General Biology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology offers an introduction to the fundamental principles of living organisms, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. This course emphasizes the scientific method and the processes of inquiry, experimentation, and analysis that underpin biological science. Students will explore the mechanisms that govern life at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, while also considering the interactions between organisms and their environments. The course aims to provide a solid foundation in biological concepts, preparing students for further study in the life sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology, the Study of Life
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Q1) Human beings have damaged parts of the biosphere in all but which of the following ways?
A)overcollecting coral from reefs
B)sending eroded sediments into waterways
C)logging forests excessively
D)establishing too numerous seagrass beds
E)allowing excess fertilizer to run off
Answer: D
Q2) The main purpose of the queen fire ant is to
A)find food.
B)defend the eggs.
C)produce food.
D)produce eggs.
E)defend food.
Answer: D
Q3) The interactions within a population and with other populations are referred to as an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry of Cells
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Q1) Which of the following changes would cause an atom to become a different element?
A)increase the number of neutrons
B)increase the number of electrons
C)increase the number of protons
D)decrease the number of neutrons
E)decrease the number of electrons
Answer: C
Q2) Which factor determines whether an atom will be chemically reactive?
A)the number of electrons in the outer shell
B)the ratio of protons to electrons
C)the number of electrons in the inner shell
D)the ratio of protons to neutrons
E)the number of electron shells an atom has
Answer: A
Q3) When the concentration of hydrogen ions is greater than the concentration of hydroxide ions the solution is considered an acid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Organic Molecules of Cells
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Q1) Which of the following is true of ATP?
A)It is used for long term energy storage.
B)It has a base of adenine,the sugar ribose,and three phosphate groups.
C)It contains adenine,ribose,and two phosphate groups.
D)It has a base of adenine,the sugar deoxyribose,and three phosphate groups.
E)It is very stablE.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following polysaccharides is used by animals as the storage form of glucose?
A)chitin
B)cellulose
C)peptidoglycans
D)glycogen
E)collagen
Answer: D
Q3) The most essential ingredient in organic molecules is hydrogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Structure and Function of Cells
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Q1) What is the function of the cell structure marked "a." on the animal cell diagram?
A)to provide structural support and shape
B)to make energy molecules
C)to break down old organelles
D)to carry genetic information
E)to produce and modify new proteins
Q2) Which organelle is physically connected to the nuclear envelope?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)mitochondria
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)nucleolus
E)lysosome
Q3) What is the primary function of the central vacuole?
A)to store DNA
B)to break down engulfed macromolecules and bacteria
C)to store nutrients and waste products
D)to produce proteins
E)to produce ATP
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6
Chapter 5: Dynamic Activities of Cells
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Q1) Many enzymes require the presence of _________________ which are nonprotein organic molecules in order to be active and work correctly.
A)inducer molecules
B)active site binders
C)activation molecules
D)denaturing molecules
E)cofactors
Q2) Which of the following statements about participants in a reaction would have to be about a component other than an enzyme?
A)They speed up chemical reactions.
B)They are not reusable.
C)They are proteins.
D)They are reusable.
E)They are considered organic catalysts.
Q3) Both plant and animal cells,at least some of each,have structures which join them together for communication.
A)True
B)False
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7
Chapter 6: Pathways of Photosynthesis
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Q1) The major advantage of the CAM pathway is
A)oxygen conservation.
B)adaptation for wet conditions.
C)adaptation for cool temperatures.
D)that it allows the plant to keep its stomata open during the day.
E)water conservation.
Q2) This figure shows a cross section of a typical plant leaf.What does "c" represent?
A)mesophyll
B)stoma
C)stoma.
D)upper epidermis
E)cuticle
Q3) What part of the light reactions starts off photosynthesis?
A)Electron Transport Chain
B)Photosystem I
C)Calvin Cycle
D)Photosystem II
E)ATP Synthesis
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8
Chapter 7: Pathways of Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Once NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> have delivered their electrons and hydrogen ions to the electron transport chain,they
A)pick up water molecules.
B)are shipped out of the mitochondria to be used by other organelles.
C)pick up carbon dioxide molecules.
D)pick up more hydrogen ions.
E)pick up oxygen molecules.
Q2) Degradative reactions which break down molecules are referred to as A)deamination.
B)anabolism.
