Course Introduction
General Biology Question
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General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles of biology, emphasizing the molecular and cellular basis of life, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of living organisms. Students explore fundamental biological concepts including cell structure and function, metabolism, DNA structure and replication, Mendelian and molecular genetics, ecological relationships, and evolutionary processes. This course lays the foundation for further study in the biological sciences by fostering an understanding of how living systems operate and interact within the environment. Laboratory exercises complement lectures by offering hands-on experience with scientific methods, experimentation, and data analysis.
Recommended Textbook
Inquiry into Life 14th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A piece of petrified wood was once part of a living organism,but its tissues have been replaced by minerals and it no longer exhibits most properties of life,except for A) organization.
B) homeostasis.
C) growth and reproduction.
D) response to stimuli.
E) metabolism.
Answer: A
Q2) Which sequence of classification categories is in the proper order from least to most inclusive?
A) genus, class, kingdom, domain, order, phylum, species, family B) domain, class, genus, family, species, order, phylum, kingdom
C) species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain
D) genus, species, order, class, family, kingdom, domain, phylum
E) species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom, domain
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) To measure the activity of the human brain during certain thought processes,a short-lived radioactive sugar is injected in the carotid artery and is utilized by those cells that are most active.This shows up on a PET scan and demonstrates the detection of A) ionic bonds.
B) high levels of radiation.
C) covalent bonds.
D) neutrons.
E) isotopes.
Answer: E
Q2) The difference between <sup>12</sup><sub>6</sub>C and <sup>14</sup><sub>6</sub>C is
A) the number of electrons.
B) the number of protons.
C) the number of neutrons.
D) the number of carbon atoms.
E) the number of ionic bonds.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organelle will give off oxygen and use up carbon dioxide in plants?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) lysosomes
D) mitochondria
E) chloroplasts
Answer: E
Q2) Thylakoids and cristae are respectively structures of
A) lysosomes and the endoplasmic reticulum.
B) the nucleus and nucleolus.
C) chloroplasts and mitochondria.
D) mitochondria and chloroplasts.
E) the cell wall and the plasma membrane.
Answer: C
Q3) Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration,all living cells must contain mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A membrane sac filled with large molecules of potassium is suspended in a beaker of water.What will happen?
A) The potassium will leave and the water will enter until both sides reach equal concentrations.
B) Water will enter the sac and it will swell.
C) Because the potassium cannot leave, the water cannot enter.
D) We cannot determine the outcome unless we know the tonicity of the solutions.
E) The potassium will leave the sac and it will shrink.
Q2) Which membrane transport process can continue whether the cell is alive or dead?
A) sodium/potassium pump
B) pinocytosis
C) phagocytosis
D) exocytosis
E) diffusion
Q3) The term hypertonic means
A) to lose water.
B) to gain water.
C) a higher solute concentration.
D) a lower solute concentration.
E) an equal solute concentration.
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replication of the DNA for meiosis occurs between telophase I and prophase II.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?
A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) metaphase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.
Q3) Technically,mitosis refers to nuclear division and NOT cytoplasmic division.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers in order to move to and from the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the checkpoints for the cell cycle.
Q6) Centrioles are absolutely necessary to the process of mitosis in all organisms.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids are a more concentrated source of energy compared to a carbohydrate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While science cannot describe "thinking" in physical terms,we are certain that the process involves metabolism inside brain cells.With positron emission tomography (PET scan),it is possible to inject short-lived isotopes and image the regions of the brain that have the most active metabolism during various mental activities.However,
A) thought cannot be linked to cell processes because energy is not related to matter.
B) since thoughts can occur over and over, the requirement for a continual input of energy to prevent entropy does not apply to this cell activity.
C) the cellular energy expended in thinking must be less than the chemical bond energy supplied in food to these brain cells.
D) "thinking" is beyond the scope of science to study.
E) "thinking" is not a cellular process and therefore does not require energy.
Q3) Energy,but NOT chemicals,may cycle through living things.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) If we developed a molecule that blocked the ATP channel protein,what would be the first immediate effect?
A) accumulation of ATP in the mitochondrial matrix
B) accumulation of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix
C) no energy to pump hydrogen ions into the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion
D) reversal of the hydrogen ion gradient
E) immediate blockage of the cytochrome molecules
Q2) Some desert organisms can live out their life without ever drinking liquid water.What phase(s)of cellular respiration could provide the organism with water?
