General Biology Review Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of life science, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers key topics such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, providing a comprehensive overview of how living systems operate and interact with their environments. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain an understanding of scientific inquiry, the roles of molecules and energy in biological processes, and the mechanisms governing heredity and adaptation. This foundational course is designed to prepare students for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ your hypothesis, predictions, or test according to the results.
A)tests
B)communicate
C)accept, reject, or modify
D)observe
E)analyze
F)hypothesis
G)predictions
Answer: C
Q2) Some questions fall outside the realm of science. Which of the following questions could NOT be answered using the scientific method?
A)What is the function of the appendix in human beings?
B)Why is it unethical to test newly developed drugs in animals?
C)Why do smokers develop lung cancer more frequently than nonsmokers?
D)Why is it so difficult to quit smoking?
Answer: B
Q3) The first two steps of the scientific process typically include making ________ and forming a ________.
Answer: observations; hypothesis
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are four major classes of macromolecules that are found in living systems and each uses a carbon skeleton as its structural backbone. Why is carbon regularly assembled to make important biological molecules?
Answer: All of the major biological molecules (macromolecules) of living systems are organic molecules. As such, these molecules are formed using a carbon skeleton. This element is a central player because its small size and need for four covalent bonds. Carbon readily participates in covalent bonding with other carbon atoms, forming single, double, and triple bonds. Carbon-carbon bonds may also branch or form rings. The carbon-carbon bond is also quite stable, which ensures the integrity of biological molecules in living systems.
Q2) Molecules with an uneven distribution of charge are described as ________.
Answer: polar
Q3) How many atoms are present in a single molecule of C H N O ?
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately describes a selectively permeable membrane?
A)Solutes are never able to cross the membrane.
B)Large molecules are always excluded from crossing the membrane.
C)Substances can only pass through the membrane with the help of either active or passive transport proteins.
D)Certain solutes move freely across the membrane by simple diffusion while others must be helped across by active or passive transport proteins; some substances are completely excluded from crossing the membrane.
Answer: D
Q2) A factory with an office that controls the information sent to separate rooms for each of the manufacturing and shipping processes would be analogous to A)a virus.
B)a prokaryotic cell with a nucleus.
C)a prokaryotic cell without a nucleus.
D)a eukaryotic cell with a nucleus.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) used by animal cells
Q2) What would occur if the mitochondria of a cell did not produce an inner membrane?
A)The mitochondria would be unable to maintain the proton gradient required for ATP production.
B)The mitochondria would be unable to capture ATP from the sun.
C)The mitochondria would be unable to perform the Krebs cycle.
D)The mitochondria would be unable to perform glycolysis.
Q3) The Krebs cycle produces
A)NADH, ATP, and FADH2.
B)water and carbon dioxide.
C)ADP and NADP+.
D)acetyl CoA and sugars.
Q4) The capture and use of energy by living organisms involves numerous chemical reactions. Collectively these processes are known as
A)metabolism.
B)respiration.
C)anabolic reactions.
D)catabolic reactions.
Q5) produces sugars
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some daughter cells are described as clones. For this description to be appropriate, the daughter cells must
A)show the same differentiation characteristics as the parent cell.
B)separate from one another and experience an independent existence.
C)contain a set of DNA that is identical to that of the parent cell.
D)have been produced by meiotic cell division.
Q2) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the ________ portion of cell division.
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)interphase
D)telophase
Q3) Which of the following pairs of processes encompasses the entire cell cycle?
A)G phase and mitosis
B)G phase and G phase
C)interphase and metaphase
D)cell division and interphase
Q4) What is the purpose of having cell cycle checkpoints? What are the consequences of not having them?
Q5) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ phase of the cell cycle.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent with curly hair and a parent with straight hair produce a child with wavy hair.
A)incomplete dominance
B)epistasis
C)polygenic
D)pleiotropy
E)codominance
F)Mendelian trait
Q2) A Punnett square is used to
A)determine the source of new alleles.
B)determine how many genes control a given trait.
C)predict the gametes that will be produced by an organism.
D)predict the outcome of a genetic cross.
Q3) Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment both have their biological basis in events that take place during
A)chromosome formation.
B)mutation.
C)mitosis.
D)meiosis.
Q4) Differentiate between pleiotropy and polygenic traits.
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) On chromosomes within an individual, there are ________ alleles for a given gene found on ________ chromosomes.
A)two; homologous
B)four; maternal C)four; paternal D)two; Y
Q2) One chromosomal abnormality that is usually fatal is A)a mutation in a gene.
B)an exchange of material between homologous chromosomes. C)extra copies of sex chromosomes.
D)the addition of an extra autosomal chromosome.
Q3) Which of the following genotypes represents a human male?
