General Biology Solved Exam Questions - 1779 Verified Questions

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General Biology

Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

General Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts of biological science, examining the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. Topics include cellular biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the various processes that sustain life. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the practical applications of biological principles, providing a foundation for advanced study in the life sciences. Through lectures, labs, and hands-on activities, students develop an understanding of the complexity of biological systems and the interdependence of life on Earth.

Recommended Textbook

The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson

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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most inclusive group in taxonomy is a:

A) population

B) domain

C) kingdom

D) species

Answer: B

Q2) As life forms become more advanced,new properties occur.These properties are referred to as ______________.

Answer: emergent

Q3) A biologist wants to test the effectiveness of a new food additive on causing growth in mice.An effective control group would be one that:

A) ate a higher concentration of food additive

B) was kept in different conditions across the city

C) was fed the same ration without the food additive

D) ate a lower concentration of the food additive

Answer: C

Q4) The method of uncovering general principles by carefully using the scientific method is called ________________ reasoning.

Answer: inductive

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nucleus of an atom is composed of two subatomic particles,______________ and _____________.

A) protons;neutrons

B) protons;electrons

C) neutrons;electrons

Answer: A

Q2) Atoms that bear a positive or negative charge are known as:

A) magnetic

B) electrically neutral

C) ions

D) lacking nuclei

Answer: C

Q3) Electrons possess energy of position,also known as _____________ energy.

A) kinetic

B) latent

C) potential

D) opposition

Answer: C

Q4) The chemical bond within a water molecule is a ______ bond.

Answer: covalent

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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) List the four major types of macromolecules,their subunits (building blocks),and their functions.

Answer: (1)Proteins.The subunits are amino acids.Their functions include catalyzing chemical reactions,structural roles,acting as chemical messengers,transport of substances,and muscle contraction.

(2)Nucleic Acids.Their subunits are nucleotides.Their function is the storage of information for cells.

(3)Carbohydrates.Their subunits are monosaccharides.Their functions include energy storage and structural support.

(4)Lipids.Lipids that are fats are made of fatty acid and glycerol subunits.Steroids,such as cholesterol,are made of ring structures.Lipids are used for energy storage and make up cellular membranes.

Q2) The external skeleton of many invertebrates is made of:

A) starch

B) cellulose

C) chitin

D) glycogen

E) sucrose

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following functions to isolate particular chemical activities from the rest of the cell?

A) Peroxisomes

B) Golgi complex

C) Chloroplasts

D) Nucleus

E) Ribosomes

Q2) Which of the following processes requires BOTH a channel protein AND energy?

A) Active transport

B) Facilitated diffusion

C) Osmosis

D) Simple diffusion

Q3) The endosymbiont theory is supported by the following evidence except:

A) Mitochondria are surrounded by two membranes.

B) Mitochondrial ribosomes are similar to bacterial ribosomes.

C) Mitochondria contain circular molecules of DNA.

D) Mitochondria divide by binary fission.

E) Mitochondria have a matrix.

Q4) Discuss the functions of the cytoskeleton of the cell.

Q5) A semi-fluid matrix called ____________ fills the inside of a cell.

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Chapter 5: Energy and Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The First Law of Thermodynamics states:

A) that energy can be changed from one form to another,but cannot be created or destroyed

B) that energy is constantly being created by entropy events

C) that energy can be used and then destroyed because of entropy's actions on it

D) that energy can be destroyed while it is producing entropy

Q2) Which of the following processes does NOT use ATP?

A) Muscle contraction

B) Active transport

C) Heat production

D) Diffusion of oxygen into the blood

E) Cytoplasmic transport

Q3) The making and breaking of chemical bonds is called:

A) entropy reactions

B) chemical reactions

C) thermodynamic reactions

D) catalysis reactions

E) activation energy reactions

Q4) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.

Q5) Do all cells contain the same enzymes? Support your answer.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun

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Sample Questions

Q1) Stoma open at night in plants that use _______ photosynthesis.

Q2) Most of the atmospheric oxygen occurs as a result of photosynthesis.From which of the following molecules is the oxygen derived?

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Water

C) Glucose

D) Chlorophyll

E) NADH

Q3) When something appears blue,it is absorbing all colors except _________.