A) glycolysis
B) citric acid cycle
C) electron transport chain
D) glycolysis and electron transport chain
E) citric acid cycle and electron transport chain
Q3) The only end product of alcoholic fermentation is the alcohol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Write out the overall equation for cellular respiration.
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9
Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) NADPH and ATP are used in the
A) noncyclic electron pathway.
B) cyclic electron pathway.
C) Calvin cycle reactions.
D) citric acid cycle.
E) light reactions.
Q2) Which pathway is the foundation for the majority of ecosystems and food chains on Earth?
A) photosynthesis
B) anaerobic respiration
C) aerobic respiration
D) chemosynthesis
E) decomposition
Q3) In which plant structure does photosynthesis primarily occur?
A) root
B) stem
C) leaf
D) petiole
E) bark
Q4) Explain why chlorpohyll appears green to our eyes.
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Chapter 9: Plant Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which association is incorrect?
A) vessel element--xylem
B) guard cells--epidermis
C) parenchyma--ground tissue
D) sieve-tube member--bark
E) cuticle--epidermis
Q2) Parasitic plants have specialized roots for invading a host plant's tissues.What are these roots called?
A) adventitious
B) taproots
C) mycorrhizal
D) fibrous
E) haustoria
Q3) If you had a problematic hillside that continually eroded when it rained,plants with which type of roots would best solve your problem?
A) adventitious
B) taproots
C) mycorrhizal
D) fibrous
E) haustoria
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Chapter 10: Plant Reproduction and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cross-pollination occurs when pollen from an anther of one plant is transferred to the stigma of another plant of the same species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Peas and beans are considered legumes.Why?
A) A legume is a fruit that splits along two sides when mature.
B) They are both simple fruits.
C) The actual seed is inside the pod.
D) Both are green when ripe.
E) Both develop relationships with nitrogen fixing bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the female portion of the flower?
A) filament
B) carpel
C) pistil
D) stigma
E) style
Q4) A flower that is missing the stamens would be considered female.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the various uses of gibberellins in the agricultural industry.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Human Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which function is NOT correctly matched to its type of tissue?
A) Adipose tissue stores fat.
B) Reticular connective tissue produces blood cells.
C) Connective tissues bind organs together and provide support and protection.
D) Loose fibrous connective tissue encloses internal organs including muscles.
E) Dense connective tissue is muscle that contracts.
Q2) What type of bone contains numerous bony plates separated by irregular spaces?
A) compact
B) spongy
C) marrow
D) elastic
E) fibrous
Q3) Which type of junction permits small molecules to pass between two cells?
A) desmosome
B) tight junction
C) gap junction
D) intercalated disk
E) cross junction
Q4) List the four major tissue types found in the human body.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of the right ventricle forces blood initially into the A) left atrium.
B) right atrium.
C) aorta.
D) pulmonary vein.
E) pulmonary artery.
Q2) Oxygenated blood enters the heart at the A) left atrium.
B) left ventricle.
C) right atrium.
D) right ventricle.
E) pulmonary arteries.
Q3) The pacemaker of the heart is termed the A) AV node.
B) cardiac center in the medulla.
C) SA node.
D) vagus nerve.
E) Purkinje fibers.
Q4) List the 5 different types of white blood cells found in the human body in order of frequency,with the most common one first.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of T cell has a TCR that can recognize an antigen fragment presented by antigen-presenting cells with MHC class II proteins?
A) helper T cells
B) cytotoxic T cells
C) major histocompatibility complex
D) B cells
E) monocytes
Q2) Lymph is
A) excreted by the kidneys.
B) returned to the circulatory system via arteries.
C) returned to the circulatory system at the subclavian vein.
D) absorbed by tissues.
E) excreted as sweat.
Q3) An autoimmune disease means that the body attacks itself because it does not recognize itself.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Would untreated SCID be considered a lethal disease?
Q5) List the steps involved with the production of monoclonal antibodies.
Q6) List the function of the following antibodies: IgG,IgM,IgA,IgD,and IgE.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stacey is 5 foot 8 inches tall and weighs approximately 80 pounds,yet she thinks she is very fat.Which of the following statements is probably not true about Stacey?
A) Stacey most likely suffers from anorexia nervosa.
