General Biology Question Bank - 5383 Verified Questions

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Course Introduction

General Biology Question

Bank

General Biology provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of the biological sciences, covering the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore the mechanisms that govern living organisms, from molecular processes within cells to the interactions of organisms within ecosystems. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, this course emphasizes scientific reasoning, experimentation, and the application of biological concepts to real-world issues such as health, conservation, and biotechnology.

Recommended Textbook

Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece

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56 Chapters

5383 Verified Questions

5383 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are cilia described as an example of unity underlying the diversity of life?

A)Cilia are cells that function in locomotion.

B)Humans and Paramecium both share the same architecture of their cilia.

C)Cilia have an elaborate system of tubules.

D)Cilia provide motility to all the cells on which they reside.

E)Imprints of cilia have been found in the fossilized remains of prokaryotes.

Answer: B

Q2) What is the logic above an example of?

A)inductive reasoning

B)deductive reasoning

C)making a prediction

D)collecting data

E)poor science

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following do humans and roses have in common?

A)Both are multicellular.

B)Both lack a membrane-bound nucleus inside their cells.

C)Both are prokaryotic.

D)Humans and roses have nothing in common.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) A covalent chemical bond is one in which

A)electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged.

B)protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms.

C)outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms.

D)outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom.

E)an electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms.

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following molecules contains the most polar covalent bond?

A)H

B)O

C)CO

D)H O

E)CH

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Water and Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?

A)Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.

B)A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

C)Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.

D)Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating.

E)Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.

Answer: B

Q2) You have a freshly prepared 1 M solution of glucose in water.You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that solution.How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample?

A)6)02 × 10²³

B)3)01 × 10²³

C)6)02 × 10²

D)12.04 × 10²³

E)6)02 × 10²²

Answer: E

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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Organic chemistry is currently defined as

A)the study of compounds made only by living cells.

B)the study of carbon compounds.

C)the study of vital forces.

D)the study of natural (as opposed to synthetic)compounds.

E)the study of hydrocarbons.

Q2) Which of the structures illustrated above is an impossible covalently bonded molecule?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q3) The second molecule is hydrophobic and has acidic properties.It most likely has A)no functional groups attached and is a hydrocarbon.

B)at least one carboxyl group.

C)at least one amino group.

D)at least one carbonyl group.

E)phosphates.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological

Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following descriptors is true of the molecule shown in the above figure?

A)hexose

B)fructose

C)glucose

D)hexose and fructose only

E)hexose and glucose only

Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in the figure above?

A)It is a saturated fatty acid.

B)A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.

C)Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

D)It is a saturated fatty acid and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.

E)It is a saturated fatty acid, a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis, and molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) Signals between the ECM and the cytoskeleton may be transmitted by

A)fibronectin.

B)proteoglycans.

C)integrins.

D)collagen.

E)middle lamella.

Q2) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs.Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?

A)rough ER

B)smooth ER

C)Golgi apparatus

D)nuclear envelope

E)transport vesicles

Q3) What is the function of the structure labelled E?

A)respiration

B)photosynthesis

C)maintain cell pressure

D)contain DNA

E)synthesize lipids

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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that

A)pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the cell, but receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well.

B)pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area.

C)pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity.

D)pinocytosis requires cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not.

E)pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot.

Q2) What is the force driving simple diffusion and energy source for active transport,respectively?

A)the concentration gradient; ADP

B)the concentration gradient; ATP

C)transmembrane pumps; electron transport

D)phosphorylated protein carriers; ATP

E)proton gradient; ADP

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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following contributes to the instability of ATP?

A)demand by the cell to use phosphate in other chemical reactions

B)insolubility of adenine in water

C)weak ionic bond

D)weak covalent bond

E)repulsion between phosphate groups

Q2) Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

A)Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.

B)It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.

C)Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases free energy.

D)Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two.

E)It is one of the four building blocks for DNA synthesis.

Q3) Although unlikely,if your fever exceeded 41 C what might be a consequence?

A)destruction of your enzymes' primary structure

B)removal of amine groups from your proteins

C)change in the tertiary structure of your enzymes

D)removal of the amino acids in active sites of your enzymes

E)binding of your enzymes to inappropriate substrates

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O)is present or absent?

