection against foreign substances.
C)support for organs or tissues.
D)control of biochemical reactions.
E)storage of energy.
Q2) In the tetrapeptide Ala-Cys-Val-Leu,the C-terminal amino acid is ________.
A)Ala
B)Cys
C)Val
D)Leu
E)none of the above
Q3) Detergents would most likely disrupt what type of stabilizing interaction?
A)salt bridges
B)hydrogen bonds
C)disulfide bonds
D)hydrophobic interactions
E)hydrophilic interactions
Q4) List three properties of enantiomers that are the same and three properties that are different.
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Chapter 19: Enzymes and Vitamins
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Q1) An enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of a cis double bond to a trans double bond is classified as a(an) A)ligase.
B)isomerase.
C)oxidoreductase.
D)transferase.
E)hydrolase.
Q2) The tertiary structure of most enzymes is A)an -helix.
B)a -pleated sheet.
C)fibrous.
D)globular.
E)none of these.
Q3) Each of the following phrases correctly describes enzymes except A)dissolve in water.
B)have a globular shape.
C)behave as substrates.
D)contain an active site.
E)act as catalysts.
Q4) Explain the term specificity as it applies to enzyme activity.
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Chapter 20: The Generation of Biochemical Energy
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Q1) Photosynthesis is an ________ process because the free energy of the products is ________ the free energy of the reactants.
A)endergonic; greater than B)exergonic; greater than C)endergonic; less than D)exergonic; less than E)equilibrium; the same as
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the relationship between NAD<sup>+</sup> and NADH?
A)NAD<sup>+</sup> is the oxidized form of NADH.
B)NAD<sup>+</sup> is the reduced form of NADH.
C)The conversion of NAD<sup>+</sup> to NADH is an acid/base reaction.
D)The conversion of NAD<sup>+</sup> to NADH is a cyclization reaction.
E)none of the above
Q3) The purpose of coupling two biochemical reactions is to
A)lower the activation energies of both reactions.
B)convert an endergonic reaction to an exergonic one.
C)convert an exergonic reaction to an endergonic one.
D)use an endergonic reaction to drive an exergonic reaction.
E)use an exergonic reaction to drive an endergonic reaction.
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrates
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Q1) A sugar is classified as an L-isomer if the hydroxyl group
A)on the chiral carbon closest to the carbonyl group points to the left.
B)on the chiral carbon closest to the carbonyl group points to the right.
C)on the chiral carbon farthest from the carbonyl group points to the left.
D)on the chiral carbon farthest from the carbonyl group points to the right.
E)on the end carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the left.
Q2) ________ of glucose leads to gluconic acid.
A)Oxidation
B)Reduction
C)Isomerization
D)Glycosidation
E)Esterification
Q3) The reaction of a simple sugar with an alcohol produces a ________.
A)glycoside
B)cyclic acetal
C)mixture of anomers
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) Explain why cows and other grazing animals can eat grass and benefit from its nutritive value,but humans cannot.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) The overall yield of ATP molecules from the complete catabolism of one molecule of glucose in humans and other mammals is ________.
A)18
B)24
C)32
D)42
E)56
Q2) Which of the following is not a product of digestion?
A)amino acids
B)fatty acids
C)glucose
D)glycerol
E)pyruvate
Q3) Which of the following carbohydrates can also be used as fuel in glycolysis?
A)glucose
B)glucose and fructose
C)fructose and galactose
D)galactose,fructose,and mannose
E)fructose
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Chapter 23: Lipids
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Q1) facilitated diffusion
A)describes fatty acids that have mostly single but at least one double carbon-carbon bond
B)describes the non-polar portion of a molecule that does not interact with water or other polar substances
C)a process of transport in which integral proteins change shape to allow a substance to cross a cell membrane
D)describes fatty acids that do not have any carbon-carbon double bonds
E)a process of transport that costs energy because the flow is against the concentration gradient
F)describes fatty acids that have mostly single but more than one double carbon-carbon bond
G)a process of transport in which substances cross a membrane based on concentration differences without the expenditure of energy
H)describes the polar portion of a molecule that interacts readily with water or other polar substances
Q2) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.