B) Stacey is actually starving.
C) Stacey has probably stopped menstruating.
D) Stacey is in danger of dying.
E) Stacey probably spends a lot of time throwing up.
Q2) Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) epiglottis.
D) glottis.
E) sphincter muscle.
Q3) List the major digestive enzymes and the substrate they are responsible for breaking down.
Q4) Crohn's disease is considered an autoimmune disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the seven functions of the liver.
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Chapter 15: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT a correct association of respiratory problems and symptoms?
A) laryngitis-inflammation of the larynx that causes hoarseness or loss of voice
B) tonsillitis-inflammation of the uvula often cured by removal of the useless tissue
C) otitis media-ear pain due to bacterial infection of the middle ear
D) sinusitis-pain and tenderness in lower forehead and over the cheeks
E) pharyngitis-infection of the throat
Q2) Both inspiration and expiration require active engagement of the diaphragm and the rib muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxygen in the lungs diffuses from the capillary walls to enter the alveolar walls.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An infection with Mycobacterium can cause tubercles in the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the three major functions of the respiratory system.
Q6) If a person has chronic bronchitis,will they cough up mucous?
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Chapter 16: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally,concentrations of wastes,such as urea,are
A) high in urine in comparison to plasma.
B) high in the filtrate but low in urine.
C) in trace amounts in urine but are high in blood.
D) not in the filtrate but are present in low concentrations in the urine.
E) only found in the excretory organs where they originate from metabolism.
Q2) The inner layer of the glomerular capsule is composed of renocytes that have long cytoplasmic extensions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An increased amount of ADH leads to
A) an increased amount of urine.
B) a decreased amount of urine.
C) no change in the amount of urine.
D) kidney failure.
E) a decreased amount of filtrate.
Q4) Although it sounds like science fiction,human bladders can be grown in the laboratory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) You spray an insect with common insecticide that destroys the ability of acetylcholinesterase to recycle acetylcholine.What then happens?
A) This kills the neuron directly.
B) The lack of recycled acetylcholine brings the cell metabolism to a halt.
C) The insect is unable to move anything because nerve impulses quit flowing.
D) The insect runs out of acetylcholine and becomes paralyzed.
E) The insect loses control of body functions as nerve impulses flow continuously.
Q2) The cerebrum is the largest portion of the brain in humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the best description of the cause of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A) gradual death of brain cells due to calcium influx
B) myelin sheath lesions impair normal coordination of impulses
C) synaptic uptake of dopamine is inhibited
D) degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons in the brain
E) excessive excitatory signals from the motor cortex
Q4) List and compare the three classes of neurons.
Q5) Explain the transmission across a synapse from one neuron to another.
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Chapter 18: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cutaneous receptors are concentrated in the fingertips and palms?
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) Ruffini endings
D) root hair plexus
E) free nerve endings
Q2) The doctor tells you that you have anosmia.What is your problem?
A) no sense of smell
B) an inability to fall asleep
C) an inability to stay asleep
D) vertigo
E) deafness
Q3) What substance will displace the cupula during rotational equilibrium?
A) Fluid within the semicircular canal.
B) Fluid within the utricle.
C) The otoliths within the semicircular canal.
D) The otoliths within the vestibule.
E) Fluid within the auditory tube.
Q4) List the parts of the ear that make up the outer ear,middle ear,and inner ear.
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will increase during strenuous muscular activity?
A) oxygen
B) carbon monoxide
C) lactic acid
D) liver glycogen
E) myosin
Q2) Muscles that are not used or used for very weak contractions experience hypertrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bone-forming cells are termed
A) chondrocytes.
B) blood cells.
C) osteoclasts.
D) osteocytes.
E) osteoblasts.
Q4) A neuromuscular junction operates much like a synapse between two nerve cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the five major functions of the skeletal system.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thyroid is in the abdomen,on top of the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exophthalmia can sometimes be cured by
A) injections of thyroid hormone.
B) adding iodine to the diet.
C) a pancreatic implant.
D) surgically removing a portion of the pancreas, or destroying part of it with radiation.
E) surgically removing a portion of the thyroid, or destroying part of it with radiation.
Q3) What is the role of the epidermal growth factors?
A) Stimulates the healing of wounds.
B) Increases the number of fibroblasts.
C) Increase the number of smooth muscle cells.