A) yellow

B) red

C) blue

D) green

E) orange

Q4) What is the metal ion in chlorophyll?

A) Magnesium

B) Iron

C) Zinc

D) Copper

E) Sulfur

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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a catabolic reaction that cells use to get energy from nutrients?

A) Cellular respiration

B) Fermentation

C) Photosynthesis

D) Anaerobic respiration

E) Digestion

Q2) If an atom gains an electron in a chemical reaction,it is said that the atom:

A) has been oxidized

B) has been regulated

C) has been reduced

D) has been catalyzed

E) has activated

Q3) The process by which an atom or molecule loses an electron is:

A) reduction

B) catalysis

C) oxidation

D) photosynthesis

Q4) When an atom gains an electron,it is said to be __________.

Q5) Why do oxidation and reduction always take place together?

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Chapter 8: Mitosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) During which stage of the cell cycle does the M checkpoint occur?

A) Metaphase

B) Prophase

C) Telophase

D) S phase

E) G<sub>1</sub>

Q2) Why do eukaryotic cells have to undergo the individual steps of mitosis while prokaryotic cells can merely pull in half by binary fission?

Q3) What cell cycle regulatory protein is a tumor-suppressor protein?

A) E2F

B) EGF

C) p53

D) HER2

Q4) Pairs of chromosomes that have the same size,shape,and function are ________________________________.

Q5) Mutations disabling key elements of the G<sub>1</sub> checkpoint are associated with many cancers.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Genetic recombination is possible because of ________ during or after meiosis.

A) independent assortment

B) crossing over

C) fertilization with a nonrelated gamete

D) All of these are correct.

Q2) In plants like the fern,haploid cells produced by meiosis divide by _________,forming a multicellular haploid phase.

A) meiosis

B) binary fission

C) mitosis

D) budding

Q3) During which stage do chromosomes line up in pairs on the equatorial plane?

A) Metaphase I

B) Anaphase II

C) Metaphase II

D) Telophase I

E) Telophase II

Q4) Some organisms are able to reproduce both sexually and asexually.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two true-breeding pea plants are crossed,one with purple flowers and the other with white.Their offspring are:

A) heterozygous with the dominant phenotype

B) homozygous with the recessive phenotype

C) a mixture of purple and white flowers with varying genotypes

D) still true-breeding,with the same parental genotypes

Q2) Mendel's "factors" for inheritance are now known to be ________.

Q3) A genetic family tree can more correctly be called a ____________.

Q4) The diploid number of chromosomes in pea plants is 14.What is the haploid chromosome number?

A) 56

B) 28

C) 14

D) 7

Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?

Q6) A central role for chromosomes in heredity was first suggested by:

A) Karl Correns

B) Gregor Mendel

C) Thomas Hunt Morgan

D) Walter Sutton

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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the sequence of one strand of DNA is CATTACGGG,then the complementary strand would be GTAATGCCC.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that RNA,not protein,is the hereditary material.

A)True

B)False

Q3) All of the following are correct about mutations except:

A) Without mutations,there would be no variation and no evolution.

B) Mutations change the bases in DNA.

C) A mutation in a somatic cell will be passed on to subsequent generations.

D) Some mutations change the nucleotide sequence of a gene.

E) Some mutations remove nucleotides from a gene.

Q4) Which choice describes how the DNA molecule replicates?

A) Semiconservative

B) Dispersive

C) Conservative

D) Either dispersive or semiconservative depending on the pH

E) Either dispersive or conservative depending on the organism

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Chapter 12: How Genes Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) In humans,what percent of the genome is devoted to the exons that encode proteins?

A) about 1.5%

B) about 20%

C) about 35%

D) about 50%

E) about 75%

Q2) Biologists have found that the genetic code is universal,that the same triplet codons code for the same amino acids in almost all living things.Explain how this can be considered evidence for evolution.

Q3) The genetic code is universal,the same in practically all organisms.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The three nucleotide sequence on mRNA is called an anticodon.

A)True

B)False

Q5) A type of DNA sequence that expands access to a gene to promote its expression is a(n)_______________.

Q6) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.

Q7) Explain why mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.

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Chapter 13: The New Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The genes encoding rRNA are examples of __________________ of genes.

