General Chemistry Exam Questions - 2205 Verified Questions

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General Chemistry

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

General Chemistry is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of chemistry, including atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermodynamics, and chemical reactions. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, students gain an understanding of the scientific method and the role of chemistry in everyday life and technological advancements. This course provides a solid foundation for further study in the chemical sciences and related disciplines.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry for Today General Organic and Biochemistry 8th Edition by Seager

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Chapter 1: Matter, measurements, and Calculations

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Sample Questions

Q1) One system of rating food is to determine its energy density in kcal/g.If your 200 g snack contains 100 g fat (900 cal/g)and a total of 100 g of protein and carbohydrates (400 cal/gram).what is its energy density?

A) 1.3 kcal/g

B) 6.5 kcal/g

C) 9.0 kcal/g

D) 13 kcal/g

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following substances are composed of heteroatomic molecules?

A) an iron nail

B) oxygen

C) copper wire

D) water

Answer: D

Q3) A weight loss program that incorporates both dietary change and an exercise program is a guarantee of a reshaping of the body and a loss of weight.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) One mole of O<sub>3</sub> weighs 16 grams.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The pure substance,water,contains both hydrogen molecules and oxygen molecules.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Determine the molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide,H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>,in u (or amu).

A) 17.01

B) 18.02

C) 34.02

D) 33.01

Answer: C

Q4) Isotopes of the same element always have the same atomic number.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Electronic Structure and the Periodic Law

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Q1) Based on the physical states of the other group members,the yet undiscovered sixth member of group VIIA(17)would be a solid.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Element number 92,uranium,U,is a metal.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Which of the following elements is found in the same period of the periodic table as tin?

A) silicone

B) arsenic

C) tellurium

D) technetium

Answer: C

Q4) The radius of a magnesium atom is larger than the radius of a sodium atom.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Forces Between Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) The molecular structure of water should be

A) linear because of the electron configuration of the oxygen atom.

B) flat triangular because water contains 3 atoms.

C) bent because of the unshared electrons on the molecule.

D) undetermined as there is no way to predict the shape of the water molecule.

Q2) Which is the correct name for UF<sub>6</sub>?

A) uranyl fluoride

B) uranium hexafluoride

C) uranium (VI)fluoride

D) uranium (IV)fluoride

Q3) Which of the following electronic changes will cause a Group VA (15)element to achieve a noble gas configuration?

A) gain three electrons

B) gain two electrons

C) gain one electron

D) lose three electrons

Q4) Metals gain electrons to become ions in ionic compounds.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions

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Q1) When the following equation is balanced,how many oxygen atoms are present on the reactant side of the equation? C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O

A) 14

B) 7

C) 3

D) 20

Q2) The energy involved in chemical reactions

A) always appears as heat.

B) always appears as light.

C) always appears as electricity.

D) can take many forms.

Q3) A container is filled with 4.0 g H<sub>2</sub> and 5.0 g O<sub>2</sub>.The mixture is ignited to produce water according to the following equation.How much water is produced?

2H<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2 </sub>\(\rarr\) 2H<sub>2</sub>O

A) 4.0 g

B) 5.0 g

C) 5.6 g

D) 9.0 g

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Chapter 6: The States of Matter

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Q1) Two objects are moving with the same velocity,but one has twice the kinetic energy of the other.How does the mass of the object with higher kinetic energy compare to the other object's mass?

A) It is larger by a factor of 2

B) It is smaller by a factor of 2

C) It is larger by a factor of 4

D) It is smaller by a factor of 4

Q2) Inhaling volatile materials has result in serious heath effects.Which of the following substances has been used for inhalant abuse?

A) propane cooking gas

B) mercury metal

C) sodium chloride solution

D) steam

Q3) What property of a liquid such as mercury is used in a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A) density

B) compressibility

C) thermal expansion

D) more than one response is correct

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Chapter 7: Solutions and Colloids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Solvents and hydrated ions can usually pass though dialyzing membranes

A)True

B)False

Q2) The following equation can be used when C represents either a M or %(w/w)concentration.