D) Bone marrow stem cells form into different types of white blood cells.
E) Increases the chances of developing a wound.
Q4) Somatostatin is produced by the pancreas,stomach,and small intestine.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of these is NOT part of the human female external genitalia?
A) mons pubis
B) glans clitoris
C) labia minora
D) labia majora
E) uterus
Q2) The time interval following ejaculation during which stimulation does not cause erection is called
A) luteal phase.
B) proliferative phase.
C) secretory phase.
D) spermatogenesis.
E) refractory period.
Q3) Which association concerning structures in the human male is incorrect?
A) testes-produce sperm
B) vas deferens-carries urine
C) prostate gland-seminal fluid
D) urethra-conducts sperm
E) seminal vesicle-seminal fluid
Q4) List and describe the function of the female reproductive organs.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which system below develops first in the embryo?
A) reproductive
B) circulatory
C) excretory
D) respiratory
E) nervous
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT derived from endoderm?
A) gut lining
B) hormonal glands
C) lungs
D) bones
E) bladder lining
Q3) In order to provide for easier birth,a newborn baby has membranous areas of skull called
A) oval windows.
B) bursa.
C) sutures.
D) septa.
E) fontanels.
Q4) List and describe the major events during the 3 stages of birth.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Patterns of Gene Inheritance
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Q1) In humans,brown eyes (B)is a simple dominant trait over blue eyes (b).A brown-eyed woman whose child is blue-eyed would have the genotype
A) bb.
B) Bb.
C) BB.
D) BBB.
E) BbBb.
Q2) The four o'clock flower is an example of incomplete dominance: R = red,r = white,and Rr = pink.If two hybrids are crossed,what are the chances that an offspring will have pink flowers?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q3) Indicate the genotypic and phenotypic ratios that you could expect if an individual who is heterozygous for Huntington disease has children with a normal individual.
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Chapter 24: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) What determines whether or not genes located on the same chromosome can assort independently?
A) Genes located on the same chromosome can never assort independently.
B) Genes located on the same chromosome always assort independently.
C) Whether or not independent assortment occurs is just due to random chance.
D) The distance between genes located on the same chromosome determines whether or not they can show any level of independent assortment.
E) The phenotype that the gene will express.
Q2) The trait diagrammed in Figure 24.1 is a(n)
A) dominant X-linked trait.
B) recessive X-linked trait.
C) autosomal recessive trait.
D) autosomal dominant trait.
E) dominant Y-linked trait.
Q3) Down syndrome
A) is due to disjunction of chromosomes.
B) individuals have two number 21 chromosomes.
C) may occur at a lower rate in women over 40.
D) can occur if the sperm has an extra number 21 chromosome.
E) persons have normal appearing eyelids.
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Chapter 25: DNA Structure and Gene Expression
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Q1) A cluster of prokaryotic genes under the control of one regulatory sequence is called a(n)
A) repressor.
B) promoter.
C) operon.
D) operator.
E) regulator gene.
Q2) The hereditary material found in all cells is
A) DNA.
B) rRNA.
C) mRNA.
D) tRNA.
E) ATP.
Q3) During the process of transcription,the information in A) a protein is converted into RNA information.
B) RNA is converted into protein information.
C) RNA is converted into DNA information.
D) DNA is converted into RNA information.
E) DNA is converted into protein information.
Q4) Summarize the process of DNA replication.
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Chapter 26: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) Which technique is used to create billions of copies of DNA in a short amount of time?
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) recombinant DNA technology
C) short tandem repeat (STR) profiling
D) gene therapy
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding restriction enzymes?
A) They exist in bacteria to restrict the growth of viruses.
B) They cut double-stranded DNA at specific sites.
C) They are used during the manufacture of proteins.
D) They produce "sticky ends" that can bind foreign DNA.
E) They facilitate inserting foreign DNA into vector DNA.
Q3) Gene pharming is
A) the use of bacterial DNA to impart drug resistance to plants.
B) the use of transgenic farm animals to produce pharmaceuticals.
C) the creation of new genes to be implanted in farm animals.
D) the creation of crop plants to replace the use of farm animals as a source of protein.
E) the application of genetic principles to breeding farm animals.
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Chapter 27: Evolution of Life
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Q1) The equation,p<sup>2</sup> + 2 pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1.0,describes
A) the process of evolution.