C)catabolism.
D)fermentation.
E)cellular respiration.
Q3) The best fat burning exercise would be A)short and aerobic.
B)short and anaerobic.
C)long and aerobiC.
D)long and anaerobic.
E)watching television.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) It is possible to reprogram adult cells,such as epidermal cells,to produce stem cells for therapeutic uses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first phase of mitosis is called
A)prophase.
B)metaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
E)interphasE.
Q3) This figure shows the cell cycle.What does "e" represent?
A)Interphase
B)G<sub>1</sub>
C)S
D)Cytokinesis
E)Mitosis
Q4) Animal cells and plant cells use different mechanisms of cytokinesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) Mitosis and meiosis differ in that
A)meiosis does not change the number of chromosomes per cell.
B)mitosis doubles the number of chromosomes per cell.
C)meiosis doubles the number of chromosomes per cell.
D)mitosis does not change the number of chromosomes per cell.
E)mitosis triples the number of chromosomes per cell.
Q2) Autosomes are the majority of human chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Common lifecycles include haploid and diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a new kind of slug were found which had a system of sex determination just like that of humans,it would have
A)both sex chromosomes and autosomes.
B)both sex chromosomes and plasmids.
C)both sex chromosomes and asexual chromosomes..
D)both X and Z chromosomes.
E)both autosomes and Y chromosomes.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) If a biologist wanted to manually cross-fertilize two pea plants,which of the following steps must be taken?
A)transfer pollen from one plant to the other B)transfer a pea from one plant to the other C)transfer the egg from one plant to the other D)transfer the stigma from one plant to the other E)transfer the ovule from one plant to the other
Q2) When two different dominant alleles are both fully expressed in the phenotype,it is referred to as
A)incomplete dominance.
B)codominance.
C)genotype dominance.
D)polygenic dominance.
E)pleiotropic dominancE.
Q3) This figure shows a dihybrid cross.What does "c" represent?
A)short plant,yellow pod
B)tall plant,yellow pod
C)tall plant,green pod
D)short plant,green pod
E)short plant,purple pod
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Chapter 11: Molecular Biology of Inheritance
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Q1) During DNA replication,which enzyme is responsible for unzipping and unwinding the original molecule of DNA?
A)DNA polymerase
B)DNA ligase
C)helicase
D)DNA primer
E)RNA polymerase
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for building the mRNA transcript from individual nucleotides?
A)ligase
B)RNA polymerase
C)ribozymes
D)helicase
E)DNA polymerase
Q3) Which process precedes translation?
A)liberation of polypeptide from the ribosome
B)binding of tRNA molecules and ribosome
C)growth of a polypeptide chain
D)production of mRNA
E)attachment of a ribosome to mRNA
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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Activity
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Q1) What is the role of transcription factors?
A)binding heterochromatin to prevent transcription
B)binding promoter of a gene to start translation
C)binding promoter to start transcription
D)binding operator to prevent transcription
E)binding repressor to prevent transcription
Q2) Small RNA's have no effect on gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When insulin is initially synthesized,the polypeptide chain is too long and must have a part cleaved off.What type of regulation of gene expression is this?
A)post-translational control
B)chromatin regulation
C)post-transcriptional control
D)transcriptional control
E)translational control
Q4) The enzyme which copies DNA at the start of expression is DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) This figure shows how a human gene can be cloned.What does "A" represent?
A)Restriction enzyme cleaves DNA.
B)Bacterium take up recombinant plasmid.
C)DNA ligase seals the gene into place.
D)Bacterium makes a protein.
E)Gene cloning occurs.
Q2) Which technique would a biologist use to insert genes into eggs by hand?
A)DNA ligase insertion
B)vortex mixing
C)polymerase chain reaction
D)restriction enzyme insertion
E)microinjection
Q3) If you were studying functional genomics,you would be most interested in
A)the application of computer technologies to study human proteins.
B)the role of the genome in cells or organisms.
C)the evolution of a species and how genes and noncoding regions function.
D)the structure,function,and interactions of noncoding genes.
E)the application of computer technologies to study the genomE.
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Chapter 14: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Which population of butterflies is more likely to show the effects of genetic drift if half of its members are killed by a severe drought?