C<sub>c</sub>V<sub>c</sub> = C<sub>d</sub>V<sub>d</sub>

A)True

B)False

Q3) Weight-volume percentage solutions must be made in 100 mL increments.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Oil should be a good solvent for polar compounds.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What volume of ethyl alcohol is contained in 35 mL (1 oz. )of 86 proof liquor,which is 43% (v/v)alcohol?

A) 30 mL

B) 43 mL

C) 15 mL

D) 37 mL

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Chapter 8: Reaction Rates and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is a correct application of Le Châtelier's principle?

A) Addition of a substance to the left side of an equilibrium shifts it to the right.

B) Any stress to the right side of a chemical equilibrium results in a shift to the left to relieve the stress.

C) Heat added or taken away from a chemical equilibrium in which one side is exothermic will not shift the reaction.

D) Responses b and c are correct.

Q2) Which of the conditions given is necessary for a chemical reaction to occur?

A) The molecules of the reacting chemicals must be in motion.

B) The molecules of the reacting chemicals must bump into each other.

C) The molecules of the reacting chemicals must be of opposite charges.

D) The molecules of the reacting chemicals must be at different charges.

Q3) Ice has a(n)____ entropy than that of liquid water.

A) lower

B) equal

C) higher

D) can not tell

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Chapter 9: Acids,bases,and Salts

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Q1) Which of the following substances could behave as an Arrhenius base?

A) Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>

B) Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

C) K<sub>2</sub>S

D) KOH

Q2) Many cleaning agents contain bases because bases react with _____ .

A) fats or oils

B) glass

C) salts

D) More than one response is correct.

Q3) Water is able to act not only as a solvent but as and acid or base.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In the Brønsted theory,both acids and bases are defined in terms of how substances lose or gain

A) OH<sup>-</sup>.

B) H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>.

C) H<sup>+</sup>.

D) Cl<sup>-</sup>

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Chapter 10: Radioactivity and Nuclear Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which emissions can be detected by a film badge?

A) X-rays

B) gamma

C) beta

D) all are detected

Q2) Which measure of radiation is used to account for health differences of various types of radiation?

A) curie

B) rem

C) gray

D) rad

Q3) Most of the synthetic (man-made)elements are stable and have been produced in large amounts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Gamma emissions can be stopped with the use of an electromagnetic field because of their dense charge and their mass.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Organic Compounds: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is meant by the term "saturated" when describing hydrocarbons?

A) They are saturated with water.

B) The hydrocarbons are saturated with carbons in the skeleton of the compounds.

C) They are saturated with hydrogen and only have single bonds between carbons.

D) The container holding the compound has no other compound.

Q2) How many hydrogen atoms are needed to complete the following structure?

C=C-N-C

A) 6

B) 7

C) 9

D) 10

Q3) An organic food is defined as something that contains organic chemicals.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Complete combustion of pentane produces _____ .

A) CO and H<sub>2</sub>O

B) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O

C) CO<sub>2</sub> and CO

D) CO and C

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Chapter 12: Unsaturated Hydrocarbons

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of hybridization is associated with alkyne bonding?

A) sp

B) sp<sup>2</sup>

C) sp<sup>3</sup>

D) sp<sup>4</sup>

Q2) What is the characteristic of aromatic compounds that is responsible for them being named aromatic compounds?

A) The compounds have a pleasant smell.

B) These compounds contain a benzene ring or structural relative.

C) A requirement is to contain a hydrocarbon chain that is either saturated or unsaturated and at least 3 carbons long.

D) There is more than one correct response.

Q3) The ability to detect light is based,in part,to a change of one from of retinal to another.Specifically,what is this change?

