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General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles of biology, exploring the structure and function of living organisms, from the molecular and cellular level to complex ecological systems. Students examine topics such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, physiology, biodiversity, and ecology. Emphasis is placed on understanding biological processes, the scientific method, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and societal issues. The course integrates laboratory experiences to reinforce theoretical concepts and foster critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Q1) Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A controlled study in which neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment,is called a(n)
A) statistical study.
B) double-blind study.
C) variable study.
D) adaptive study.
E) blind study.
Answer: B
Q3) A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a(n)
A) community.
B) population.
C) organism.
D) tissue.
E) species.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?
A) phosphate
B) nitrogenous base
C) five-ring sugar
D) an R group
E) a pentose
Answer: D
Q2) When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction,
A) a peptide bond is formed.
B) the R groups are lost.
C) water is added to begin the reaction.
D) the carboxyl group of each join together.
E) the amino group of each join together.
Answer: A
Q3) The primary level of protein structure is composed of amino acids in a linear sequence joined by peptide bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) In developing embryos such as a chicken,what restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements?
A) respiration
B) catabolism
C) anabolism
D) cell division
E) assimilation
Answer: D
Q2) A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called
A) a protomembrane.
B) a protosugar.
C) a glycocalyx.
D) a glycolipid.
E) a glycoprotein.
Answer: E
Q3) A malfunction with the microtubules would interfere with mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called A) carcinomas.
B) sarcomas.
C) leukemias.
D) lymphomas.
E) blastomas.
Q2) ________ glands are considered ductless glands,while ________ glands contain ducts.
A) Exocrine, endocrine
B) Transitional, exocrine
C) Transitional, endocrine
D) Endocrine, exocrine
E) Sudoriferous, transitional
Q3) It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome.Which types of fibers are affected in this disorder?
A) elastic fibers
B) reticular fibers
C) collagen fibers
D) hyaline fibers
E) ground fibers
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Q1) Which of the following blood vessels are small,thin,and porous enough to exchange substances at the tissue level of organization?
A) arterioles
B) capillaries
C) venules
D) small arteries
E) veins
Q2) Tissue fluid contains lower amounts of protein than does plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tissue fluid leaving the arterial end of the capillary is balanced by tissue fluid entering the venous end of the capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare the structure and function of arteries to that of veins.
Q5) The walls of veins are thinner,so they cannot expand as greatly as arteries can.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the three general functions of the cardiovascular system.
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Q1) In someone with terrible allergies,what leukocyte levels would be elevated?
A) neutrophil, eosinophil
B) monocyte, megakaryocyte
C) eosinophil, basophil
D) lymphocyte, monocyte
E) megakaryocyte, basophil
Q2) If mom has already developed anti-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy,a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With respect to antigens and antibodies,what do type O negative and type AB positive blood have in common?
A) A and B antigens, no antibodies
B) A antigens, anti-B antibodies
C) B antigens, no antibodies
D) no antibodies
E) nothing
Q4) Red blood cells are unable to undergo mitosis.
A)True
B)False

8
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Q1) Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by A) creating interferon.
B) causing them to burst.
C) inactivating their ribosomes.
D) agglutinating them.
E) destroying their nucleic acids.
Q2) What do having the measles and being vaccinated against the measles have in common?
A) They are both forms of active immunity.
B) They are both forms of neutral immunity.
C) They are both forms of passive immunity.
D) They are both forms of an infection.
E) They are both forms of an immune deficiency.
Q3) The RhoGAM shot given to Rh-negative mothers with an Rh-positive fetus is an example of what type of immunity?
A) active
B) passive
C) nonspecific
D) general
E) neutral
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Q1) Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material?
A) matrix
B) capsid
C) nucleocapsid
D) protease
E) gp120
Q2) Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The HIV virus contains a genome composed of
A) double-stranded DNA.
B) single-stranded DNA.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) single-stranded RNA.
E) one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA.
Q4) The envelope of the HIV virus is actually part of the host cell plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) to ingest food
B) to digest food into small nutrients so that the molecules can pass through membranes
C) to absorb nutrient molecules
D) to eliminate indigestible remains
E) to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues
Q2) The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside layer outward in order are
A) submucosa, muscularis, mucosa, serosa.