A)electron transport

B)glycolysis

C)the citric acid cycle

D)oxidative phosphorylation

E)chemiosmosis

Q2) Which of the following best describes the proton-motive force?

A)a higher concentration of protons in the intermembrane space compared to the mitochondrial matrix

B)a higher concentration of protons in the mitochondrial matrix compared to the intermembrane space

C)a higher concentration of protons in the cytosol compared to the mitochondrial matrix

D)a higher concentration of hydrogen atoms in the intermembrane space compared to the mitochondrial matrix

E)a lower pH inside the mitochondrial matrix compare to the cytosol

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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) What wavelength of light in the figure is most effective in driving photosynthesis?

A)420 mm

B)475 mm

C)575 mm

D)625 mm

E)730 mm

Q2) When do plants respire?

A)in the dark only.

B)in the light only.

C)both in light and dark.

D)never-they get their ATP from photophosphorylation.

E)only when excessive light energy induces photorespiration.

Q3) In a plant cell,where are the ATP synthase complexes located?

A)thylakoid membrane only

B)plasma membrane only

C)inner mitochondrial membrane only

D)thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane

E)thylakoid membrane and plasma membrane

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Chapter 11: Cell Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) The toxin of Vibrio cholerae causes profuse diarrhea because it

A)modifies a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion.

B)decreases the cytosolic concentration of calcium ions, making the cells hypotonic.

C)binds with adenylyl cyclase and triggers the formation of cAMP.

D)signals IP to act as a second messenger for the release of calcium.

E)modifies calmodulin and activates a cascade of protein kinases.

Q2) Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?

A)G protein-coupled receptor signalling

B)ligand-gated ion channel signalling

C)adenylyl cyclase activity

D)phosphatase activity

E)receptor tyrosine kinase activity

Q3) Where would you expect to find the carboxyl end?

A)at the exterior surface

B)at the cytosol surface

C)connected with the loop at H5 and H6

D)between the membrane layers

E)there is no carboxyl end in proteins

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Page 13

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?

A)PDGF

B)MPF

C)protein kinase

D)cyclin

E)Cdk

Q2) What is the most probable hypothesis about these intermediate forms of cell division?

A)They represent a form of cell reproduction that must have evolved completely separately from those of other organisms.

B)They demonstrate that these species are not closely related to any of the other protists and may well be a different kingdom.

C)They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo.

D)They may be more closely related to plant forms that also have unusual mitosis.

E)They show some but not all of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis.

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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles

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Sample Questions

Q1) A certain gene found in a diploid species is known to have 18 alleles (variants).Any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?

A)2 alleles for that gene

B)up to 18 chromosomes with that gene

C)up to 18 genes for that trait

D)a haploid number of 9 chromosomes

E)up to, but not more than, 18 different traits

Q2) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.

A)II

B)III

C)IV

D)V

E)VII

Q3) Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present.

A)I only

B)I and IV only

C)I and VIII only

D)II and VI only

E)I, II, III, and IV only

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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc,assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment.What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?

A)1/4

B)1/8

C)3/4

D)3/8

E)1

Q2) In cattle,roan coat colour (mixed red and white hairs)occurs in the heterozygous (Rr)offspring of red (RR)and white (rr)homozygotes.Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?

A)red × white

B)roan × roan

C)white × roan

D)red × roan

E)The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) The phenotype most commonly observed in a natural population is the

A)wild type.

B)parental type.

C)recombinant type.

D)Z-W system.

E)F1.

Q2) Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for electron transport.Therefore,in which body systems would you expect most mitochondrial gene mutations to be exhibited?

A)the immune system and the blood

B)the excretory and respiratory systems

C)the skin and senses

D)the nervous and muscular systems

E)the circulation system

Q3) A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to whom?

A)all of his daughters

B)half of his daughters

C)half of his sons

D)all of his sons

E)all of his children

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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed,Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions?

A)Replication is semi-conservative.

B)Replication is not dispersive.

C)Replication is not semi-conservative.

D)Replication is not conservative.

E)Replication is neither dispersive nor conservative.

Q2) In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice,Griffith found that A)the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells.

B)heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.

C)some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.

D)the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia.

E)bacteriophages injected DNA into bacteria.

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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?