A) a cis to trans conversion

B) a trans to cis conversion

C) A hydrogenation reaction

D) A dehydrogenation reaction

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Chapter 13: Alcohols, phenols, and Ethers

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Sample Questions

Q1) The phenol used in some mouthwashes and throat lozenges is _____ .

A) cannabinol

B) cresol

C) hexachlorophene

D) hexylresorcinol

Q2) How can the solubility of alcohols be estimated?

A) number of alcohol groups

B) number of secondary carbons

C) ratio of hydroxyl groups to carbons

D) number of side chains

Q3) Only alcohols contain an oxygen bearing functional group.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following would be only very slightly soluble in water?

A) 1-propanol

B) 2-propanol

C) 1,5-pentanediol

D) 1-hexanol

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Chapter 14: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is most toxic?

A) formaldehyde

B) benzaldehyde

C) acetone

D) camphor

Q2) Which of the following properly ranks the relative aqueous solubility of each functional group?

A) alkene < aldehyde < alcohol < ketone

B) aldehyde < ketone < alkene < alcohol

C) alkene < ketone < alcohol < aldehyde

D) alkene < ketone < aldehyde < alcohol

Q3) Which of the following is an aldehyde flavoring agent?

A) biacetyl

B) menthol

C) vanillin

D) camphor

Q4) Benedict's reagent is a stronger oxidizing reagent than the Tollens' reagent.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Carboxylic Acids and Esters

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Sample Questions

Q1) The acids were among the first organic compounds studied.Why?

A) simplicity

B) color

C) aroma

D) abundance

Q2) Nitroglycerin is a compound that is formed by the reaction of three molecules of nitric acid with a molecule of glycerol,and is an ester.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Reacting a carboxylic acid with an alcohol will produce?

A) an ester

B) no reaction

C) a carboxylate salt

D) an anhydride

Q4) Even though aspirin is named acetylsalicylic acid,aspirin contains the ester configuration due to the chemical reaction of a carboxyl group of the salicylic acid and acetic acid.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Amines and Amides

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Sample Questions

Q1) t-Butylamine is a tertiary amine.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The major reason that acetaminophen dissolved in water is used instead of aspirin is that it is more effective than aspirin.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A quaternary amine,like choline,has an overall charge and can form a salt with something like chloride.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following will be formed when a base is added to CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NH<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>?

A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>

C) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>

D) No reaction occurs.

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Chapter 17: Carbohydrates

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Q1) A carbohydrate present in the blood is _____ .

A) sucrose

B) glucose

C) fructose

D) maltose

Q2) A monosaccharide used to form nucleic acids is _____ .

A) glucose

B) galactose

C) ribose

D) maltose

Q3) Sugars which contain an aldehyde group that can be oxidized are called _____ .

A) reducing sugars

B) oxidizing sugars

C) glycosides

D) simple sugars

Q4) A characteristic of carbohydrates is that a carbonyl carbon is usually incorporated in their structures.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) This molecule is a triester of glycerol in which all three alcohol groups are esterified.

A) phosphoglyceride

B) micelle

C) phospholipid

D) triglyceride

Q2) An example of a simple lipid is a _____.

A) wax

B) terpene

C) steroid

D) phospholipid

Q3) The function of this cellular organelle is the digestion of substances taken into the cell.

A) endoplasmic reticulum

B) lysosome

C) mitochondria

D) nucleus

Q4) Prostaglandins are similar to bile salts in their function in the body.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 19: Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Denaturation is usually easily reversible.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Hemoglobin consists of several components,including which of the following?

A) heme groups

B) alpha chains

C) beta chains

D) More than one answer is correct.

Q3) The major difference between normal hemoglobin and that of sickle cell anemia is

A) sickle cell hemoglobin is the L isomer and the normal is the D isomer.

B) sickle cell hemoglobin is a much smaller molecule than normal hemoglobin.

C) sickle cell hemoglobin is assembled in a reverse manner.

D) sickle cell hemoglobin has one different amino acid in each \(\beta\)-chain.

