General Biology
Test Bank
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles and concepts underlying the study of living organisms. Topics covered include cellular structure and function, genetics and inheritance, evolution and natural selection, diversity of life, ecology, and basic physiological processes in plants and animals. This course emphasizes scientific inquiry, laboratory techniques, and the critical analysis of biological data, preparing students for advanced studies in the life sciences and fostering an understanding of biologys relevance to everyday life and global challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19878
Sample Questions
Q1) When might bias in an experiment occur?
A) A subject does not know who is in the control or experimental groups.
B) A technician knows which samples are from the control group.
C) A subject finds out the results of the experiment after it is finished.
D) A researcher randomly assigns subjects to the control or experimental group.
Answer: B
Q2) When would an experimental result be considered statistically significant?
A) The experiment is double blind.
B) Experimental and control subjects are randomly assigned.
C) The result is unlikely to be due to chance alone.
D) The result supports the hypothesis being tested.
Answer: C
Q3) What type of reasoning is used to make predictions based on a hypothesis?
Answer: Deductive
Q4) What does statistical analysis of experimental results determine?
A) the amount of bias in the experimental design
B) the likelihood that the results are due to the experimental treatment
C) whether the experiment proves that the hypothesis being tested is correct
D) whether the proper controls were used in the experiment
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a lipid?
A) cellulose
B) cholesterol
C) sucrose
D) ribonucleic acid
Answer: B
Q2) Use the figure to answer the following question. If two or more of these molecules are in proximity to one another, how will they bond together?
A) hydrogen bonding, with two hydrogen atoms bonded together
B) covalent bonding, with two oxygen atoms bonded together
C) hydrogen bonding, with a hydrogen atom bonded to an oxygen atom
D) ionic bonding, with a hydrogen ion bonded to an oxygen atom
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following pairs of molecules can be held together by a hydrogen bond?
A) one polar molecule and one nonpolar molecule
B) two negative ions
C) two nonpolar molecules
D) two polar molecules
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major difference between saturated and unsaturated fats?
A) At room temperature, saturated fats are liquid and unsaturated fats are solid.
B) Unsaturated fats have a flat molecular structure, but saturated fats are kinked.
C) Saturated fat molecules are packed together loosely, but unsaturated fats are tightly packed.
D) Unsaturated fats contain carbon-to-carbon double bonds, but saturated fats don't.
Answer: D
Q2) How would the permeability of the phospholipid bilayer of plasma membranes be described?
A) The bilayer is always impermeable to small molecules.
B) The bilayer is always permeable to charged atoms and molecules.
C) The bilayer is differentially permeable.
D) The bilayer is impermeable to all atoms and molecules.
Answer: C
Q3) Which process fuses vesicles with the plasma membrane to move substances out of a cell?
Answer: exocytosis
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is associated with obesity?
A) amenorrhea
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) osteoporosis
D) altered heart rhythms
Q2) Which process creates the most ATP per glucose molecule metabolized?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) anaerobic respiration
D) aerobic cellular respiration
Q3) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
Q4) Which component of fat can be metabolized for the production of ATP?
A) amino acids
B) monosaccharides
C) nucleic acids
D) glycerol
Q5) What proteins, working in series, catalyze the reactions of the citric acid cycle?
Q6) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During what time of the day would the most hydrogen bonds reform between water molecules in a lake?
A) in the late morning
B) at noon
C) in the late afternoon
D) at night
Q2) Why does sweating cool your body?
A) The water in sweat, as it is secreted from skin glands, is cooler than your body temperature.
B) Heat energy from your skin is used to evaporate the water in the sweat.
C) Water in sweat contains hydrogen bonds that react with skin cells and removes excess heat from the skin.
D) Sweat contains a combination of chemicals that react with salt on the skin to create a heat-absorbing substance.
Q3) During which process does water vapor exit plant stomata?
A) condensation
B) combustion
C) evaporation
D) transpiration
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?
A) phosphate groups
B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
C) nitrogenous bases
D) DNA polymerase
Q2) Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase?
A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.
B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).
C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.
D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.