A)XY
B)YY
C)XX
D)XO
Q4) A man with a translocation in a chromosome that does not affect gene function may not realize he has a translocation until he attempts to have a child. Explain how a translocation that does not affect the individual may become problematic during reproduction.
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a base found in DNA?
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)guanine
D)uracil
Q2) How many phosphate groups are present in a single strand of DNA?
A)the same number as there are adenine bases
B)the same number as there are adenine + thymine bases
C)the same number as there are guanine + cytosine bases
D)the same number as there are adenine + thymine + guanine + cytosine bases
Q3) Being in the sun for short stretches of time is not as likely to cause mutations as is being in the sun for long stretches of time. Explain why longer exposure to UV is more likely to cause mutations.
Q4) A chemical that disrupts hydrogen bonds is added to a test tube containing DNA. What would be the result of this reaction?
Q5) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
Q6) A scientist adds a single polymerase and primer to a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) but does not add nucleotides. How many strands would be present after three replications if a single original strand was present? Explain your answer.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) A human gene put into a plant cell will
A)not produce a protein.
B)produce a plant protein.
C)produce the same protein produced in a human cell.
D)produce a hybrid protein consisting of both human and plant components.
Q2) Consider a build-at-home bookshelf that comes with instructions and various pieces of wood as an analogy for translation. In this analogy, what would best match the job of the ribosome?
A)the instructions
B)the person building the bookshelf
C)the pieces of wood
D)the bookshelf
Q3) In humans, the herbicide atrazine helps RNA polymerase bind to the promoter of the gene for the enzyme aromatase. As a result,
A)more RNA for aromatase is produced.
B)less RNA for aromatase is produced.
C)the production of aromatase is inhibited.
D)aromatase is degraded by other enzymes in the cell.
Q4) The genetic code is ________, which means that all cells use the same code.
Q5) The process of using an RNA template to make proteins is called ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dolphin embryos have both forelimbs, which will become the flippers, and hind limbs, which will not develop. Explain how this supports the conclusion that dolphins are related to humans.
Q2) Cultivation of corn over thousands of years has resulted in a modern corncob that looks very different from the tiny ancestral cob. Does this support the concept of evolution?
A)No. The change in corn was accidental and does not demonstrate the process of evolution.
B)Yes. The change in corn is an example of natural selection and demonstrates the process of evolution.
C)No. Artificial selection is driven by humans rather than natural selection and does not demonstrate what occurs in the wild.
D)Yes. Artificial selection demonstrates that evolution can occur, even though the driving force was humans rather than natural selection.
Q3) The human appendix is an example of a(n) ________ structure.
Q4) A fossil is found in Africa and South America, but nowhere else in the world. What does this tell us about this organism?
Q5) The preserved remains of formerly living organisms are called ________.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) How do natural selection and sexual selection differ?
A)Natural selection increases the frequency of alleles that contribute to survival, but sexual selection may increase the frequency of alleles that are not beneficial to survival.
B)Natural selection contributes to genetic drift, but sexual selection contributes to gene flow.
C)Natural selection is more random than sexual selection.
D)Natural selection increases the fitness of an allele, but sexual selection increases the dimorphism of an allele.
Q2) The result of convergent evolution is ________ traits.
Q3) A population of 8,250 mice occupies the sand dunes in a coastal area. A severe hurricane washes out several miles of sand dunes. As a result, only 50 mice remain. The population has experienced
A)horizontal gene transfer.
B)gene flow.
C)founder effect.
D)a bottleneck.
Q4) The only mechanism of evolutionary change that is not influenced by chance events is ________.
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of speciation?
A)two populations of sea urchins in the same territory, which are physically unable to mate
B)two populations of small rodents that look similar but have genetic differences
C)two populations of morphologically distinct lizards that lack differences in DNA sequences
D)two populations of butterflies that live in the same area but breed in different seasons
Q2) Based on the ________ species concept, organisms that breed asexually are most likely classified as species.
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be expected after a population undergoes geographic isolation?
A)a decrease in gene flow
B)an increase in gene flow
C)allopatric speciation
D)formation of adaptive traits
Q4) Two species live near each other but do not respond to each other's courtship displays. This is an example of ________ isolation, a type of prezygotic barrier.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monotremes, like the duck-billed platypus, are egg-laying mammals (oviparous), covered in hair, have mammary and skin glands, three ear ossicles, are diphyodont (their permanent teeth replace their "baby" teeth), and possess dentary-squamosal jaw articulation (the jaw bone hinges with the squamosal bone of the skull). Marsupials, such as kangaroos and koalas, are pouched mammals that have a vertical tympanic membrane in addition to being covered in hair, have mammary and skin glands, three ear ossicles, are diphyodont, and possess dentary-squamosal jaw articulation. Eutherians are the placental mammals that most people easily recognize as mammals. They are covered in hair, have mammary and skin glands, three ear ossicles, are diphyodont, possess dentary-squamosal jaw articulation, and have a vertical tympanic membrane. What traits are shared derived traits for monotremes, marsupials, and eutherians?