Q3) Describe the similarities and differences between soaps and emulsifying agents.
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Chapter 24: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Digestion of lipids begins in the ________,in a process catalyzed by ________.
A)mouth; salivary amylase
B)stomach; hydrochloric acid
C)small intestine; pancreatic lipases
D)large intestines; bile acids
E)adipocytes; triacylglycerol lipase
Q2) All of the following are possible metabolic fates of the acetyl-SCoA intermediate except
A)synthesis of cholesterol.
B)the citric acid cycle and production of ATP.
C)gluconeogenesis.
D)lipogenesis.
E)ketogenesis.
Q3) The synthesis of fatty acids
A)takes place by simply the reverse reactions of the fatty acid spiral.
B)takes place in the same location within a cell as the fatty acid spiral.
C)takes place by different reactions than the reverse of the fatty acid spiral and in a different cellular location.
D)More than one response is correct.
E)No response is correct.
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Chapter 25: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) The sugar found in an RNA nucleotide is ________.
A)D-ribose
B)2-deoxy-D-ribose
C)D-rhamnose
D)D-raffinose
E)all of the above
Q2) The number of hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine in DNA is
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
Q3) The number of hydrogen bonds between cytosine and thymine in DNA is
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3 E)4
Q4) Explain the term base pairing and its relationship to replication of DNA.
Q5) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.
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Chapter 26: Genomics
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Q1) A clone is a(an)
A)complex of DNA and histones formed in a cell nucleus before cell division.
B)segment of DNA that directs synthesis of a specific peptide or protein.
C)list of locations of markers that relate to inheritable traits.
D)set of identical copies of DNA segments from a single ancestor.
E)ordered list of the nucleotides in a segment of DNA.
Q2) A gene mutation that results in the coding change for one amino acid in a protein sequence is known as a ________ mutation.
A)missense
B)nonsense
C)insertion frameshift
D)deletion frameshift
E)silent
Q3) The portion of a DNA molecule that actually codes for proteins is called a(an)
A)intron.
B)exon.
C)sticky end.
D)codon.
E)primer.
Q4) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.
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Chapter 27: Protein and Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) What percentage of a healthy adult's energy need is met by metabolism of protein?
A)less than 5
B)10-20
C)35-45
D)65-75
E)more than 90
Q2) The urea cycle is ________ because it ________.
A)exergonic; costs 3 ATP
B)exergonic; releases 3 ATP
C)endergonic; costs 3 ATP
D)endergonic; releases 3 ATP
E)neither exergonic nor endergonic; consumes 3 ATP in an early step and releases 3 ATP in a later step
Q3) Two key amino acids in the catabolism of nitrogen atoms in amino acids are
A)aspartate and phenylalanine.
B)aspartate and tyrosine.
C)aspartate and glutamate.
D)glutamate and asparagine.
E)alanine and valine.
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Chapter 28: Chemical Messengers: Hormones, neurotransmitters, and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two systems responsible for regulating the huge number of chemical processes in the human body are the ________ and ________ systems.
A)circulatory; digestive
B)reproductive; endocrine
C)nervous; endocrine
D)nervous; digestive
E)digestive; endocrine
Q2) Androgens are a specific type of steroid whose function is to A)maintain pregnancy.
B)promote development of secondary male sex characteristics.
C)promote development of secondary female sex characteristics.
D)regulate the sodium/potassium balance in cellular fluids.
E)regulate glucose metabolism.
Q3) A hormone that is involved in maintaining electrolyte balance in cells is classified as a(an)
A)mineralocorticoid.
B)glucocorticoid.
C)sex hormone.
D)receptor molecule.
E)inhibitor.
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Chapter 29: Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct order for the steps in the process of blood clotting?
I.release of thrombin
II.activation of zymogens
III.formation of fibrin clot
IV.constriction of blood vessels
V.interaction of blood with collagen or tissue factor
A)I,II,III,IV,V
B)V,IV,III,II,I
C)V,IV,II,III,I
D)IV,V,II,I,III
E)III,I,V,IV,II
Q2) Which ion is not a major constituent of body fluids?
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Fe<sup>2+</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)C1<sup>-</sup>
E)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
Q3) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.
Q4) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
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