Q2) A clear distinction between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning is that:

A) reproductive cloning involves the eventual destruction of the embryo,whereas therapeutic does not

B) therapeutic cloning involves the eventual destruction of the embryo,whereas reproductive cloning does not

C) therapeutic cloning involves the immediate destruction of the embryo,whereas reproductive cloning postpones the destruction until later

D) reproductive cloning involves the use of other species' cells for humans,whereas therapeutic cloning does not

Q3) In therapeutic cloning,why are the embryonic cells used to treat an individual not rejected by that individual?

A) Because the individual's immune system is suppressed with drugs

B) Because the cells are embryonic

C) They are rejected,and that is why this has not worked yet

D) Because the embryonic cells are cloned from the same individual they are injected into

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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Whales are descendents of:

A) sharks

B) a relative of the rhinoceros

C) a relative of the duckbilled platypus

D) a relative of a hippopotamus

E) manatees

Q2) The evidence for evolution includes which of the following?

A) The fossil record

B) The molecular record

C) Anatomical record

D) All of the choices are correct.

Q3) A human example of stabilizing selection is _____________________.

Q4) Much of the evolutionary history of vertebrates can be seen in the way in which their ________ develop.

A) digestive tracts

B) embryos

C) brains

D) appendages

E) nervous systems

Q5) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.

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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things

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Sample Questions

Q1) The person responsible for the current scheme for grouping organisms is:

A) Aristotle

B) Linnaeus

C) Darwin

D) Malthus

Q2) The scientific names we use to identify organisms are in the form of:

A) Greek

B) polynomials

C) nicknames

D) binomials

Q3) Describe the various scientific roles that zoos fulfill.

Q4) Which of these groups does not fit well into the biological species concept?

A) Animals

B) Humans

C) Protists

D) All of these are correct.

Q5) A cladogram grouped birds with reptiles because the bird characteristic of ____________ was not emphasized.

Q6) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.

Q7) A _________ is a group of organisms related by their ancestry.

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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures

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Sample Questions

Q1) When bacterial cell walls are covered with an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharide,they are:

A) gram-negative

B) gram-positive

C) encapsulated

D) polyencapsulated

Q2) Describe what scientists feel may be the first step in the evolution of cellular organization.

Q3) Vibrio cholerae usually exists in a harmless form until:

A) a bacteriophage introduces a gene that codes for the cholera toxin

B) mutations cause the normal proteins to form a toxin causing cholera

C) the lytic cycle destroys the host cells

D) a bacteriophage introduces a gene that codes for the botulism toxin

Q4) Viruses can enter animal cells by:

A) poking holes in their membranes and entering

B) triggering an active transport mechanism

C) endocytosis

D) exocytosis

Q5) Viral genomes can be of DNA or ___________.

Q6) In __________________,atmospheric nitrogen is converted to a more usable form.

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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which group is believed to be ancestral to the plants?

A) Green algae

B) Brown algae

C) Red algae

D) Diatoms

Q2) Unicellular,photosynthetic protists with two flagella of unequal length belong to this group.

A) Foraminifera

B) Dinoflagellates

C) Choanoflagellates

D) Euglenoids

Q3) ________ possess red pigments called phycobilins that give them their characteristic color.

A) Green algae

B) Brown algae

C) Red algae

D) Diatoms

Q4) Why are colonial protists not considered to be multicellular?

Q5) What is the evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction?

Q6) The most diverse kingdom is made up of the ______________.

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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land

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Sample Questions

Q1) There are ____________ different described species of fungi.

A) 550

B) 4 million

C) 74,000

D) 2,000

Q2) The fungus from which penicillin is derived belongs to the _____________.

Q3) When the basidiomycetes undergo sexual reproduction,the product is always a _____,unlike what is found in the other two groups.

A) gamete

B) ascus

C) dikaryotic hypha

D) mycelium

Q4) Fungi are at least _____ million years old.

A) 1

B) 25

C) 50

D) 100

E) 400

Q5) An ___________ is a reproductive structure found only in the ascomycetes.

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Q6) Puffballs and shelf fungi belong to the ________________.