B) serosa, submucosa, muscularis, mucosa.
C) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa.
D) muscularis, serosa, mucosa, submucosa.
E) mucosa, muscularis, serosa, submucosa.
Q3) The portions of the large intestine include
A) the duodenum, cecum, and rectum.
B) the jejunum, colon, and anus.
C) the cecum, colon, rectum, and anus.
D) the colon, duodenum, cecum, and rectum.
E) the colon, anus, duodenum, and jejunum.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of emphysema?
A) The elastic recoil of the lungs is reduced.
B) The surface area for gas exchange is reduced.
C) The alveoli are distended and their walls damaged.
D) The airways are inflamed and filled with mucus.
E) The heart works harder to force more blood through the lungs.
Q2) Sound is produced when air rushes into the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase catalyze?
A) H<sup>+</sup> + HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> ? H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> ? H<sub>2</sub>O + CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Hb + O<sub>2</sub> ? HbO<sub>2</sub>
D) HbO<sub>2</sub> ? Hb + O<sub>2</sub>
E) none of these
Q4) Which part of the pharynx is not matched to its correct location?
A) nasopharynx: where the nasal cavities open at the top
B) oropharynx: where the sinuses open
C) laryngopharynx: where the pharynx opens into the larynx
Q5) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
A) urea
B) erythropoietin
C) ammonia
D) creatinine
E) uric acid
Q2) Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is located within the glomerular capsule?
A) the renal cortex
B) the loop of Henle
C) several collecting ducts
D) a knot of capillaries
E) the peritubular capillary network
Q4) Parts of the nephron are lined with epithelial cells containing large numbers of mitochondria to assist in diffusion.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) As long as the growth plate remains,the limbs will keep increasing in length.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A simple break of the tibia is when the bone pierces the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following joints is a fibrous joint?
A) sutures between cranial bones
B) ribs and sternum
C) intervertebral disks
D) elbow
E) knee
Q4) The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.
Q6) A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the steps involved in bone growth by endochondral ossification.
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Q1) Which of the following does not attach to the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A) rib
B) clavicle
C) sternum
D) mastoid process
E) skull
Q2) Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction?
A) ATP in the blood
B) ATP produced in the cell
C) the creatine phosphate pathway
D) fermentation
E) aerobic respiration
Q3) Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle,which pathway(s)do slow-twitch fibers prefer?
A) the creatine phosphate pathway
B) fermentation
C) aerobic respiration
D) the creatine phosphate pathway or fermentation
E) the creatine phosphate pathway or aerobic respiration
Q4) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
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Q1) Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning?
A) hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories
B) long-term potentiation and memory storage
C) semantic memory and numbers
D) episodic memory and persons
E) prefrontal area and where memories are used
Q2) A tumor located in the primary somatosensory area would impact which of the following functions?
A) the ability to feel a rough object
B) the ability to swallow
C) the ability to smell
D) the ability to determine images
E) all of these
Q3) List the order of events that will occur during a reflex arc.
Q4) The thalamus is on the receiving end for all sensory input except for
A) sense of smell.
B) visual sense.
C) sense of hearing.
D) somatosensory information.
E) memory and emotions.

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Q1) What percentage of what we perceive as taste is due to smell?
A) 80-90%
B) 100%
C) 40-50%
D) 10-20%
E) 0%
Q2) Where are thermoreceptors located?
A) aorta and vena cava
B) muscles, joints, and tendons
C) hypothalamus and skin
D) nasal cavity and tongue
E) semicircular canals of the ear
Q3) The receptor proteins for odor molecules are actually located on cilia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mechanoreceptors located in the auditory tubes are responsible for determining rotational equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.
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Q1) Usually you are consciously aware of the governance of your internal organs by the nervous and endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The adrenal cortex provides a slower but long-term stress response in comparison to the adrenal medulla.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary have an effect on other glands.Which of the following does not?
A) LH
B) ACTH
C) growth hormone
D) TSH
E) gonadotropic hormone
Q4) Glycogen can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels,but fat cannot be.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
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Q1) How many chromosomes does a human sperm contain?
A) 1
B) 23
C) 24
D) 46
E) 48
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true concerning hormonal control over the male reproductive system?