A)to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER

B)to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription

C)to terminate translation of the messenger RNA

D)to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane

E)to signal the initiation of transcription

Q2) What is the mechanism of information transfer from DNA to protein synthesis in eukaryotes?

A)DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis.

B)Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene, and the mRNA transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.

C)Proteins transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.

D)Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.

E)DNA is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, translated to mRNA, which then serves as a template for protein synthesis.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression

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Sample Questions

Q1) Within a cell,the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on

A)the degree of DNA methylation.

B)the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.

C)the presence of certain transcription factors.

D)the number of introns present in the mRNA.

E)the types of ribosomes present in the cytoplasm.

Q2) Most repressor proteins are allosteric.Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation?

A)inducer

B)promoter

C)RNA polymerase

D)transcription factor

E)cAMP

Q3) What does D represent?

A)promoter sequences

B)exons

C)introns

D)transcription factors

E)mRNA

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Chapter 19: Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because

A)host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.

B)host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.

C)these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.

D)these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.

E)these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.

Q2) Which treatment would you use to determine if the agent is a prion?

A)I only

B)II only

C)III only

D)IV only

E)either I or IV

Q3) In a cell-free system,what other components would you have to provide for this virus to express its genes?

A)ribosomes, tRNAs and amino acids

B)ribosomes, tRNAs, amino acids, and GTP

C)RNA nucleotides and GTP

D)RNA nucleotides, RNA polymerase, and GTP

E)bean cell enzymes

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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure above?

A)ligase

B)transcriptase

C)a restriction enzyme

D)RNA polymerase

E)DNA polymerase

Q2) Genetically engineered plants

A)are more difficult to engineer than animals.

B)include a transgenic rice plant that can grow in water three times as salty as seawater.

C)are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.

D)are able to fix nitrogen themselves.

E)are banned throughout the world.

Q3) Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?

A)the nutrient broth only

B)the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth

C)the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth

D)the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth

E)all three broths

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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a representation of gene density?

A)Humans have 2900 Mb per genome.

B)C) elegans has ~20 000 genes.

C)Humans have ~20 000 genes in 2900 Mb.

D)Humans have 27 000 bp in introns.

E)Fritillaria has a genome 40 times the size of a human.

Q2) Approximately how many bacterial genomes are in the process of being sequenced?

A)10

B)100

C)2 000

D)5 000

E)15 000

Q3) Why might the cricket genome have 11 times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila melanogaster?

A)The two insect species evolved at very different geologic eras.

B)Crickets have higher gene density.

C)Drosophila are more complex organisms.

D)Crickets must have more noncoding DNA.

E)Crickets must make many more proteins.

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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be A)theories.

B)hypotheses.

C)guesses.

D)dogmas.

E)facts.

Q2) The cow Bos primigenius (which is bred for meat and milk)has a smaller brain and larger eyes than closely related wild species of ungulates.These traits most likely arose by

A)natural selection, because these traits evolved in the population over time.

B)natural selection, because these traits were not consciously selected by humans.

C)artificial selection, because changes in these traits co-occurred with human selection for high milk output and high muscle content.

D)artificial selection, because these animals differ from their close relatives and common ancestor.

E)artificial selection outcompeting natural selection.

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24

Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a fitness trade-off (compromise)?

A)In some hornbill species, the male helps seal the female in a tree with her nest until the young are ready to fledge.

B)Hummingbirds are the best pollinators of certain flowers, but bees are the best pollinators for orchids.

C)The strong, thick beak of a woodpecker helps it find insects in trees.

D)Turtle shells provide protection but are heavy and burdensome when moving.

E)Fruit bats are better pollinators of native fruit trees than birds are.

Q2) There are those who claim that the theory of evolution cannot be true because the apes,which are supposed to be closely related to humans,do not likewise share the same large brains,capacity for complicated speech,and tool-making capability.They reason that if these features are generally beneficial,then the apes should have evolved them as well.Which of these provides the best argument against this misconception?

A)Advantageous alleles do not arise on demand.

B)A population's evolution is limited by historical constraints.

C)Adaptations are often compromises.

D)Evolution can be influenced by environmental change.

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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species

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Q1) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum)and one-seeded juniper (J.monosperma)have overlapping ranges.If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells)from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells)of the other species,then which of these terms are applicable?