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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla

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Sample Questions

Q1) Animals in which the anus develops before the mouth in the embryo are:

A) coelomic

B) protostomes

C) deuterostomes

D) coelenterates

Q2) _______ is the field of study in which unique sequences of certain genes are used to identify clusters of related groups.

Q3) The key evolutionary development seen for the first time in the sponges is that of:

A) a complete digestive tract

B) major organ systems

C) body symmetry

D) multicellularity

Q4) Chordates can be characterized as having:

A) a notochord

B) a nerve cord

C) bilateral symmetry

D) All of the choices are correct.

Q5) Describe a hypothesis for the origin of metazoans from single celled protists.

Q6) Cnidarians have two basic body forms,medusae and ________.

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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Whales and dolphins have a few hairs on their snouts.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Bony fishes possess a swim bladder to:

A) regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood

B) cleanse the blood from toxins

C) detect changes in water pressure

D) store urine until excreted

E) regulate their buoyancy

Q3) Which of the following is the correct evolutionary sequence?

A) fish birds amphibians reptiles

B) amphibians fish reptiles birds

C) reptiles birds fish amphibians

D) fish amphibians reptiles birds

E) birds reptiles fish amphibians

Q4) Mammals and dinosaurs did not live during the same time periods.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are some of the reasons why placental mammals appear to have outcompeted monotremes and marsupials,the other two groups of mammals?

Page 22

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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved

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Q1) The evolution of __________________ marks the beginning of the hominids.

Q2) Which hypothesis argues that the human races independently evolved from H.erectus in different parts of the world?

A) The Recently-Out-of Africa model

B) The Multiregional hypothesis

C) The Local hypothesis

D) The Asian-African hypothesis

Q3) Few fossils of early Homo have been found,and there is much debate about whether different individuals should be grouped together.Which of these is believed to be more ancient than the others?

A) Homo habilis

B) Homo rudolfensis

C) Homo ergaster

D) Homo sapiens

Q4) The oldest modern human is:

A) Homo habilis

B) Homo rudolfensis

C) Homo ergaster

D) Homo heidelbergensis

Q5) Why is the DNA of humans and chimpanzees so very similar?

Page 23

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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves

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Q1) __________________________ are found in soft-bodied invertebrates,such as earthworms and jellyfish.

A) Hydraulic skeletons

B) Exoskeletons

C) Endoskeletons

D) None of these is correct.

Q2) The outer layer of bone,referred to as _______________,is dense and strong.

A) cortex

B) medulla

C) compact bone

D) spongy bone

Q3) Muscle cells are unique because of the contractible protein fibers,called _____________________,within them.

A) tropomyosin

B) sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) myofilaments

D) collagen fibers

Q4) Describe the nature and function of connective tissues.

Q5) Groups of cells of the same structure and function are organized into __________.

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Chapter 23: Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the single most effective action a person can take to help prevent atherosclerosis?

A) Eat a diet low in saturated fat.

B) Control high blood pressure.

C) Eat a diet low in cholesterol.

D) Stop smoking.

Q2) Exchange of nutrients and gases between tissue cells and the blood takes place through the walls of:

A) veins

B) arterioles

C) capillaries

D) venules

Q3) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.

Q4) Describe how arteries are adapted to carry high pressure blood.

Q5) How does the structure of lymphatic capillaries differ from that of capillaries of the circulatory system?

Q6) Once inside the lymphatic system,tissue fluid is called ______________.

Q7) Mollusks and arthropods have closed circulatory systems.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Respiration

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Q1) The structures of the vertebrate lung through which gases are exchanged with the blood are the:

A) pleural membranes

B) bronchioles

C) bronchi

D) alveoli

Q2) The __________,which acts as a brake on cell division,was discovered in studying the eye cancer retinoblastoma.

Q3) Which of the following possess gills?

A) Snails

B) Sea cucumber

C) Sea star

D) Guppies

E) All of the choices are correct.

Q4) In which animal is a countercurrent flow system used to acquire oxygen?

A) Birds

B) Lizards

C) Fish

D) Mammals

E) Whales

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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body

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Q1) All blood leaving the stomach and intestine goes to the ________.

A) heart

B) kidneys

C) liver

D) gallbladder

E) pancreas

Q2) Microvilli are present to increase the area available for absorption in the:

A) small intestine

B) large intestine

C) stomach

D) gallbladder

Q3) ______ is secreted by the pancreas to neutralize acid in chyme.

