General Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of biological science, including the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. This course covers essential topics such as molecular biology, metabolism, plant and animal physiology, and the mechanisms of inheritance. Emphasis is placed on understanding scientific methods, the interconnectivity of biological systems, and the relevance of biology in real-world contexts. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and hands-on activities, students gain a comprehensive overview of the living world and develop critical thinking skills applicable to advanced studies in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the original strain of S.aureus bacteria surviving in the presence of methicillin is an example of which of the following?
A)Mutation
B)Homeostasis
C)Evolution
D)Sexual reproduction
E)Natural selection
Answer: E
Q2) What is the advantage to a plant like an orchid producing nectar over a plant like a pine tree that does not produce nectar?
A)Nectar helps disperse pollen by wind
B)Nectar attracts animals that perform pollination
C)Nectar provides food for the pollen and growing fruit
D)Nectar helps disperse pollen by water
E)Nectar provides a sticky surface for pollen to attach to, promoting fertilization
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of monosaccharides are:
A)Glucose, maltose, and cellulose
B)Glucose, lactose, and maltose
C)Glucose, galactose, and fructose
D)Glucose, lactose, and cellulose
E)None of these are correct
Answer: C
Q2) An ionic bond is a bond in which:
A)Atoms share electrons
B)Atoms share a proton
C)Atoms of opposite charges attract each other
Answer: C
Q3) A process by which cells break polymers down into smaller units is:
A)Hydrolysis
B)Condensation
C)Reproduction
D)All are correct
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rough or smooth endoplasmic reticulum do not:
A)Produce proteins
B)Produce lipids
C)Detoxify poisons
D)Produce mRNA
E)Form vesicles for transport to the Golgi apparatus
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following could plants use to transport nutrients between adjacent cells?
A)Tight junction
B)Gap junction
C)Plasmodesmata
D)Anchoring junction
E)Cell wall
Answer: C
Q3) The Woese system of classification consists of a taxonomic grouping called the domain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cell has a 95% concentration of water in its cytoplasm and the environment surrounding the cell has a 90% concentration of water:
A)Water will flow into the cell by osmosis
B)Water will flow out of the cell by active transport
C)Water will flow out of the cell by osmosis
D)Water will flow into the cell by active transport
E)Water will flow into the cell by facilitated diffusion
Q2) Diffusion occurs naturally as it ___ of a system.
A)Decreases the kinetic energy
B)Increases the entropy
C)Increases the potential energy
D)Decreases the equilibrium
E)All are correct
Q3) Why does phenylalanine accumulate in patients with phenylketonuria?
A)They lack an enzyme to break down phenylalanine
B)They lack an enzyme to produce phenylalanine
C)They produce too much phenylalanine
D)They lack an inhibitor of an enzyme to break down phenylalanine
E)They eat more phenylalanine than most other people
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main product of the carbon reactions is:
A)oxygen.
B)NADPH.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)glucose.
E)ATP.
Q2) The three main components of sunlight are:
A)gamma rays, visible light and infrared light.
B)microwaves, visible light and ultraviolet light.
C)ultraviolet light, visible light and infrared light.
D)ultraviolet light, visible light and x-rays.
E)visible light, radio waves and ultraviolet light.
Q3) C<sub>4</sub> plants and CAM plants fix carbon only once during the photosynthetic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What will happen to the pH inside of a thylakoid that is exposed to light?
A)It will increase
B)It will decrease
C)It will not change
Page 7
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis does not require:
A)ATP
B)Glucose
C)Enzymes
D)NAD
E)Oxygen
Q2) In Eukaryotic cells the electron transport system occurs in the mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fermentation is a more efficient form of energy production than aerobic respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plants are:
A)Net O<sub>2</sub> consumers and CO<sub>2</sub> producers
B)Net O<sub>2</sub> producers and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers
C)Net O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> producers
D)Net O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers
Q5) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs when protons pass through ATP synthase and combine with oxygen to make water.