1)sympatric species

2)prezygotic isolation

3)postzygotic isolation

4)allopatric species

5)habitat isolation

6)reduced hybrid fertility

A)1 and 2

B)2 and 4

C)1, 3, and 6

D)2, 4, and 5

E)1, 2, 5, and 6

Q2) Which species is most closely related to species W?

A)V is most closely related to species W.

B)X is most closely related to species W.

C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.

D)It is not possible to say from this tree.

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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth

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Sample Questions

Q1) The loss of ventral spines by modern freshwater sticklebacks is due to natural selection operating on the phenotypic effects of Pitx1 gene

A)duplication (gain in number).

B)elimination (loss).

C)mutation (change).

D)silencing (loss of expression).

Q2) If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5730 years,then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?

A)1400

B)2800

C)11 200

D)16 800

E)22 900

Q3) The snowball Earth hypothesis provides a possible explanation for the A)diversification of animals during the late Proterozoic era.

B)oxygenation of Earth's seas and atmosphere.

C)colonization of land by plants and fungi.

D)origin of oxygen-releasing photosynthesis.

E)existence of prokaryotes around hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor.

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which kingdom has been replaced with two domains?

A)Plantae

B)Fungi

C)Animalia

D)Protista

E)Monera

Q2) If it turns out that the whale lineage diverged from the lineage leading to hippos after the divergence of the lineage leading to the pigs and other artiodactyls,and if the whales continue to be classified in the order Cetacea,then what becomes true of the taxon Cetartiodactyla?

A)It should be considered as one monophyletic order.

B)It should be considered a superorder that consists of two monophyletic orders.

C)It should be established as a paraphyletic order.

D)It should be thrown out or modified by taxonomists if classification is to reflect evolutionary history.

Q3) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

A)orthologous genes - speciation with divergence of genes

B)paralogous genes - gene duplication and divergence

C)orthologous and paralogous genes - both lead to speciation

D)paralogous genes - divergence within a species

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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea

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Sample Questions

Q1) Plantlike photosynthesis that releases O occurs in A)cyanobacteria.

B)chlamydias.

C)archaea.

D)actinomycetes.

E)chemoautotrophic bacteria.

Q2) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs.These two groups differ in ________.

A)their sources of energy

B)their electron acceptors

C)their mode of nutrition

D)the way that they generate ATP

Q3) If the vertical axis of the above figure refers to "Darwinian fitness," then which of the following is the most valid and accurate measure of fitness?

A)number of daughter cells produced per mother cell per generation

B)amount of ATP generated per cell per unit time

C)average swimming speed of cells through the growth medium

D)amount of glucose synthesized per unit time

E)number of generations per unit time

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Protists

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Sample Questions

Q1) The primary treatment for giardiasis (infection with Giardia),as well as for trichomoniasis (infection with Trichomonas vaginalis)and for amoebic dysentery (infection with Entamoeba histolytica),is a drug marketed as Flagyl (generic name is metronidazole).The drug also kills anaerobic gut bacteria.Consequently,which of these are cues that Flagyl's mode of action has nothing to do with attacking or disabling the parasites' flagella,as the drug's name might imply?

1)It would also harm the flagellated lining of the human intestine.

2)Entamoeba possesses pseudopods,not flagella,yet it is killed by Flagyl.

3)Prokaryotic flagella and eukaryotic flagella are radically different from each other and unlikely to be harmed by the same chemical.

4)Not all anaerobic gut bacteria possess flagella,yet it kills these bacteria.

A)1 and 2

B)1 and 3

C)2 and 3

D)1, 2, and 4

E)2, 3, and 4

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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land

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Q1) Which of the following structures are in the gametophyte generation of a moss?

A)buds, leaves, spores, rhizoids

B)egg, sperm, zygote, sporangium

C)antheridia, archegonia, egg, sperm

D)foot, seta, spores, sporangium

Q2) When discovered in peatlands,"bog bodies" tend to be well preserved.The best explanation is that

A)peat moss is a soil conditioner and pads the bodies so they do not break apart.

B)the low temperature, pH, and oxygen level of peatlands slow down/inhibit the decomposition process.

C)peat moss is made up of partially decayed organic matter and animal and plant bodies are organic.

D)the nitrogen fixing bacteria found in peat moss helps preserve the moss and other organisms.