A)4 butterflies
B)40 butterflies
C)160 butterflies
D)4,000 butterflies
E)16,000 butterflies
Q2) The type of selection where two or more extreme phenotypes are favored is referred to as
A)disruptive selection.
B)directional selection.
C)genetic drift selection.
D)stabilizing selection.
E)adaptive selection.
Q3) DNA sequences that differ by a single nucleotide are termed
A)mutations.
B)single nucleotide polymorphisms.
C)gentoypes.
D)gene pools.
E)heterozygotes.
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Chapter 15: Speciation and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following types of organisms would be found in unusually great numbers in the Burgess Shale?
A)fish
B)soft-bodied invertebrates
C)dinosaurs
D)amphibians
E)mammals
Q2) Which of these statements is true for something other than autoploidy?
A)It is how a clone is produced.
B)A diploid gamete fuses with a haploid gamete.
C)The result is triploid.
D)The offspring is sterile.
E)It occurs in plants.
Q3) Which of the following genes is important in the development of limb buds?
A)<i>Tbx5</i>
B)<i>Evo9</i>
C)<i>Pax6</i>
D)<i>Hox</i>
E)<i>Pax2</i>
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Chapter 16: The Evolutionary History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is referred to as A)analogy.
B)phylogeny.
C)taxonomy.
D)homology.
E)cladology.
Q2) During which span of geologic time did the dinosaurs appear and flourish?
A)Tertiary
B)Permian
C)Mesozoic
D)Carboniferous
E)Cenozoic
Q3) The broadest divisions on the geologic timescale are A)centuries.
B)epochs.
C)millennia.
D)eras.
E)periods.
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) Viruses reproduce by A)conjugation.
B)exchanging gametes.
C)exchanging genes.
D)using the metabolic machinery of the host cell.
E)binary fission.
Q2) You are using a microscope to examine a culture of bacteria and you observe that they are all rod shaped.Based on this observation you would conclude that they are A)cocci.
B)helical.
C)bacilli.
D)rounD.
E)spirilla.
Q3) Archaea which live in high-salt concentrations are referred to as A)thermophiles.
B)acidophiles.
C)methanophiles.
D)cyanophiles.
E)halophiles.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Evolution of Protists
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Q1) You are at the beach and collect some "leafy"-looking multicellular green algae.When you return home you consult a field guide on marine organisms and determine that you collected
A)<i>Ulva</i>
B)<i>Volvox</i>
C)<i>Laminaria</i>
D)<i>Chlamydomonas</i>
E)<i>Spirogyra</i>
Q2) If you were writing a paper on the beneficial aspects of the protists for humans and the environment,which of the following would be excluded from your paper?
A)They have a parasitic relationship with some organisms
B)They can give off oxygen
C)They can be a major component of plankton
D)They can form symbiotic relationships with corals
E)They serve as a food source for many organisms
Q3) All diseases caused by protozoans must be transmitted by a vector.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following are nonvascular plants?
A)ferns
B)pine trees
C)mosses
D)oak trees
E)grasses
Q2) Which of the following types of plants will produce a naked seed?
A)mosses
B)ferns
C)algae
D)gymnosperms
E)angiosperms
Q3) In a fern,the spores are produced through the process of mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Organisms in which the mouth appears at or near the blastopore are referred to as A)acoelomates.
B)deuterostomes.
C)pseudocoelomates.
D)coelomates.
E)protostomes.
Q2) Which statement applies only to groups other than animals?
A)They are chemoheterotrophs.
B)They are multicellular and unicellular.
C)They undergo developmental stages that produce specialized tissues and organs.
D)They usually reproduce sexually.
E)They have muscles and nerves which give them movement and coordination.
Q3) The amphibians' unique contribution to the evolution of land vertebrates was
A)respiration by gills.
B)respiration through the skin.
C)the leathery waterproof egg shell.
D)the development of the tail for propulsion.
E)the ability to move onto land.
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Chapter 21: Evolution of Humans
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Q1) Which statement reverses a trend seen during primate evolution?
A)It is associated with an increased age of sexual maturity.
B)It is associated with an extended life.
C)It is associated with multiple offspring from every pregnancy.
D)It is associated with a lengthy gestation perioD.
E)It is associated with an extended period of juvenile dependency.
Q2) Which statement would have first driven the evolution of bipedalism in hominids?
A)It can lead to spinal strain.