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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins that initiate transcription in eukaryotes by recognizing sequences within the promoter region of a gene and attracting RNA polymerase are:
A)Repressors
B)Inducers
C)Transcription factors
D)TATA boxes
E)Poly A Tails
Q2) Because cells are very efficient in the processes that they carry out,very little energy is needed for the cell to make proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a molecule of DNA:
A)Cytosine pairs with adenine
B)Thymine pairs with uracil
C)Adenine pairs with uracil
D)Adenine pairs with thymine
E)Cytosine pairs with thymine
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Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Purine bases have a _________ ___________ structure:
A)Single, ring
B)Single, triangle
C)Double, triangle
D)Double, ring
E)Triple, ring
Q2) The enzyme that unwinds DNA is:
A)Helicase
B)Primase
C)DNA polymerase
D)ATP synthase
E)Ligase
Q3) The scientist who developed DNA sequencing is:
A)Watson
B)Chargaff
C)Sanger
D)Avery
E)Hershey
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diploid cell with 4 chromosomes would produce which of the following after meiosis?
A)Two genetically distinct types of haploid gametes
B)Two genetically distinct types of diploid gametes
C)Four genetically distinct types of haploid gametes
D)Four genetically distinct types of diploid gametes
E)Four genetically identical diploid gametes
Q2) Why is it essential that meiosis produce haploid cells?
A)So that the number of chromosomes will double each generation
B)To produce haploid offspring
C)To prevent the number of chromosomes from doubling each generation
D)To produce diploid gametes
E)To allow asexual reproduction
Q3) If a haploid cell goes through meiosis it will generate:
A)Four haploid cells
B)This isn't possible
C)Two haploid cells
D)Four diploid cells
E)Two diploid cells
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dihybrid cross of linked genes theoretically gives a phenotypic ratio of:
A)9:3:3:1
B)2:1
C)3:1
D)1:1
E)1:1:1:1
Q2) Thomas Hunt Morgan chose to work with fruit flies in part because they have a short life cycle and large number of offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alternate forms of the same gene are called:
A)Chromatids
B)Centromeres
C)Chromosomes
D)Alleles
E)Traits
Q4) Each gamete arises from a diploid cell containing two sets of homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females.While the tail feathers are an advantage in mating,what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male?
A)The feathers require a lot of energy to produce
B)Bright feathers make males less susceptible to predation
C)The feathers make the male more attractive to other males
D)There are no disadvantages to having large tail feathers
E)The large tail feathers would make it easier to fly
Q2) An organism's phenotype is:
A)The action of single genes
B)Its observable properties
C)Not influenced by environment
D)Determined by traits acquired over the life of the organism
E)All are correct
Q3) Nonrandom mating,gene flow,and genetic drift are mechanisms of microevolution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evolution occurs in individuals,not populations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least likely to be preserved as a fossil?
A)A bone or shell
B)A leaf or stem
C)An organ like an eye or lung
D)An complete large organism
E)An organism that died on land
Q2) Skeletal organization relating to limbs used for movement in vertebrates would be an example of homologous structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Earth's history spans about 4.5 billion years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The El Niño event had what effect on the food supply of finches in the Galapagos islands?
A)Larger, harder seeds became more abundant
B)Overall seed availability dropped
C)Many plant species produced no seeds because of the drought
D)Smaller, softer seeds became more abundant
E)Finches switched from eating seeds to eating insects
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Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) By using fossil evidence,paleontologists have concluded that most species exist from:
A)100 to 1,000 years before extinction
B)1000 to 10,000 years before extinction
C)One million to ten million years before extinction
D)10,000 to 100,000 years before extinction
E)100,000 to one million years before extinction
Q2) Among evolutionary biologists the idea of sympatric speciation is controversial.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time,new species have originated and existing species have disappeared.This is an example of:
A)Speciation
B)Extinction
C)Macroevolution
D)Alternation of generations
E)Hybridization
Q4) A biological species is defined as a population whose members can interbreed. A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine the sequence of Clint the chimpanzee's DNA,the tens of millions of DNA sequences were ____ to create a complete genome sequence.