Q4) Of the many sulfur-containing amino acids,cysteine is the only one that can not form disulfide bridges.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Nursing mothers should not take medications just before breast feeding.

A)True

B)False

21

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Chapter 20: Enzymes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Insulin is initially produced as proinsulin,an inactive form that contains extra amino acid residues.Proinsulin must be an apoenzyme.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An enzyme valuable in diagnosing heart attacks is _____ .

A) LDH

B) GPT

C) lipase

D) lysozyme

Q3) Substances that can bind to an enzyme and increase its activity are called

A) positive modulators.

B) negative modulators.

C) allosteric regulators.

D) positive regulators.

Q4) What is the reason for performing an enzyme assay?

A) to determine the number of enzyme molecules per liter

B) to determine the number of enzyme molecules per mL

C) to determine the activity of an enzyme

D) to determine the number of enzymes present

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Chapter 21: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Q1) Restriction enzymes have been used as protective enzymes by bacteria.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Enzymes used in genetic engineering to cleave DNA are called _____ .

A) restriction enzymes

B) ligases

C) hydrolases

D) lyases

Q3) Codons provide the information needed to synthesize which of the following?

A) mRNA

B) tRNA

C) DNA

D) proteins

Q4) Which of the following statements about DNA profiling is false?

A) The percent of differences in DNA between people is great (99.9%).

B) Small DNA samples can be used through a process called PCR.

C) Everyone has different DNA,except identical twins.

D) DNA can be extracted from almost any biological sample.

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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Energy for Life

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Q1) Of the trace minerals,____ is the most abundant in an average person.

A) copper

B) iron

C) iodine

D) manganese

Q2) Because many amino acids,fatty acids and carbohydrates are considered essential,we must be careful to eat an ample quantity of each on a daily basis.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The source of carbon for carbohydrate synthesis is

A) decaying vegetable matter.

B) decaying animal matter.

C) atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub>.

D) atmospheric CO.

Q4) Energy is generally consumed during anabolism.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Lipids are a source of energy and are a source of essential fatty acids.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not an energy source used in metabolism?

A) UTP

B) ATP

C) GTP

D) UTC

Q2) Blood sugar

A) is a term that normally refers to the concentration of glucose and fructose in the blood.

B) should be in the range of 70-90 mg/mL or the renal threshold is exceeded.

C) is regulated by the liver which removes glucose from the blood in response to an increase after a meal.

D) testing can be inferred by the glucosuria test of the perspiration.

Q3) What is the final acceptor of electrons during electron transport?

A) NAD<sup>+</sup>

B) NADH

C) FAD

D) O<sub>2</sub>

Q4) Glucagon can counteract the effect of insulin.

A)True

B)False

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Lipid and Amino Acid Metabolism

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Q1) Bile serves what function?

A) conversion of triglycerides to monoglycerides and fatty acids

B) protein degradation

C) hydrolysis of carbohydrates,fats and proteins

D) break apart fat globules

Q2) Pyruvate can furnish an amino group in amino acid biosynthesis.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The entire urea cycle occurs within the matrix of the mitochondria.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The biosynthesis of fatty acids occurs in the ____ of the cell.

A) matrix

B) mitochondria

C) nucleus

D) cytoplasm

Q5) More amino acids can be synthesized from intermediates of the citric acid cycle than glycolysis intermediates.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Body Fluids

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Q1) How should urinary output be affected by the inhibition of vasopressin synthesis by alcohol?

A) increased output

B) slightly decreased output

C) greatly decreased output

D) no effect on output

Q2) Which function of the blood is the most critical to life on a second to second basis?

A) transport of nutrients

B) transport of oxygen

C) transport of neurotransmitters

D) transport of plasma about the body

Q3) Chemically,plasma and interstitial fluid are nearly identical.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream chiefly in the form of _____ .

A) CO<sub>2</sub>

B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>

C) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>

D) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>

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