Q3) What is true about the genus Sphagnum?

A)It is an economically important liverwort.

B)It grows in extensive mats in grassland areas.

C)It accumulates to form coal and is burned as a fuel.

D)It is an important carbon sink, reducing atmospheric carbon dioxide.

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants

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Q1) What is the greatest threat to plant diversity?

A)insects

B)grazing and browsing by animals

C)pathogenic fungi

D)competition with other plants

E)human population growth

Q2) If all agoutis were permanently removed from the rain forest,what would be the result?

A)swift extinction of harpy eagles

B)eventual extinction of Brazil nut trees

C)eventual extinction of orchid bees

D)swift extinction of orchids

E)swift extinction of sloths

Q3) In seed plants,which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?

A)sporophyll

B)male gametophyte

C)sporopollenin

D)stigma

E)sporangium

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Chapter 31: Fungi

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Q1) Apart from direct amphibian-to-amphibian contact,what is the most likely means by which the zoospores spread from one free-living amphibian to another?

A)by wind-blown spores

B)by flagella

C)by cilia

D)by pseudopods

E)by hyphae

Q2) Sexual reproduction has not been observed in Bd.If its morphology and genetics did not identify it as a chytridiomycete,then to which fungal group would Bd be assigned?

A)ascomycetes

B)zygomycetes

C)glomeromycetes

D)basidiomycetes

E)deuteromycetes

Q3) Which tree depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the ascomycetes?

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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity

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Q1) The last common ancestor of all bilaterians is thought to have had four Hox genes.Most extant cnidarians have two Hox genes,except Nematostella (of -catenin fame),which has three Hox genes.On the basis of these observations,some have proposed that the ancestral cnidarians were originally bilateral and,in stages,lost Hox genes from their genomes.If true,this would mean that

A)Radiata should be a true clade.

B)the radial symmetry of extant cnidarians is secondarily derived, rather than being an ancestral trait.

C)Hox genes play little actual role in coding for an animal's "body plan."

D)Cnidaria may someday replace Acoela as the basal bilaterians.

E)Two of the responses above are correct.

Q2) On the basis of the cleavage pattern of cycliophoran embryos,which of these should be true?

A)It has determinate development.

B)The blastopore becomes the anus.

C)They are deuterostomes.

D)A cell separated from a four-cell embryo should develop into a complete organism.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates

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Q1) Protostome evolution is characterized by several innovations,with the exception of A)a hard exoskeleton.

B)the ability to capture and eat large prey.

C)a segmented body cavity.

D)specialized structures for filter feeding.

E)movement using muscles.

Q2) Which of the following is a major disadvantage of exoskeletons?

A)Exoskeletons can be easily punctured.

B)An exoskeleton provides some support.

C)An exoskeleton grows faster than the animal.

D)An exoskeleton does not grow as the animal grows.

E)An exoskeleton tastes good to predators.

Q3) A radula is present in members of which clade(s)?

A)chitons

B)bivalves

C)gastropods

D)cephalopods

E)both chitons and gastropods

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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates

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Q1) The presence of a swim bladder allows the typical ray-finned fish to stop swimming and still

A)effectively circulate its blood.

B)be highly manoeuvrable.

C)use its lateral line system.

D)use its swim bladder as a respiratory organ.

E)not sink.

Q2) In order for the four-chambered hearts of birds and mammals to be homologous,which other organisms would have to have had four-chambered hearts?

A)dinosaurs

B)thecodonts

C)plesiosaurs

D)synapsids

E)stem reptiles

Q3) Which of these species was apparently the first to craft stone tools?

A)Australopithecus garhi

B)H) erectus

C)H) ergaster

D)H) habilis

E)H) sapiens

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Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development

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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?

A)A preprophase band determines where a cell plate will form in a dividing cell.

B)The way in which a plant cell differentiates is determined by the cell's position in the developing plant body.

C)Homeotic genes often control morphogenesis.

D)Plant cells differentiate because the cytoskeleton determines which genes will be turned "on" and "off."

E)Arabidopsis was the first plant to have its genome sequenced.

Q2) Secondary growth is best described as

A)consisting mostly of mesophyll layers.

B)a growth in thickness caused by lateral meristems.

C)a growth in height caused by apical meristems.