A)Cloned into plasmids
B)Placed into bacteria
C)Transcribed into RNA
D)Analyzed on a computer
E)Translated into protein
Q2) The Cenozoic era consists of the:
A)Triassic and Jurassic periods
B)Tertiary and Quaternary periods
C)Cretaceous and Tertiary periods
D)Permian and Triassic periods
E)Jurassic and Cretaceous periods
Q3) It is thought that eukaryotes probably originated about:
A)Four billion years ago
B)Two billion years ago
C)Four million years ago
D)Three billion years ago
E)Three million years ago
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral infections with herpes simplex virus 1 can lie dormant in nerve cells for years,and when a patient becomes stressed,the virus is released,forming cold sores on the lips.While lying dormant the virus is in which of the following states?
A)Lysogenic
B)Symptomatic
C)Latent
D)Replicative
E)Infective
Q2) It has been difficult to generate drugs to treat AIDS for which reason?
A)HIV does not cause AIDS
B)HIV does not use any enzymes that can be targeted by drugs
C)HIV mutates rapidly because reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading
D)The only way to kill a virus is with a vaccine, not with drugs
E)People with HIV infections die very rapidly, before the drugs have a chance to cure them
Q3) Most scientific evidence points to the HIV viruses originating in Africa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an obligate aerobe.In which organ would you expect to find these bacteria?
A)Intestines
B)Brain
C)Liver
D)Kidney
E)Lung
Q2) The structure that aids in locomotion of some bacteria is a(an):
A)Pilus
B)Flagellum and Cilium
C)Flagellum
D)Cilium
E)Flagellum and Pilus
Q3) An organism to which oxygen is toxic is an obligate anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main difference between gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria is in the structure of their cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) As more CO<sub>2</sub> is released into the atmosphere,which of the following would you predict may happen to S.yellowstonensis diatoms in Yellowstone Lake?
A)Their shells would get thicker
B)There would be no effect because CO<sub>2</sub> does not dissolve into water
C)Photosynthesis would decrease
D)They would grow more spines
E)They would revert back to S. niagarae
Q2) Dictyostelium discoideum is an unusual organism,one that straddles the boundary between the unicellular and the multicellular.Its feeding phase consists of individual amoeba-like cells that move independently,feeding on bacteria by phagocytosis.When the food runs out,cells begin to aggregate into a multicelled structure that migrates toward light.The cells differentiate into a base,stalk,and spores; only the spores survive to colonize a new habitat.Dictyostelium discoideum is which of the following?
A)An autotroph
B)A heterotroph and autotroph
C)A heterotroph
D)A detritovore
E)A heterotroph and detritovore
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Chapter 18: Plants
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Q1) The first land plants were bryophytes,which then branched into ferns,gymnosperms,and finally angiosperms.What advantage did ferns have over bryophytes?
A)The ferns were able to do photosynthesis
B)The ferns were also heterotrophs
C)Ferns have a vascular system, this allowed them to grow taller
D)Ferns do not require water to reproduce
E)Ferns go through alternation of generations
Q2) Molecular evidence suggests that plants and green algae do not descend from a common ancestor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The longest wavelength of visible sunlight is:
A)Blue
B)Violet
C)Red
D)Yellow
Q4) In bryophytes the sporophyte is conspicuous or dominant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A)Plants and fungi both carry out photosynthesis
B)Plants and fungi both have cellulose as the main component of their cell walls
C)Glycogen is the main storage carbohydrate in both fungi and plants
D)All are correct
E)Fungi are heterotrophs, but plants are essentially autotrophs
Q2) In figure 19.22 what was the dependent variable?