A) The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females.
C) These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship.
D) Luteinizing hormone controls the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules.
E) The interstitial cells produce testosterone.
Q3) If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized,it never finishes meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the six stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.
Q5) List and describe the five functions of the reproductive system.
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Q1) The white,greasy,cheeselike substance that covers the fetus's skin is called
A) lanugo.
B) fontanels.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) foramen ovale.
E) ductus arteriosus.
Q2) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Q3) When the uterus begins to contract,it is almost time for the baby to be born.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not derived from the endoderm?
A) epithelial lining of the digestive tract
B) epithelial lining of the respiratory tract
C) glands of the digestive tract
D) lining of the urinary bladder
E) urinary system
Q6) Describe the steps of fertilizing an egg cell.
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Q1) At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
Q2) Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?
A) elevated levels of purines in the blood
B) increased tendency toward leukemia
C) increased tendency toward cataracts
D) accelerated rate of aging
E) thickening of the muscles of the tongue
Q3) Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?
A) deletion
B) duplication
C) translocation
D) inversion
E) trisomy
Q4) List the stages of meiosis I and explain the events that occur during each stage.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a standard therapy for cancer treatment?
A) immunotherapy
B) surgery
C) radiation therapy
D) chemotherapy
E) all of these are standard therapies for the tretment of cancer
Q2) Which of the following does not produce ionizing radiation?
A) ultraviolet radiation
B) radon gas
C) nuclear fuel
D) X-rays
E) none of these are ionizing radiation
Q3) Explain what CAUTION means as the acronym for the warning signs of cancer.
Q4) When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells,the cells are killed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A carcinogen is not a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
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Q1) In an X-linked dominant trait,affected males pass the trait only to daughters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele?
A) A
B) b
C) AA
D) Aa
E) bb
Q3) In a cross of Ff x Ff,the probability of having a dominant phenotype is
A) 1/4.
B) 1/3.
C) 1/2.
D) 2/3.
E) 3/4.
Q4) A male inherits his X-linked allele from his mother.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the genotypic ratios of the cross between a man with O blood type and a woman with heterozygous B blood type.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?
A)The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate.
B)The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure.
C)The two strands are considered parallel.
D)The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix.
E)A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C.
Q2) Which of the following is not an application of PCR?
A) study of evolutionary history
B) study of mummies
C) investigation of crime scenes
D) treatment of cancer
E) detection of a genetic disorder
Q3) Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?
A) amino acids
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) carbohydrate rings
E) steroid rings
Q4) Describe the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA.
Q5) Transcribe and then translate the following DNA code: AATCGGTTCCATCGG
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Q1) Which of the following is not a similarity between humans and apes?
A) three different types of cone cells
B) opposable big toe
C) powerful and precise grip
D) smaller portion of the brain devoted to smell
E) reduced reproductive rate
Q2) Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Biological evolution is the process whereby
A) humans descended from apes.
B) species change through time.
C) living cells arose from nonliving chemicals.
D) prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells.
E) only the strongest survive.
Q4) Does the spine of both a human and chimpanzee exit the skull in the same manner?
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.
Q6) List and explain the elements of the natural selection process.
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Q1) Almost 100% of the energy taken in by plants from the sun is available to an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does phosphate enter the soil?
A) conversion in the atmosphere due to lightning
B) precipitation from clouds
C) weathering of rocks
D) photosynthesis
E) cellular respiration
Q3) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.
Q4) Do all ecological pyramids have a broad base with a smaller top?
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does the word "trophic" mean?
A) energy
B) niche
C) web
D) feeding
E) biomass

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Q1) How long does it take for a plastic grocery bag to degrade?
A) 1-2 weeks
B) 1-2 months
C) 1 year
D) 10-20 years
E) more than 50 years
Q2) What does the United States's population growth look like?
A) increasing
B) decreasing
C) leveling off
D) an upside-down pyramid
E) a rectangular column
Q3) If the birthrate is 22 per 1000 per year and the death rate is 8 per 1000 per year,what is the population growth rate?
A) 2.2%
B) 0.8%
C) 1.4%
D) 14%
E) 22%
Q4) List and describe the criteria that are used to measure quality of life.
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