D)structural, photosynthetic, protective.

E)dependent on water- and sugar-conducting cells.

Q3) Vascular plant tissue includes all of the following cell types except A)vessel elements.

B)sieve cells.

C)tracheids.

D)companion cells.

E)cambium cells.

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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much more slowly than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected.This is most likely because A)the sterilization process kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling.

B)the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil.

C)sterilization removes essential nutrients from the soil.

D)water and mineral uptake are faster when mycorrhizae are present.

E)B and D.

Q2) All of the following have an effect on water potential ( )in plants except

A)physical pressure.

B)water-attracting matrices.

C)dissolved solutes.

D)osmosis.

E)DNA structure.

Q3) What is the advantage of having small,needlelike leaves?

A)increased transpiration rate

B)decreased transpiration rate

C)increased efficiency of light capture

D)decreased efficiency of light capture

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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a root nodule,the gene coding for nitrogenase

A)is inactivated by leghemoglobin.

B)is absent in active bacteroids.

C)is found in the cells of the pericycle.

D)protects the nodule from nitrogen.

E)is part of the Rhizobium genome.

Q2) What soil(s)is (are)the most fertile?

A)humus only

B)loam only

C)silt only

D)clay only

E)both humus and loam

Q3) What are epiphytes?

A)aerial vines common in tropical regions

B)haustoria used for anchoring to host plants and obtaining xylem sap

C)plants that live in poor soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen

D)plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts

E)plants that have a symbiotic relationship with fungi

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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the A)stamen.

B)carpel.

C)petals.

D)sepals.

E)receptacle.

Q2) All of the following strategies are being pursued with the goal of preventing transgene escape from genetically modified crops except

A)the engineering of male sterility into plants.

B)the genetic engineering of apomixis into transgenic crops.

C)the genetic engineering of trangenes into the chloroplast DNA.

D)the genetic engineering of flowers that develop normally, but fail to open.

E)hybridization of transgenic crop genes with related wild weeds.

Q3) Which of the following is a successful example of the commercial use of transgenic crops?

A)inserting Bt toxin genes into cotton, maize, and potato

B)developing plants that are resistant to ultraviolet light mutations

C)producing plants that resist attack by large herbivores

D)developing plants that produce all the essential amino acids for humans

E)producing plants that contain genes for making human insulin

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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following watering regimens will be most effective at keeping a lawn green during the hot,dry summer months?

A)daily sprinkling to soak the soil to 0.5 inch

B)sprinkling every other day to soak the soil to 1.0 inch

C)sprinkling every third day to soak the soil to 2.0 inches

D)daily sprinkling to soak the soil to 0.5 inch or sprinkling every other day to soak the soil to 1.0 inch

E)sprinkling every other day to soak the soil to 1.0 inch or sprinkling every third day to soak the soil to 2.0 inches

Q2) Plant cells begin synthesizing large quantities of heat-shock proteins

A)after the induction of chaperone proteins.

B)in response to the lack of CO following the closing of stomata by ethylene.

C)when desert plants are quickly removed from high temperatures.

D)when they are subjected to moist heat (steam)followed by electric shock.

E)whenever the external temperature exceeds the threshold where photosynthesis is negatively impacted.

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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nourishment,insulation,and support for neurons is the result of activity by the A)smooth muscles.

B)adipose tissue.

C)endocrine system.

D)intercalated disks.

E)glial cells.

Q2) An example of a connective tissue is the A)skin.

B)nerves.

C)blood.

D)cuboidal epithelium.

E)smooth muscles.

Q3) Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment?

A)feathers or fur

B)vasoconstriction

C)wind blowing across the body surface

D)countercurrent heat exchanger

E)blubber or fat layer

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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the A)small intestine.

B)stomach.

C)pancreas.

D)liver.

E)mouth.

Q2) If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and scissor-like,what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?

A)grass

B)flesh of another animal

C)nectar

D)blood

E)insects

Q3) Digestive enzymes are not needed by which of the following?

A)bearded seal

B)daffodil

C)black Bear

D)caterpillar

E)rock python

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Page 43

Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange

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Sample Questions

Q1) An atmospheric scientist has created a mixture of air consisting of 15% oxygen and PO of 75 mm Hg.The overall air pressure is

A)500 mm Hg.