A)The age of the leaf
B)The percent of the leaf area damaged
C)The presence or absence of endophyte spores
D)The presence or absence of the pathogen Phytophthora
E)The percent of the leaf area containing endophytes
Q3) Associations of fungi and plant roots are called:
A)Rhizoids
B)Mycorrhizae
C)Lichens
D)Root forks
E)Gnetophytes
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Chapter 20: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most successful phylum in regards to diversity and numbers is:
A)Mollusca
B)Nematoda
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Arthropoda
E)Echinodermata
Q2) Bats,birds,and dragonflies can all fly,therefore the evolution of flight in animals must have occurred more than once.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sea cucumbers and sea urchins belong to the phylum:
A)Cnidaria
B)Arthropoda
C)Echinodermata
D)Nematoda
E)Mollusca
Q4) Chordates have notochords and postanal tails.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A potato stores a lot of starch.Which of the following tissues would you expect to be most abundant in a potato?
A)Dermal tissue
B)Vascular tissue
C)Ground tissue
D)Equal amounts of ground and dermal tissue
E)Equal amounts of dermal and vascular tissue
Q2) Stems that grow along the soil surface asexually forming new plants at their nodes are:
A)Rhizoids
B)Stolons
C)Rhizomes
D)Tubers
E)Tendrils
Q3) A tomato,squash,or bean would be considered a fruit for which reason?
A)They contain seeds from a flowering plant
B)They were produced by a flowering plant
C)They can have a color other than green
D)They grow above the ground
E)They can be eaten raw
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Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycorrhizal fungi decrease the ability of a plant's roots to absorb water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What was the independent variable?
A)The amount of nitrogen or phosphorous added to the pitcher of each plant
B)The number of insects fed to each plant
C)The amount of nitrogen or phosphorous added to the roots of each plant
D)The ratio of the pitcher opening to pitcher length
E)The ratio of the keel width to total width
Q3) During which of the times below is a plant at greatest risk for the formation of air bubbles in the xylem stream?
A)Night
B)Morning
C)Afternoon
D)The risk is the same at any time of day
Q4) The "wearing away" of soil by wind and water is called erosion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plant hormone that triggers the withering of petals and stamens and promotes fruit ripening is:
A)Abscisic acid
B)Cytokinins
C)Gibberellins
D)Jasmonic acid
E)Ethylene
Q2) A portion of a flower that is a green leaf-like structure that protects the inner floral parts is the:
A)Stigma
B)Style
C)Sepal
D)Anther
E)Ovary
Q3) In plants,molecules that perceive the quality and quantity of light are:
A)Chemoreceptors
B)Photoreceptors
C)Mechanoreceptors
D)Pressure receptors
E)Gradient receptors
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Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would happen to the drug dealer's blood pH and osmolarity (level of salts)?
A)Osmolarity and pH would both decrease
B)Osmolarity would decrease and pH would increase
C)Osmolarity would increase and pH would decrease
D)Osmolarity and pH would both increase
Q2) The only type of connective tissue in which fibroblasts do not secrete collagen is:
A)Bone
B)Blood
C)Cartilage
D)Adipose
E)Loose connective
Q3) Epithelial tissues never have a free surface exposed to a space inside the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Damage to the myelin sheath of a neuron may slow or even stop nerve impulse transmission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) In a spinal cord injury,nerve signals cannot proceed past the location of the injury.A person who is quadriplegic can move their head and neck,but not their arms,abdomen,or legs.Which part of their spinal cord was damaged?
A)Thoracic
B)Lumbar
C)Cervical
D)Sacral
E)Coccyx
Q2) The type of neuron that brings information toward the central nervous system is the:
A)Synaptic neuron
B)Interneuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Sensory neuron
E)Schwann cell
Q3) The dendrite,also called the nerve fiber is typically a single long extension of the cell body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Senses Content
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Q1) Based on figure 26.17,you conclude:
A)c-opsin arose independently in vertebrates
B)r-opsin arose independently in invertebrates
C)an organism can only have one type of opsin
D)c-opsin and r-opsin arose from a common ancestral protein
E)c-opsins are in photoreceptor cells in vertebrates and invertebrates
Q2) Olfaction is another name for the:
A)Sense of body position
B)Sense of smell
C)Sense of hearing
D)Sense of pain
E)Sense of equilibrium
Q3) If a person has been prescribed eyeglasses with concave lenses it is most likely to correct for that person:
A)Having astigmatism
B)Being farsighted
C)Being cross-eyed
D)None of the above are correct
E)Being nearsighted
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Chapter 27: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Insulin is a peptide hormone.Which of the following would occur in a muscle cell exposed to insulin?