Q3) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
Q4) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q5) What is the process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations?
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19884
Sample Questions
Q1) If the DNA contained in the chromosomes of an organism is similar to an instruction manual, then what are the genes "instructing" the cell to do?
A) grow in size until a certain point is reached, then reproduce itself
B) convert carbohydrates into enzymes
C) change shape and structure to meet the demands of the local environment
D) synthesize specific proteins from amino acids
Q2) What genotype would be found in an individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder?
A) heterozygous
B) homozygous for the recessive allele
C) homozygous for the dominant allele
D) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous
Q3) What does the highest point on a bell-shaped curve represent?
A) maximum amount of variation in a trait
B) heritability value of a trait
C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous
D) mean of the population
Q4) What type of genetic cross involves two traits?
Q5) What term refers to the genetic makeup of an organism?
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19885
Sample Questions
Q1) In which group can sex-linked traits be expressed?
A) males only
B) females only
C) either males or females
D) carriers only
Q2) What pattern of inheritance includes the AB blood type, in which both A and B alleles are expressed?
A) incomplete dominance
B) codominance
C) independent assortment
D) sex linkage
Q3) What is the ability of a gene to cause multiple effects on a phenotype?
A) pleiotropy
B) codominance
C) polygenic inheritance
D) continuous variation
Q4) In human ABO blood types, what description applies to the alleles for A and B because they're both expressed?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of tRNA molecules during translation?
A) They unzip double-stranded mRNA.
B) They serve as the starting point for RNA polymerase.
C) They carry amino acids to the ribosome.
D) They encode the instructions for protein synthesis.
Q2) Which structure "unzips" the double helix of DNA?
A) an anticodon
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) RNA polymerase
Q3) To what does RNA polymerase bind to begin the process of transcription?
A) promoter
B) structural gene
C) codon
D) anticodon
Q4) What action results when activators present near a gene are "turned on"?
A) increased transcription
B) decreased gene expression
C) unwinding of the DNA double helix
D) a shift in the reading frame
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bat wings are homologous to the front legs of cats. What does the term homologous mean in this context?
A) Both structures are used for the same purpose.
B) The common ancestor of bats and cats had limbs that functioned as wings.
C) The common ancestor of bats and cats had a limb with a bone structure similar to that found in cat legs and bat wings.
D) Bat wings are vestigial legs.
Q2) Why would intelligent design not be considered a scientific explanation for the origin of living things?
A) It is not a testable strategy.
B) It is not a testable hypothesis.
C) It is not a testable experiment.
D) It is not a testable theory.
Q3) What type of evidence for the theory of common descent would include the presence of goose bumps in humans?
A) vestigial structures
B) homologous structures
C) shared developmental pathways
D) DNA similarity
Page 12
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1980, only 1 to 5% of all Staphylococcus aureus isolates were MRSA strains. Now 60 to 70% of S. aureus isolates are MRSA strains. What process is the cause of this situation?
A) stabilizing selection of humans
B) directional selection of humans
C) directional selection of bacteria
D) diversifying selection of bacteria
Q2) Based on what you know about resistance to infection, why are some people resistant to HIV?
A) They have a strong immune system that clears the virus completely.
B) They have been immunized in an experimental program.
C) They can't be infected with HIV even when exposed.
D) They never engage in risky behavior and thus can't become infected.
Q3) In order for the theory of common descent and the theory of natural selection to both be supported, what can we infer about the genetic material for all life?
A) It must change very rarely.
B) It must vary spontaneously and randomly.
C) It must be transferable between adults.
D) It must be transferable between different species.
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would a scientist use DNA fingerprinting to answer a question about human migration?
A) to determine what race a person belongs to
B) to determine the paternity of an individual
C) to determine the frequency of a particular allele in different populations
D) to determine whether a recessive allele gave an advantage in a particular environment
Q2) One species of plant produces flowers when nights are 10 hours long. A related species comes into flower when nights are 9 hours long. What type of reproductive isolation would include this example?