B)5 mm Hg.

C)50 mm Hg.

D)0)5 mm Hg.

E)5000 mm Hg.

Q2) Which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels has blood that is the least similar in its gas content?

A)the pulmonary vein and the jugular vein

B)the veins from the right and left legs

C)the pulmonary artery and the vena cava

D)the pulmonary vein and the aorta

E)the inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava

Q3) One feature that amphibians and humans have in common is

A)the number of heart chambers.

B)the type of gas exchange tissues.

C)a complete separation of circuits for circulation.

D)the number of circuits for circulation.

E)a low blood pressure in the systemic circuit.

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Chapter 43: The Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A boy falls while riding his bike.A scrape on his hand almost immediately begins to bleed and becomes red,warm,and swollen.What response is occurring?

A)inflammatory response

B)lytic response

C)adaptive immune response

D)autoimmune response

E)lysogenic response

Q2) CD4 and CD8 are

A)proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells.

B)receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK)cells.

C)T-independent antigens.

D)molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with MHC molecules.

E)molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity.

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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion

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Sample Questions

Q1) After blood flow is artificially reduced at one kidney,you would expect that kidney to secrete more of the hormone known as A)erythropoietin.

B)angiotensinogen.

C)renin.

D)antidiuretic hormone.

E)atrial natriuretic peptide.

Q2) Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?

A)ammonia

B)ammonium ions

C)urea

D)uric acid

Q3) Among the following choices,the most concentrated urine is excreted by A)frogs.

B)kangaroo rats.

C)humans.

D)desert tortoises.

E)birds.

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46

Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which hormone is incorrectly paired with its action?

A)oxytocin - stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth

B)thyroxine - stimulates metabolic processes

C)insulin - stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver

D)ACTH - stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex

E)melatonin - affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction

Q2) Which of the following are incorrectly paired?

A)nitric oxide - local regulator

B)cortisol - steroid hormone

C)estrogen - steroid hormone

D)cytokines - local regulator

E)prostaglandin - peptide hormone

Q3) If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time,he or she may die from dehydration.ADH can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the

A)anterior pituitary.

B)posterior pituitary.

C)adrenal gland.

D)bladder.

E)kidney.

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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regeneration,the regrowth of lost body parts,normally follows

A)all types of asexual reproduction.

B)all types of sexual reproduction.

C)fission.

D)fragmentation.

E)parthenogenesis.

Q2) In the above figure,which letter points to the corpus luteum?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q3) For the 10 days following ovulation in a nonpregnant menstrual cycle,the main source of progesterone is the A)adrenal cortex.

B)anterior pituitary.

C)corpus luteum.

D)developing follicle.

E)placenta.

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Animal Development

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Q1) In sea urchins,the "fast block" and the longer-lasting "slow block" to polyspermy,respectively,are

A)the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white.

B)the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein.

C)the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane.

D)membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction.

E)inactivation of the sperm acrosome.

Q2) Among these choices,the largest cell involved in frog reproduction is A)the spermatozoon.

B)the ovum.

C)a blastomere in the vegetal pole.

D)a blastomere in the animal pole.

E)one of the products of the first cleavage.

Q3) During the early part of the cleavage stage in frog development,the rapidly developing cells

A)skip the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.

B)skip the S phase of the cell cycle.

C)skip the G and G phases of the cell cycle.

D)rapidly increase the volume and mass of the embryo.

E)skip the cytokinesis phase of the cell cycle.

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Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling

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Q1) Functionally,which cellular location is the neuron's "decision-making site" as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated?

A)axonal membranes

B)axon hillocks

C)dendritic membranes

D)mitochondrial membranes

E)presynaptic membranes

Q2) A simple nervous system

A)must include chemical senses, mechanoreception, and vision.

B)includes a minimum of 12 effector neurons.

C)has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating centre.

D)has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating centre.

E)includes sensory information, an integrating centre, and effectors.

Q3) The membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at label

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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems

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Q1) An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair which function?

A)primary visual cortex

B)thalamus

C)sense of taste

D)sense of touch

E)movement

Q2) In a cephalized invertebrate,the system that transmits "efferent" impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the

A)central nervous system.

B)peripheral nervous system.

C)autonomic nervous system.