B)It can lead to backaches.
C)It allowed hominids to see farther.
D)It evolved before hominids had left the trees.
E)It frees up hands for tool usE.
Q3) The term mosaic evolution is best described by which of the following?
A)The same species evolve in different parts of the world.
B)Different body parts evolve at different rates.
C)Different species hybridize to form a new species.
D)One species evolves into two or more species.
E)Different species evolve at different rates.
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Chapter 22: Plant Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) If you were studying the regions of the plant where leaves are attached to the stem you would be studying
A)the internodes.
B)the terminal buds.
C)the leaf blades.
D)the nodes.
E)the vascular tissues.
Q2) A plant physiologist is studying the primary meristem that gives rise to the epidermis,implying studying of the A)leaf primordiA.
B)pith.
C)protoderm.
D)vascular cambium.
E)cork cambium.
Q3) Most plants have a body divided into two main parts which are
A)the leaf system and the stem system.
B)the shoot system and the root system.
C)the stem system and the root system.
D)the root system and the leaf system.
E)the branch system and the stem system.
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Chapter 23: Transport and Nutrition in Plants
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Q1) The build up of root pressure which forces water up the root mostly takes place under which of the following conditions?
A)during bright sunny days
B)during the night
C)during cloudy days
D)only on rainy days
E)only when the soil is dry
Q2) Which of the following is a macronutrient rather than a micronutrient?
A)Molybdenum (Mo)
B)Boron (B)
C)Manganese (Mn)
D)Chlorine (Cl)
E)Calcium (Ca)
Q3) A biologist is studying the organisms which live in the root nodules found in plants which are called
A)fungi.
B)protists.
C)small parasitic plants.
D)insects.
E)bacteria.
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Chapter 24: Control of Growth Responses in Plants
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Q1) When a leaf loses its natural color,it would most likely be undergoing an aging process called
A)dormancy.
B)gravitropism.
C)abscission.
D)senescence.
E)turgor movement.
Q2) Which comes after a plant's first line of defense?
A)the cuticle
B)chemical toxins
C)thorns
D)spines
E)trichomes
Q3) Which of the following is an effect of a plant hormone other than ethylene?
A)promotes stem elongation
B)suppresses stem elongation
C)suppresses auxiliary bud development
D)suppresses root elongation
E)promotes ripening
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Reproduction in Plants
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Q1) If you were a plant anatomist studying the stages of embryonic development in plants when the cotyledons begin to appear and rapid cell division takes place,what stage would you be studying?
A)globular
B)heart
C)mature
D)torpedo
E)proembryo
Q2) The process by which the microspore and the megaspore are produced is A)mitosis.
B)fertilization.
C)sporogenesis.
D)meiosis.
E)pollination.
Q3) The function of the endosperm is to A)form the seedling.
B)surround the embryo.
C)provide water to the embryo.
D)provide nutrients to the embryo.
E)provide a protective coating for the embryo.
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Chapter 26: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?
A)They support neurons
B)They help neurons divide
C)They engulf bacteria
D)They form myelin
E)They nourish neurons
Q2) A biologist is studying the deepest layer of skin which is composed of loose connective tissue and adipose tissue.Based on this information,you would conclude that he or she is studying which layer of or associated with the skin?
A)Dermis
B)Cuboidal
C)Subcutaneous
D)Basement
E)Epidermis
Q3) The heart,lungs,and blood vessels make up the cardiovascular system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The kangaroo rat does not need to drink water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Coordination by Neural Signaling
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Q1) The part of the human brain which is responsible for controlling homeostasis is:
A)The cerebrum
B)The thalamus
C)The pons
D)The pineal gland
E)The hypothalamus
Q2) Dendrites:
A)Carry impulses away from a cell body
B)Are always myelinated
C)Are found only in the central nervous system
D)Are solely responsible for nervous conduction
E)Carry impulses toward a cell body
Q3) This figure shows the parts of a motor neuron.What does "e" represent?
A)Axon terminal
B)Cell body
C)Node of Ranvier
D)Schwann cell
E)Dendrite
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29
Chapter 28: Sense Organs
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Q1) If you were studying modified neurons which are responsible for the sense of smell,you would be studying which of the following?