A) gamete incompatibility
B) temporal isolation
C) mechanical isolation
D) behavioral isolation
Q3) Which question relates to population genetics and could be answered using the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
A) What will be the frequency of a particular genotype in a future generation?
B) What is the probability that members of two groups will mate?
C) Is an allele dominant or recessive?
D) What is the genetic basis of racial categories?
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are prokaryotes different from eukaryotes?
A) Prokaryotes have no DNA.
B) Prokaryotes have no nucleus separating the DNA from the rest of the cell.
C) Prokaryotes are unicellular, while eukaryotes are multicellular.
D) Prokaryotes cause disease, but eukaryotes don't.
Q2) True or false: Mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells are very similar to prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which categories are in the correct order, from most inclusive to least inclusive?
A) phylum, kingdom, domain, species
B) species, phylum, domain, kingdom
C) kingdom, species, phylum, domain
D) domain, kingdom, phylum, species
Q4) Algae are classified as part of which group?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19891
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is density-dependent?
A) decrease in temperature
B) increase in waste production
C) decrease in frequency of hurricanes
D) increase in rainfall
Q2) What does a completely columnar population pyramid represent?
A) proportionally more young than middle-aged or elderly people
B) equal proportions of young, middle-aged, and elderly people
C) proportionally more middle-aged and elderly than young people
D) proportionally more middle-aged than elderly and/or young people
Q3) Which experiment would not be considered an ecological study?
A) the effect of a housing development on a spotted salamander population in a vernal pool
B) the effect of changing availability of acorns on a population of squirrels
C) the effect of a red tide outbreak on sea birds in the area
D) the effect of a hormone on the rate of blood vessel formation
Q4) True or false: Scientists agree on the size of the carrying capacity of Earth for the human population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19892
Sample Questions
Q1) At the current rate of habitat destruction, what percentage of all living species will be extinct in 50 years?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 25%
D) 50%
Q2) Which of the following would be most threatened by habitat fragmentation?
A) songbirds
B) lizards
C) mountain lions
D) antelopes
Q3) Which animal is critically endangered in the United States?
A) black-footed ferret
B) mourning dove
C) striped skunk
D) coyote
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19893
Sample Questions
Q1) What process involves the gradual replacement of plant species in a rainforest over time (for example, as it progresses from an old agricultural field back to a forest)?
A) intertropical convergence
B) desertification
C) succession
D) deforestation
Q2) When a patch of land is cleared in a tropical rainforest, the vegetation is often burned to enrich the soil with nutrients from the burned plant material. What description applies to this situation?
A) This works well because so many nutrients are trapped in tropical plants.
B) This works for a few years, but the soil is soon depleted of nutrients.
C) This isn't necessary because tropical soils are filled with nutrients.
D) This helps to promote long-term sustainable agriculture.
Q3) What organism do coral animals harbor inside their bodies to provide them with nutrition?
A) bacteria
B) dinoflagellates
C) photosynthetic algae
D) hydras
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the cells that make up the liver?
A) fibroblasts
B) osteocytes
C) chondrocytes
D) hepatocytes
Q2) Which type of cell protects the body from the potentially harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
Q3) Which type of body tissue acts as padding under the skin?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
Q4) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
Q5) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q6) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the duct within the kidney that collects urine?
A) ureter
B) renal vein
C) bladder
D) renal pelvis
Q2) Why do gallstones form in the gallbladder?
A) The gallbladder doesn't function at all.
B) The gallbladder removes too much water from bile.
C) The gallbladder converts bile into crystallized calcium propionate.
D) The gallbladder fills with dead hepatocytes.
Q3) Valuable substances in filtrate are returned to the blood through what process?
A) filtration
B) reabsorption
C) secretion
D) excretion
Q4) What are the functional units of the kidneys?
Q5) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structures return blood to the heart?
A) capillaries
B) veins
C) arteries
D) sinoatrial nodes
Q2) Why is carbon monoxide deadly?
A) It binds to hemoglobin in white blood cells in place of oxygen.
B) It binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells in place of oxygen.
C) It binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells in place of carbon dioxide.
D) It binds to hemoglobin in white blood cells in place of carbon dioxide.