A)mammary and skin glands, three ear ossicles, diphyodont, dentary-squamosal jaw articulation
B)vertical tympanic membrane, three ear ossicles, diphyodont, dentary-squamosal jaw articulation
C)three ear ossicles, diphyodont, dentary-squamosal jaw articulation, egg-laying
D)vertical tympanic membrane, three ear ossicles, diphyodont, placenta
Q2) In an evolutionary tree, a given ancestor and all its descendants make up a ________, or branch.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the source of your mitochondrial DNA?
A)All of my mitochondrial DNA was inherited from my mother.
B)All of my mitochondrial DNA was inherited from my father.
C)Half of my mitochondrial DNA was inherited from my mother and half from my father.
D)Seventy-five percent of my mitochondrial DNA was inherited from my mother and 25 percent was inherited from my father.
Q2) It is possible that modern humans may have comingled with which of these other ancestors?
A)Homo neanderthalensis, Homo heidelbergensis, and Homo floresiensis
B)Homo neanderthalensis, Paranthropus aetheopicus, and Australopithecus africanus
C)Homo heidelbergensis, Homo floresiensis, and Australopithecus africanus
D)Homo heidelbergensis, Paranthropus aetheopicus, and Australopithecus africanus
Q3) Which of the following could NOT be used to describe humans?
A)eutherian
B)mammal
C)primate
D)marsupial
Q4) Briefly explain the difference between hominids and hominins.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparison to past estimates, extinction rates are currently high. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation?
A)Natural fluctuations in climate causes extinctions.
B)Continental drift is causing rapid changes in climate, which, in turn, causes extinctions.
C)Previous extinctions make survival of contemporary species more difficult.
D)Humans are affecting many aspects of the global environment.
Q2) Which study below focuses on the biosphere?
A)a study measuring how introducing wolves into an area affects the deer population
B)a study measuring how building a dam affects plants and animal populations in an area
C)a study measuring how human habitation has changed then population size of caribou in a decade
D)a study measuring how acidification of the oceans affects aquatic and terrestrial organisms
Q3) Describe how both biotic and abiotic factors can affect the population size of deer in a forest.
Q4) Describe how burning fossil fuels can warm the planet.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The maximum population size that can be supported by its habitat is known as A)maximum increase.
B)carrying capacity.
C)exponential growth.
D)population balance.
Q2) The carrying capacity of owls in an Alaskan forest is seven per square kilometer. What will happen if twelve owls are confined to a 1-square-kilometer area?
A)The owls will survive together and develop ways to share resources.
B)The owls might survive but the population size in the future will most likely be close to seven.
C)The population of owl prey organisms will increase proportionately to support a larger population of owls.
D)A short-term exponential growth of owls will occur because more mating pairs will form.
Q3) The size of a population can be decreased by A)a higher birth rate.
B)immigration.
C)emigration.
D)a reduced death rate.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) A(n) ________ may begin when a new habitat is formed, such as when rock and soil are deposited by a retreating glacier.
Q2) Which of the following choices best explains, from an ecological perspective, why there are laws that require a wildlife survey before certain building or other land-use projects may proceed?
A)If a keystone species is found, it can be moved to another area where it will establish a new community of organisms.
B)If the only local habitat for a keystone species is disturbed, the entire community of populations will be affected.
C)If the species are surveyed before the land is used, they will all be more likely to survive the building project.
D)If the species are surveyed before the land is used, they will all be more easily distributed to other habitats.
Q3) An ecological ________ is an association of populations of different species that live in the same area.
Q4) The general process by which species in a community are replaced over time is called ________.
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19
Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) All of the living organisms present in an ecosystem comprise the ________ or biotic portion of the ecosystem.
A)community
B)abiotic
C)population
D)biome
Q2) What would happen to nutrient cycling in a forest ecosystem if all of the bacteria, protozoans, fungi, and worms were eliminated?
A)Dead plant and animal matter would accumulate more quickly than it is decomposed, and the soil would become depleted of nutrients.
B)Dead plant and animal matter would decay more rapidly than it is decomposed, and the soil would accumulate nutrients at a faster rate.
C)There would be no discernable change in the rate at which dead plants and animals decompose and no change in the rate of nutrient accumulation in the soil.
D)Dead plant and animal matter would accumulate more quickly than it is decomposed, and the soil would accumulate nutrients at a faster rate.
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Chapter 19: Homeostasis, Reproduction, and Development
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Q1) Compare and contrast the process of gamete formation in human males versus human females.