A) Hydrochloric acid

B) Bile

C) Chymotrypsin

D) Insulin

E) Bicarbonate

Q4) What is the purpose of the bicarbonate solution released by the pancreas into the small intestine?

Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment

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Q1) What is the waste product of fish?

A) Urea

B) Ammonia

C) Uric acid

D) Urine

Q2) Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas to lower high blood glucose levels?

A) Insulin

B) Glycogen

C) Glucagon

D) Adrenaline

E) Antidiruetic hormone

Q3) One major function of the kidneys is water conservation.What portion of the nephrons is responsible for that function when water is lacking in the diet?

A) Bowman's capsule

B) Glomerulus

C) Loop of Henle

D) Collecting duct

Q4) Marine mammals,like whales,do not drink seawater.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself

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Q1) Which immunoglobulin is the major form of antibody in blood plasma?

A) IgM

B) IgG

C) IgD

D) IgA

E) IgE

Q2) The self-identifying proteins on self body cells are called:

A) perforins

B) MHC proteins

C) plasma proteins

D) interleukin-1

E) interferons

Q3) The outermost layer of cells of the skin is the:

A) stratum corneum

B) stratum granulosum

C) stratum spinosum

D) stratum basale (basal layer)

Q4) The virus that causes AIDS is the _______________ virus.

Q5) Describe the role of macrophages in protecting the body against disease.

Q6) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.

Page 29

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Chapter 28: The Nervous System

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Q1) One division of the autonomic nervous system,called the ____________ nervous system,is active in times of stress.

Q2) The ____________ nervous system cannot be controlled by conscious thought.

A) motor

B) voluntary

C) autonomic

D) central

Q3) When the body wants to prolong or inhibit the transmission of an impulse from one neuron to the next,it often employs:

A) the electron transport chain

B) voltage end-gates

C) neuromodulators

D) electrical connections

Q4) The human brain's center for thought and association is the:

A) cerebellum

B) hypothalamus

C) thalamus

D) cerebrum

Q5) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.

Q6) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.

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Chapter 29: The Senses

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Q1) The type of light-detecting visual pigment complex found in rods is:

A) rhodopsin

B) carotene

C) acetylcholine

D) opsin

Q2) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.

A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye

B) optic nerve

C) fovea

D) parallax

Q3) Many fish have a ________________ system with hair cells that sense pressure waves.

Q4) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.

Q5) A lateral line system supplements the _______ sense of hearing.

A) fish's

B) bird's

C) snake's

D) whale's

E) shrew's

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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body

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Sample Questions

Q1) Parathyroid hormone acts to ensure:

A) sodium levels in urine are constant

B) potassium levels in the blood don't escalate

C) calcium levels in the blood never drop too low

D) amounts of water in the blood are sufficient

Q2) The posterior pituitary releases ____________ that stimulates uterine contractions.

Q3) An absolute deficiency in beta cells of the pancreas results in:

A) type I diabetes

B) type II diabetes

C) pancreatitis

D) excessive calcium in the blood

Q4) In this disease,the number of insulin receptors on target cells is abnormally low.

A) Goiter

B) Type II diabetes

C) Type I diabetes

D) Gallbladder disease

Q5) Peptide hormones employ ______________ that amplify the response of the cell.

Q6) ____________________ are peptide hormones derived from tyrosine and tryptophan.

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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The muscular ring at the base of the uterus is the ___________.

Q2) Which animal is an induced ovulator?

A) Humans

B) Apes

C) Dogs

D) Rabbits

Q3) Which of the following methods of birth control prevent embryo implantation in the uterine wall?

A) RU486

B) Condoms

C) Birth control pills

D) Diaphragm

E) Spermicidal foams or jellies

Q4) What stage of embryonic development implants in the lining of the uterus?

A) Blastocyst

B) Morula

C) Zygote

D) After the development of a coelom

Q5) What are the advantages of internal fertilization?

Q6) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?

Page 33

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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) In double fertilization,the second fertilization after fertilization of the egg occurs with the:

A) carpel

B) pollen

C) synergids

D) polar nuclei

Q2) What kinds of angiosperms have reverted to wind pollination?