A)Intracellular insulin levels would increase
B)Intracellular glucose levels would decrease
C)It would contract
D)It would secrete glucagon
E)Intracellular cAMP levels would increase
Q2) Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Testes
C)Gall bladder
D)Pineal gland
E)Adrenal gland
Q3) Biochemicals produced in a gland or organ that travel through the blood stream and alter the metabolism of specific target cells are:
A)Enzymes
B)Pheromones
C)Neurotransmitters
D)Hormones
E)Pectines
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Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The type of skeleton that is usually composed of either a calcium containing shell or chitin is a(an):
A)Endoskeleton
B)Exoskeleton
C)Hydrostatic skeleton
D)Gastrovascular cavity
E)Vascular canal
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis is caused when what part of a joint becomes swollen and inflamed?
A)Ligaments
B)Cartilage
C)Bone
D)Synovial fluid
E)Tendons
Q3) Ligaments connect bone to bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bones regulate calcium homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Birds and mammals are endotherms,meaning they spend enormous amounts of energy maintaining a constant body temperature.To meet these energy needs,birds and mammals independently evolved four-chambered hearts,completing the separation of oxygen-rich from oxygen-depleted blood.How would this maximize the amount of oxygen reaching tissues?
A)Diffusion of oxygen from oxygenated blood into tissues would be increased
B)Diffusion of oxygen from oxygenated blood into tissues would be decreased
C)Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the blood
D)Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the tissues
E)Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the lungs
Q2) A dual-chamber pacemaker is surgically placed in a patient's chest.Wires then carry pulses to the right atrium and the right ventricle.How would the pulses be directed from the pacemaker to the heart?
A)Only the ventricle would be stimulated
B)The ventricle would be stimulated first and then the atrium
C)Both the atrium and ventricle would be stimulated simultaneously
D)Only the atrium would be stimulated
E)The atrium would be stimulated first and then the ventricle
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Chapter 30: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following animals can obtain the oxygen they need by diffusion of oxygen across the surface of their body?
A)Fish and Flatworms
B)Fish
C)Flatworms
D)Sea anemones
E)Sea anemones and earthworms
Q2) ATP is required by cells for:
A)DNA replication
B)Movement
C)Production of proteins
D)Growth
E)All are correct
Q3) The most important signal that the brain uses to set the breathing rate is the level of blood:
A)Nitrogen
B)Oxygen
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Sulfur
E)Hemoglobin
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Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elaborate courtship rituals are an example of which of the following?
A)Sexual selection
B)Artificial selection
C)Directional selection
D)Post-zygotic selection
E)Stabilizing selection
Q2) The solid waste that leaves the digestive tract of a vertebrate is called chyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The muscular tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach is the:
A)Larynx
B)Trachea
C)Esophagus
D)Glottis
E)Bronchus
Q4) The pyloric sphincter lies between the small intestine and large intestine,thereby controlling the movement of food into the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis is defined as:
A)The ability of an organism to anchor itself to the rocks or soil of a body of water
B)The ability of an organism to carry out chemical reactions
C)The ability of an organism to sexually mature
D)The ability of an organism to withstand extreme temperatures
E)The ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment
Q2) Which nitrogenous waste produced by animals during metabolism is highly toxic and must be excreted as a dilute solution in a lot of water?
A)Urea
B)Nucleotides
C)Uric acid
D)Ammonia
E)Allatonin
Q3) Alcohol reduces ADH secretion which in turn does which of the following?
A)Decreases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume
B)Decreases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume
C)Increases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume
D)Increases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume
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34
Chapter 33: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did the authors test if flatworms could moderate the immune system?