B) the size of a population.
C) the rate of speciation of species p and q.
D) the makeup of a gene pool.
E) evolution of a population.
Q2) In a cladogram,clades are groups of related organisms.In the past,phylogeneticists built clades using the idea of parsimony,that the pattern that uses the fewest evolutionary changes is the most likely to be correct.Today with the use of computers and DNA sequences the explanation that is thought to be the best is
A) One that shows the most changes in nucleotide sequences.
B) One that eliminates any similar DNA sequences.
C) One that shows the DNA unique to that species.
D) One that shows the fewest changes in the nucleotide sequences.
E) Still one that uses the same system of parsimony.
Q3) Taxonomy is the branch of systemic biology that studies the evolutionary relatedness among groups of organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Microbiology
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Q1) Miller's laboratory experiments showed that
A) the first cell was probably made of nucleic acids.
B) it is possible to form protocells.
C) the primitive gases can react together to produce small organic molecules.
D) atmospheric pressure is required for life to begin.
E) the Earth is approximately 4.5 billion years old.
Q2) Viruses are
A) smaller than bacteria.
B) usually more than 1 micron long.
C) larger than protists.
D) immeasurable.
E) unicellular.
Q3) Which of the following associations is correct?
A) herpesvirus - chicken pox
B) Streptococcus pyogenes - measles
C) trypanosome - Chlamydia
D) mycoses - Entamoeba
E) tinea - fungi
Q4) List the four stages that are thought to have led to the formation of the first cells.
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Chapter 29: Protists and Fungi
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Q1) Which can have a cellular form as well as an acellular (plasmodial)form with multiple nuclei?
A) sporozoa
B) zooflagellates
C) slime molds
D) diatoms
E) ciliates
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a fungus?
A) mushroom
B) yeast
C) ringworm
D) molds
E) amoeba
Q3) ____ are organisms that break down dead organic matter in order to absorb the nutrient molecules.
A) Prokaryotes
B) Eukaryotes
C) Parasites
D) Saprotrophs
E) Heterotrophs
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Chapter 30: Plants
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Q1) One adaptation that was necessary for charophytes to move onto land was the protection of the embryo from desiccation.In mosses the embryo,called a developing sporophyte,is
A) Protected within the archegonium and nourished by the 'foot' growing down into the gametophyte tissue.
B) Protected by the antheridia and nourished by the rhizoids.
C) Protected by the protonema and nourished by the 'foot' growing down into the gametophyte.
D) Protected within the antheridia and nourished by the 'foot' growing down into the sporophyte tissue.
E) Not protected since mosses are not vascular plants.
Q2) A lily (a monocot)would have
A) rhizoids rather than true roots.
B) flower parts in threes.
C) seeds in a cone.
D) netted leaf veins.
E) two cotyledons.
Q3) Identify the traits of nonvascular plants that enabled them to adapt to life on land.
Q4) List the five major events in the evolutionary history of plants.
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Chapter 31: Animals: the Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of these is NOT a characteristic of sponges?
A) sessile filter feeders
B) body wall has two cell layers
C) flagellated collar cells move water
D) water enters through a single cavity, the osculum
E) amoeboid cells transport food and make skeletal fibers and gametes
Q2) Which of the following is a way that crayfish and grasshoppers are similar?
A) Both have tympanum for use in mating rituals.
B) Both have malpighian tubules that function in the extraction of nitrogenous waste.
C) Both have spicules and a tracheal system for respiration.
D) Both have bodies that are composed of a cephalothorax and abdomen.
E) Both have antennae that have a sensory function.
Q3) An adaptation exhibited by the tapeworm for survival in a host's intestine is
A) proglottids coated with calcium carbonate.
B) alkaline secretions from the scolex.
C) a protective lining of chitin.
D) eggs before the proglottids are digested.
E) a tough integument resistant to host digestive fluids.
Q4) List the 5 general characteristics shared by animals.
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Chapter 32: Animals: Chordates and Vertebrates
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Q1) The lancelets are found
A) in tropical Amazon streams.
B) as parasites inside the tracts of fish.
C) very rarely in mountain streams, where they are almost extinct.
D) commonly in the sandy bottoms of shallow coastal waters around the world.
E) on the bottom of the ocean.
Q2) Which hominid is considered to be the handyman by being the first to use tools?