A)Olfactory cells
B)Olfactory buds
C)Olfactory tracts
D)Olfactory bulbs
E)Olfactory microvilli
Q2) This figure shows the anatomy of the human eye.What does "b" represent?
A)The lens
B)The sclera
C)The cornea
D)The optic nerve
E)The retina
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the inner ear?
A)The semicircular canals
B)The cochlear nerve
C)The cochlea
D)The stapes
E)The vestibular nerve
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) If you were studying the structures which connect bone to bone you would be studying which of the following?
A)Bursae
B)Ligaments
C)Cartilage
D)Tendons
E)Menisci
Q2) Which of the following is not a correct association in the pelvic girdle and the lower limbs?
A)Fibula-lower leg
B)Phalanges-toes
C)Patella-knee cap
D)Coxal bones-hips
E)Tibia-upper leg
Q3) In general,one muscle does most of the work moving a bone and is referred to as:
A)A myofibril
B)An antagonist
C)A motor unit
D)The prime mover
E)Rigor mortis
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Chapter 30: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) This figure shows the anatomy of the mammalian heart.What does "e" represent?
A)The aorta
B)The superior vena cava
C)The right atrium
D)The left ventricle
E)The pulmonary trunk
Q2) The hepatic portal system takes blood from the intestines to the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The part of the circulation involved with carrying blood to and from the lungs is the:
A)Systemic circuit
B)Internal respiration circuit
C)Microcirculation circuit
D)Pulmonary circuit
E)ECG circuit
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Chapter 31: Lymph Transport and Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is specifically responsible for antibody-mediated immunity?
A)T cells
B)B cells
C)Platelets
D)Red blood cells
E)Complement cells
Q2) If you were studying disorders that are classified by the failure of the immune system to distinguish between foreign tissue and the self-antigens which make up the bodies own tissue you would be studying which of the following?
A)Antibody-mediated disorders
B)Anaphylactic disorders
C)Autoimmune disorders
D)Monoclonal disorders
E)Self-antigen disorders
Q3) Immunization involves inserting foreign antibodies into a person to stimulate a mild immune response.
A)True
B)False
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33
Chapter 32: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) If you were studying the phase of the digestion process which can be broken down further into mechanical and chemical subdivisions,you would be studying which of the following?
A)Elimination
B)Ingestion
C)Defecation
D)Absorption
E)Digestion
Q2) Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the:
A)Pharynx
B)Larynx
C)Epiglottis
D)Glottis
E)Sphincter muscle
Q3) This figure shows the phases of digestion.What does "C" represent?
A)Digestion
B)Defecation
C)Ingestion
D)Absorption
E)Elimination
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Chapter 33: Gas Exchange and Transport in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is easier for animals to obtain oxygen from water than from air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aortic and carotid bodies are:
A)The same as the SA and AV nodes
B)Types of valves in the heart
C)Present in the lungs
D)Sensitive to changes in carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions in the blood
E)Sensitive to oxygen changes
Q3) In humans,the lungs are caused to deflate when the:
A)Rib muscles contract
B)Diaphragm muscles contract
C)Rib muscles and diaphragm contract
D)Diaphragm relaxes
E)Rib muscles and diaphragm relax
Q4) During inspiration the diaphragm contracts and moves down.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following waste products take the most energy to produce?
A)Ammonia
B)Carbon dioxide
C)Uric acid
D)Urea
E)Water
Q2) A biologist is studying organisms which excrete ammonia.Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which of the following?
A)Birds
B)Mammals
C)Sharks
D)Bony fish
E)Reptiles
Q3) What is the correct flow of urine from production to elimination from the body?
A)Kidneys - urethra - ureter - urinary bladder
B)Kidneys - ureter - urinary bladder - urethra
C)Kidneys - urethra - urinary bladder - ureter
D)Urethra - ureter - kidneys - urinary bladder
E)Urethra - urinary bladder - ureters - kidneys
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Chapter 35: Coordination by Hormone Signaling
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Q1) Which of the following hormones causes the reabsorption of water by the kidneys?
A)Melatonin
B)Insulin
C)Antidiuretic hormone
D)Oxytocin
E)Calcitonin
Q2) The anterior pituitary does not stimulate the:
A)Thyroid
B)Adrenal cortex
C)Testes and ovaries
D)Mammary glands
E)Adrenal medulla
Q3) Which of the following is not true about hormones?