A) Oaks

B) Grasses

C) Birches

D) All of these

Q3) Although many fruits are dispersed by animals,fruits like the coconut are dispersed by __________.

A) wind

B) water

C) bees

D) mosquitoes

E) butterflies

Q4) How do the seeds of angiosperms differ from those of gymnosperms?

Q5) The _________ are the most abundant type of seedless vascular plant.

Page 34

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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) What causes the annual rings we see in the wood of trees?

Q2) In plants with _______________,root hairs are less abundant because these fungal filaments take over their function for the plant.

A) lichens

B) branch roots

C) mycorrhizae

D) two pericycles

Q3) Most plants acquire minerals from:

A) rain

B) air

C) soil

D) digested insects

Q4) __________________ cells provide support for plant organs in which secondary growth has not yet occurred and are alive at maturity.

A) Parenchyma

B) Collenchyma

C) Sclerenchyma

D) Meristem

Q5) ____________ tissue is the outer protective covering of the plant.

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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ and ___________ give rise to all of the other cells of the adult plant.

A) phloem;xylem

B) shoot apical meristem;root apical meristem

C) vascular cambium;cork cambium

D) pericycle;bud primordia

E) bud primordial;leaf primordia

Q2) Male gametophytes are also known as _________________ and they develop into microspores.

A) embryo sac

B) megaspore

C) pollen grains

D) anthers

Q3) This hormone,in combination with auxin,stimulates cell division in plants and determines the course of differentiation.

A) Abscisic acid

B) Cytokinin

C) Auxin

D) Gibberellin

E) Ethylene

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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities

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Sample Questions

Q1) ______________ occurs when one organism physically resembles another.

Q2) Lice and their relationship with mammals is an example of what type of relationship?

A) Parasitism

B) Commensalism

C) Mutualism

D) Predator-prey relationship

Q3) ______________ serves to narrow niche breadth.

A) Competition

B) Predation

C) Symbiosis

D) Commensalism

Q4) The principle of competitive exclusion states that no two species with the same niche can coexist indefinitely when resources are limiting.

A)True

B)False

Q5) A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is called ___________.

Q6) The ________________ of a habitat is the number of individuals the habitat has the resources to support indefinitely.

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Chapter 36: Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Certain bacteria are capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into a form other organisms can use through a process known as:

A) combustion

B) nitrogen oxidation

C) nitrogen fixation

D) nitrogen reduction

Q2) All the deserts of the world occur at 65° latitude.

A)True

B)False

Q3) _______ is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperatures in the eastern Pacific.

Q4) Microscopic organisms floating on the surface of the ocean make up the ___________________.

Q5) Choose the best definition of the term "ecology."

A) Ecology is the study of animals in their habitat.

B) Ecology is the study of plants and animals in their ecosystems.

C) Ecology is the study of communities of organisms.

D) Ecology is the study of interactions of organisms with each other and with their habitat.

Q6) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four links?

Page 38

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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ample evidence suggests that all animals respond to their environment through instinct and simple innately programmed learning and do not display cognitive behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Selection that favors altruism directed towards relatives is referred to as

Q3) When green sea turtles travel over 1400 miles of open ocean to the Ascension Island,they are exhibiting:

A) map sense

B) compass sense

C) timely sense

D) direction sense

E) No one knows exactly how they do this.

Q4) Infants born blind will not smile or frown because they have never seen anyone exhibit these expressions.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss the benefits of mate choice.

Q6) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.

Page 39

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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which factor is contributing to the worldwide decline in amphibians?

A) Habitat deterioration

B) Fatal infections

C) Introduction of exotic species

D) Chemical pollutants that are toxic

E) All of these are contributing factors.

Q2) Ten thousand years ago,when human populations began growing in number,the main reason was:

A) access to better medicine

B) a warming climate

C) extinction of large predators

D) the advent of agriculture

Q3) Global warming is predicted to have an effect on all of the following except:

A) rainfall patterns

B) human reproduction

C) agriculture

D) sea levels

Q4) List five ways that you plan to alter your behavior to help solve environmental problems.

Q5) Water deep within underground aquifers is called ______________.

Page 40

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