A) Gorilla
B) Lucy
C) Homo habilis
D) Homo erectus
E) Chimpanzee
Q3) Larval tunicates differ from adults in all but one of the following ways.Which of the following is not true?
A) The adults are sessile and the larvae are free swimming.
B) The adults do not have a notochord while the larvae do.
C) The adults do not have pharynx and gill slits while the larvae do.
D) The adults do not have a dorsal, hollow nerve chord while the larvae do.
E) The adults do not have a post-anal tail while the larvae do.
Q4) Identify the four morphological traits unique to the chordates.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) That behavior often has a learned component was shown by studying the A) migration of birds.
B) altruism of human beings.
C) feeding behavior of baby gull chicks.
D) singing patterns of song birds.
E) feeding behavior of baby gull chicks AND singing patterns of song birds.
Q2) Some animals define a territory and defend it.Maintaining a territory costs in terms of the energy expended in defense and puts the defender and the aggressor at risk of an injury that could cost their life.What benefits do organisms derive from keeping a territory?
A) Obtaining a mate and defeating predators
B) Keeping a constant supply of food and encouraging other species to settle in the area
C) Encouraging other species to settle in the area and obtaining a mate
D) Obtaining a mate and keeping a constant supply of food
E) Defeating predators and encouraging other species to settle in the area
Q3) Describe the classical conditioning experiment of Ivan Pavlov.
Q4) List the four main methods of communication among animals.
Q5) List and describe the two types of associative learning.
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Chapter 34: Population and Community Ecology
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Q1) Limiting factors of food and space will first be observed in Figure 34.03 at number
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Many MDCs have a stabilized age structure diagram.
B) Most LDCs have a youthful age structure diagram.
C) The quicker the replacement reproduction is achieved, the sooner the zero population growth results.
D) The human population growth curve is exponential.
E) As the human population increases in size, less energy but more material will be consumed.
Q3) Explain the species interactions in each of the following symbiotic relationships: parasitism,commensalism and mutualism.
Q4) List the features used to identify a species as an Opportunistic species (r-strategist).
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Chapter 35: Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) In a grassland biome which organism would most likely be at the highest trophic level?
A) hawk
B) big bluestem grass
C) sparrow
D) caterpillar
E) mouse
Q2) In a grazing food chain,
A) all the consumers are primary consumers.
B) primary consumers eat photosynthetic organisms.
C) primary consumers eat detritus.
D) secondary consumers eat photosynthetic organisms.
E) secondary consumers eat detritus.
Q3) Pioneers move into an area and harvest most of the foxes for fur.They are likely to see
A) hawks die out.
B) squirrel populations increase.
C) grasshopper populations increase.
D) hawk populations immediately increase.
E) grasshoppers decrease.
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Chapter 36: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which biome has both a high temperature and plentiful water?
A) desert
B) tundra
C) savanna
D) tropical forest
E) taiga
Q2) Describe the differences in temperature of deep lakes in a temperate environment.
Q3) Trees do NOT grow in the tundra because the A) atmosphere is too rarefied.
B) land is too swampy.
C) land shifts from time to time.
D) permafrost is always frozen.
E) shrubs are too plentiful.
Q4) Temperate deciduous forests are defined by
A) humid climate with seasonal droughts.
B) highest variation in day and night length.
C) highest amount of organisms living in tree canopy.
D) a growing season between 140 and 300 days.
E) richest topsoil horizon.
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Chapter 37: Conservation Biology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of the importance of biodiversity in a natural ecosystem?
A) Pollination of flowers by bees.
B) Production of antibiotics from fungi.
C) Increasing the survival rate of childhood leukemia from 10 - 90%.
D) Increasing the availability of food for the human population.
E) Supplies building materials for new construction.
Q2) Which is NOT an example of an alien or exotic species?
A) zebra mussels introduced to the Great Lakes
B) dandelions planted by pioneers as salad greens
C) the mongoose brought to Hawaii to control rats
D) the brown tree snake in Guam
E) buffalo in the United States
Q3) When designing a reserve area there should be a limit to
A) the number of species included so it does not become overcrowded.
B) how large the area is so that it can be patrolled and monitored.
C) how small the area is so that edge effects will be minimized.
D) how close the area is to a national park so that wildlife will not be tempted to move from one area to the other.
E) the number of conservation corridors that connect to it.
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