A)Hormones are made by glands that have ducts
B)Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream
C)Hormones may be used at a far distance from where the hormone is made
D)Hormones have a slower effect than that mediated by the nervous system
E)Hormones bind to receptor sites at a target cell
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Chapter 36: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following procedures would decrease a man's chance of impregnating a woman,yet still leave him the potential to produce children later in life?
A)If the man had his vas deferens surgically severed
B)If the man had his testicles removed
C)If the man had his epididymis removed
D)If the man had his seminal vesicle removed
E)None of these methods would decrease his chances of impregnating a woman but still leave him the potential to produce children later in lifE.
Q2) Which of the following is true about amphibian reproduction?
A)There is usually a larval stage.
B)The embryos develop within the female.
C)The eggs develop within a placental saC.
D)Internal fertilization is common.
E)The eggs have a hard shell.
Q3) Sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity in a population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Q1) The nonliving resources in the environment are referred to as abiotic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you were studying the place where an organism lives,you would be studying its:
A)Habitat
B)Community
C)Biosphere
D)Ecosystem
E)Population
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)The growth rate for LDCs is still growing
B)The growth rate for MDCs has now stabilized
C)Approximately half of the human population live in LDCs
D)People in LDCs are often underfed and live in poverty
E)The LDCs are not fully industrialized
Q4) Density-independent means the mortality increases as density of population increase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) If you were studying a very rapid kind of communication that works even at a distance and in the dark you would be studying which of the following?
A)Chemical communication
B)Auditory communication
C)Visual communication
D)Tactile communication
E)Pheromone communication
Q2) If you were studying the nest-building behavior of two populations of birds and hybrid birds you would observe that:
A)The hybrids showed a behavior intermediate between the behaviors of the parents
B)The nest-building behavior was completely random
C)The hybrid was the best at nest building
D)No learning at all occurred with this type of behavior
E)All of the birds began building their nests in the most efficient way
Q3) Direct selection is adaptation to the environment due to the reproductive success of an individual.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) In a grazing food chain:
A)Secondary consumers eat detritus
B)Secondary consumers will only eat photosynthetic organisms
C)Primary consumers eat detritus
D)Primary consumers eat photosynthetic organisms
E)All the consumers are primary consumers
Q2) What human activities have affected the phosphorus cycle and led to eutrophication of the waterways?
A)Destroying tropical rain forests by "slash and burn"
B)Driving numerous fuel-guzzling automobiles
C)Producing increased PO<sub>4</sub> gases,leading to greenhouse effect
D)Relying on solar and wind energy sources
E)Using fertilizer and detergents containing phosphates
Q3) Which of the following is correct in a predator-prey cycle?
A)Predators will always cause the prey to go extinct
B)A decline in the number of prey causes a decline in the number of predators
C)A decline in the number of predators causes a decline in the number of prey
D)An increase in the number of predators triggers an increase in the number of prey
E)Generally prey are unaffected by predators
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the taiga?
A)There is a relatively high amount of rainfall
B)The taiga contains all the typical deciduous trees
C)The typical animals of the taiga are small so that they can burrow to get away from the heat
D)The taiga has a well-developed understory
E)The taiga circles the Earth in the Northern hemisphere
Q2) Which ecosystem with fertile soil has been mainly converted into agricultural farmlands for human use?
A)Tropical rain forest
B)Tundra
C)Desert
D)Temperate grasslands
E)Taiga
Q3) This figure shows a coastal ocean ecosystem.What does "a" represent?
A)The intertidal zone
B)The continental shelf
C)The deep sea water
D)The pelagic zone
E)The euphotic zone
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Chapter 41: Conservation Biology
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Q1) An organism which is not normally found in an ecosystem,a nonnative member,is referred to as:
A)An endemic species
B)A native species
C)An alien species
D)A keystone species
E)A threatened species
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible outcome of global climate change?
A)Glaciers will melt
B)Ocean temperatures will increase
C)Ecosystems will be forced to move north
D)Sea level will rise
E)The ozone layer will become thinner
Q3) Regions of the world that contain large concentrations of species are referred to as:
A)Biodiversity hotspots
B)Biodiversity landscapes
C)Biodiversity ecosystems
D)Biodiversity communities
E)Biodiversity populations
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Page 43