A)By exposing white blood cells to flatworm antigens and measuring IL-10 concentrations
B)By exposing white blood cells to dust mite antigens and measuring IL-10 concentrations
C)By exposing white blood cells to flatworm antigens and measuring histamine concentrations
D)By exposing white blood cells to dust mite antigens and measuring histamine concentrations
E)By infecting children with flatworms and looking at their number of white blood cells
Q2) If a human fetus is ___________ and the pregnant woman is ______________,an incompatibility that destroys the red blood cells of the fetus may occur.
A)Rh negative, Rh positive
B)Type "AB", Type "O"
C)Type "O", Type "AB"
D)Rh positive, Rh negative
E)Rh positive, Type "AB"
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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby turtle growing into an adult that appears similar is an example of ____.
A)Direct development
B)External fertilization
C)Internal fertilization
D)Indirect development
E)Differentiation
Q2) In the human male and female reproductive systems,each system contains paired primary sex organs called _______________,which contain ___________ that give rise to gametes.
A)Testes, sperm cells
B)Gonads, germ cells
C)Ovaries, egg cells
D)Bulbo-urethral glands, germ cells
E)All are correct
Q3) The menstrual cycle controls the timing of oocyte maturation in the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ovarian cycle prepares the uterus for pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of birds traveling in flocks?
A)An individual bird will have more food available
B)An individual bird's chance of being eaten by a predator is diminished
C)An individual bird will need to spend less time finding food
D)An individual bird's chance of finding a mate will increase
E)A flock of birds is like a warning signal to predators not to feed on them
Q2) If scientists ask "why" questions about the behavior of living organisms,they are studying the ___________________ causes of behavior.
A)Dominant
B)Recessive
C)Proximate
D)Ultimate
E)Anatomical
Q3) In addition to affecting behavior,what does ADH regulate?
A)Heart rate
B)Respiratory rate
C)Muscle contractions
D)Blood pressure
E)Release of testosterone
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a population the difference between the birth rate and the death rate is termed the:
A)Population density determining factor
B)Population dispersion factor
C)J-shaped population curve
D)S-shaped population curve
E)Per capita rate of increase
Q2) In the population growth equation G = rN,"N" is the number of individuals added per unit time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In 2010 India had a population of 1,170,000,000,a birth rate of 0.027,and a death rate of 0.013.Approximately how much will the Indian population grow in 2010?
A)170,000,000
B)1,700,000
C)170,000
D)17,000,000
E)17,000
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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which neither member of the relationship benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A species that is so important to its community (such as the sea otter)that their removal can dismantle a food web is termed a:
A)Capstone species
B)Flagstone species
C)Cobblestone species
D)Cornerstone species
E)Keystone species
Q3) An insect that resembles the face of a snake is using ___ to avoid predation.
A)Camouflage
B)Warning coloration
C)Mimicry
D)Chemical defense
E)Mutualism
Q4) Energy flows in only one direction through an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: The Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrient-rich lakes are termed oligotrophic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Earth has an essentially constant tilt of ____________ on its axis from its plane of orbit.
A)12.5 degrees
B)23.5 degrees
C)30 degrees
D)9 degrees
E)5.5 degrees
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic or component of a hydrothermal vent ecosystem?
A)Archaea
B)Tube worms
C)Sunlight
D)Very low pH
E)Temperatures of 100 degrees Celsius
Q4) Nutrient-rich lakes are termed eutrophic.
A)True
B)False
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the world's endangered species?
A)The Sumatran rhino
B)The California condor
C)The zebra mussel
D)The vaquita
E)The green pitcher plant
Q2) The ______________________ in the stratosphere above Earth's surface absorbs much of the harmful UV wavelengths of light.
A)Benthic zone
B)Ozone layer
C)Cumulus clouds
D)Particulate layer
E)Profundal zone
Q3) Greenhouse gases block:
A)Carbon dioxide escape from the Earth
B)Oxygen escape from the Earth
C)UV wavelengths from reaching Earth's surface
D)UV wavelengths escape from the Earth
E)Heat escape from the Earth
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