Q3) In the human cardiovascular system, what's the difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit?
Q4) Economy-class syndrome is a condition that develops after long plane rides in which individuals are seated in a cramped position with little leg room. Based on your knowledge of the cardiovascular system, which consequence might result from this syndrome?
A) increased risk for heart attack
B) increased risk for thrombosis
C) increased risk for developing hypertension
D) increased risk for swelling in the brain
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: The relationship between the protist, Plasmodium, that causes malaria and its host is beneficial to both of them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A strategy currently in clinical trials to treat Alzheimer's disease is to infuse patients with antibodies, which then target the pathological protein produced in the disease, leading to its removal. What type of immune reaction applies to this technique?
A) an autoimmune response
B) active immunization
C) passive immunization
D) cell-mediated immunity
Q3) Why aren't viruses classified as living organisms?
A) Viruses don't possess a nucleus.
B) Viruses aren't capable of replicating themselves without a host cell.
C) Viruses don't always contain DNA as their genetic material.
D) Viruses don't contain any proteins.
Q4) Some RNA viruses, such as HIV, require what enzyme (two words) to convert the viral RNA genome into a DNA version?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: Because women have a broader pelvis, their Q angle is smaller than the Q angle in men.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How do the hormones involved in blood calcium homeostasis actually function?
A) Parathyroid hormone stimulates calcium deposit in bones and increases calcium uptake in the kidneys.
B) A falling blood calcium level causes the thyroid to release calcitonin.
C) Calcitonin acts to lower blood calcium levels, and parathyroid hormone acts to raise blood calcium.
D) Both parathyroid hormone and calcitonin act to raise blood calcium levels.
Q3) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which component of bone is responsible for producing blood cells?
A) cartilage
B) marrow
C) spongy bone
D) compact bone
Q4) Which structure produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system?
Q5) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs?
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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67 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hormones function in both the male and female reproductive system?
A) estrogen and progesterone
B) gonadotropin-releasing hormones and progesterone
C) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
D) luteinizing hormone and progesterone
Q2) During which process does the shedding of the endometrium occur?
A) menstruation
B) intercourse
C) ovulation
D) fertilization
Q3) A surge in which hormone is responsible for ovulation?
A) estrogen
B) FSH
C) LH
D) progesterone
Q4) A human skin cell is ________, while a human sperm cell is ________.
A) diploid; haploid
B) haploid; diploid
C) diploid; diploid
D) 1n; 2n
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What provides a connection between two neurons?
A) a synapse
B) a cell body
C) an axon
D) dendrites
Q2) True or false: Electrical signals travel faster down unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does the corpus callosum connect?
A) cerebellum and spinal cord
B) right and left cerebral hemispheres
C) pituitary and the hypothalamus
D) gray and white matter of the spinal cord
Q4) What process occurs when potassium ions diffuse out of a nerve cell and the inside of the cell again becomes more negative than the outside?
A) depolarization
B) polarization
C) repolarization
D) threshold
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What plant characteristics can result from primary growth?
A) a short and bushy plant
B) a tall plant with a wide stem
C) a plant with an extensive root system
D) a plant with cork and wood
Q2) Which structure is the growing tip of a plant stem?
A) apical meristem
B) axillary bud
C) rhizome
D) internode
Q3) What is the loss of fertilizer and pesticides from soil by water moving through it?
A) the pesticide treadmill
B) biomagnification
C) soil erosion
D) runoff
Q4) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?
Q5) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?
Q6) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which plant performs C photosynthesis?
A) pineapple
B) sugarcane
C) jade plant
D) oak tree
Q2) Whereas vessel elements produce ________ friction on the flow of water than tracheids, they result in ________.
A) more; a reduced risk of an embolism
B) less; a greater risk of an embolism
C) more; reduced rates of water loss from leaves during a drought
D) less; the prevention of water loss from leaves during a drought
Q3) Which plant is a perennial?
A) peony
B) morning glory
C) petunia
D) pansy
Q4) What are the narrow, tapering cells found in the xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species?
Q5) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
Q6) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
Page 27
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