Q2) The ________ is the site of ovum fertilization in human females.
Q3) In humans, sperm that is deposited within the vaginal tract eventually reaches an egg in the oviduct. This process, which is common to land animals, is called ________ fertilization.
Q4) Which of the following forms of contraception is LEAST likely to prevent a woman from becoming pregnant?
A)an intrauterine device
B)birth control pills
C)a male condom
D)a diaphragm
Q5) Which of the following would be found in the oviduct immediately after fertilization?
A)an embryo
B)an ovum
C)a zygote
D)a spermatocyte
Q6) In human males, spermatogenesis occurs in the ________.
Q7) Explain how the hormone oxytocin plays a role in the progression of labor.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Digestive, Muscular, and Skeletal Systems
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Q1) vitamin K
A)Deficiency of this vitamin reduces calcium absorption and leads to poor formation of bones and teeth.
B)This vitamin is used to produce visual pigments in the eyes.
C)This vitamin protects lipids in cell membranes.
D)Deficiency of this vitamin leads to scurvy.
E)Deficiency of this vitamin affects the ability to control bleeding.
Q2) Of the four classes of organic compounds that are found in organisms, ________ are capable of storing the most energy.
Q3) One of the advantages of the villi that line the small intestine is that they
A)decrease the surface area available for food absorption.
B)increase the speed at which vitamins are broken down.
C)increase the amount of mechanical breakdown that occurs.
D)increase the surface area available for food absorption.
Q4) Muscle contraction is caused by
A)movement of bones that anchor the muscles.
B)sarcomeres moving along other sarcomeres.
C)myosin filaments sliding along actin filaments.
D)contraction of actin and myosin filaments.
Q5) Explain why dietary fiber is important in a human's diet.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Circulatory, Respiratory, Urinary, and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Describe two ways in which the structure of capillaries allows gas exchange.
Q2) Which of the following things happens during inhalation?
A)Oxygen-rich air enters the alveoli.
B)Lung volume decreases.
C)Pressure in the lungs remains constant.
D)The diaphragm relaxes.
Q3) The concentration of oxygen in blood plasma near an alveolus is lowered when
A)nearby red blood cells release carbon dioxide.
B)oxygen diffuses into red blood cells and binds to hemoglobin.
C)carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveolus.
D)oxygen diffuses into the alveolus.
Q4) Which of the following functions occurs in the urinary bladder but NOT in nephrons?
A)urine storage
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)reabsorption
Q5) People who experience chronic pain might argue that they would be better off without pain receptors. Explain why it is important for humans to have pain receptors.
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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Immune Systems
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Q1) molecules secreted by immune cells for initiation and regulation of immune responses
A)macrophages
B)mucous membranes
C)cytokines
D)B cells
E)lymph nodes
F)platelets
Q2) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced by the pituitary gland when the brain detects lower-than-optimum levels of water in the body. In the kidneys, ADH promotes the uptake of water, creating more concentrated urine. ADH travels from the pituitary gland to the kidneys through the
A)nervous system.
B)circulatory system.
C)endocrine system.
D)digestive system.
Q3) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ________ system.
Q4) In hormonal signaling, are target cells typically close to or far away from endocrine cells? Explain your answer.
Q5) Upon first exposure to a pathogen, a ________ immune response is triggered.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Plant Physiology
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Q1) Plants generally require having approximately the same size root system as the size of the shoot system. The hormones auxin and cytokinin work together to balance the root-to-shoot ratio in plants. Identify where each of these hormones is produced (in the root or in the shoot) and how they function to maintain this balance.
Q2) Plant growth aboveground can be accomplished by adding new A)leaf units.
B)bud units.
C)stem units.
D)bud-stem-leaf units.
Q3) A plant's physiological response to day length is called ________.
Q4) stomata
A)This structure transports water.
B)This structure transports sugars.
C)This structure controls gas exchange.
D)This structure is a protective outer covering.
E)This structure conducts photosynthesis.
Q5) Contrast how the growth patterns of plants and animals help each type of organism respond to predators.
Q6) Compare and contrast the products of meiosis in plants and in animals.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Applying the Science
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Q1) National Geographic, a popular magazine about science and the world A)primary B)secondary
Q2) Scientists working for a major cosmetics company are attempting to determine if a new face cream can reduce the number of fine lines and wrinkles on a person's face. This is an example of A)applied research. B)basic research. C)meta-analysis. D)cohort study.
Q3) Discover, a popular magazine about science A)primary
B)secondary
Q4) A large biotech company would like to market a microbe that will help clean up oil spills in the ocean by actually consuming and detoxifying the oil. Would this research be "basic" or "applied"? Explain your answer.
Q5) A statement about how the world works that can be supported, or not, by using the scientific method is a(n) ________ claim.
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