D)parasympathetic nervous system.

E)sympathetic nervous system.

Q3) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to

A)decreased heart rate.

B)increased secretion by the pancreas.

C)increased secretion by the gallbladder.

D)increased contraction of the stomach.

E)relaxation of the airways in the lungs.

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Page 51

Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms

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Sample Questions

Q1) What assumption can you make about fish #1?

I.The fish would fatigue quickly.

II.Muscle fibres have a large diameter.

III.Fibres have very little myoglobin.

A)I only

B)II only

C)III only

D)I and II

E)I and III

Q2) Vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window are transmitted by the structures at which numbers?

A)1, 2, 3, and 4

B)2, 3, and 4

C)3 and 4

D)4

E)5

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52

Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour

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Q1) Some dogs love attention,and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks,he gets attention.Which of the following might you use to describe this behaviour?

A)The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.

B)The dog is performing a social behaviour.

C)The dog is trying to protect its territory.

D)The dog has been classically conditioned.

E)The dog's behaviour is a result of operant conditioning.

Q2) What type of signal is long-lasting and works at night?

A)olfactory

B)visual

C)auditory

D)tactile

E)electrical

Q3) Animals use pheromones to communicate

A)reproductive readiness.

B)species recognition.

C)gender recognition.

D)danger.

E)All options are correct.

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Page 53

Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which zone produces the most global oxygen gas?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q2) Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun.The most obvious effect of this change would be

A)the elimination of tides.

B)an increase in the length of night.

C)an increase in the length of a year.

D)a decrease in temperature at the equator.

E)the elimination of seasonal variation.

Q3) Oligotrophic lakes are characterized by

A)high nutrients and high productivity.

B)high capacity to filter dissolved nutrients and chemical pollutants.

C)generally, low nutrient levels and high oxygen levels.

D)amount of decomposable organic matter in bottom sediment is high.

E)cold water temperature.

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Chapter 53: Population Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity?

A)Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.

B)Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.

C)Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations.

D)Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur.

E)The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase.

Q2) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02.Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to (or lost from)a population of 1000 individuals in one year.

A)120 individuals added

B)40 individuals added

C)20 individuals added

D)400 individuals added

E)20 individuals lost

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Chapter 54: Community Ecology

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Q1) Many zootonic pathogens are highly virulent,can result in high death rates,and can cause world-wide pandemics.One example,the H5N1 avian flu,not only killed millions of domestic poultry,but also caused the deaths of people who came in contact with sick birds.What is the most probable hypothesis or reason as to why the H5N1 flu can be so deadly to people?

A)This particular pathogen crossed the species barrier and the high virulence can be seen as a side effect of a new pathogen-host association.

B)The pathogen was quick to infect healthy birds.

C)The avian flu would have eventually been controlled; we have to be patient because medicine is close to eliminating infectious diseases.

D)If the H5N1 flu had been half avian and half mammalian, people would have had some immunity to it.

E)Two of the above statements are correct.

Q2) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they A)are the fastest predators.

B)prey on the community's dominant species.

C)maintain exponential growth.

D)avoid consuming omnivores.

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology

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Q1) Many homeowners mow their lawns during the summer and collect the clippings,which are then hauled to the local landfill.Which of the following actions would most benefit the suburban ecosystem?

A)Allow sheep to graze the lawn and then collect the sheep's feces to be delivered to the landfill.

B)Collect the lawn clippings and burn them.

C)Collect the lawn clippings and add them to a compost pile, don't collect the clippings and let them decompose into the lawn, or apply composted clippings to the lawn.

D)Collect the clippings and wash them into the nearest storm sewer that feeds into the local lake.

E)Dig up the lawn and cover the yard with asphalt.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of biological augmentation?

A)planting species that thrive in nutrient-poor soil to speed up succession

B)planting nitrogen-fixing plants, such as lupines, to raise nitrogen concentration in the soil

C)dredging a river or lake bottom to remove contaminated sediments

D)introducing lichen species that grow in soil polluted with uranium

E)A and B

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

57

Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812

Sample Questions

Q1) Study the information above about quail habitats.Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?

E)E

Q2) Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because

A)nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of the use of pesticides.

B)the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested.

C)land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor.

D)grains raised for feeding livestock must be fortified, and thus require additional nutrients.

E)cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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