Course Introduction
General Biology Practice Exam
General Biology offers an introduction to the fundamental principles of life sciences, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers key concepts in cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, providing an understanding of how biological systems operate at molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecological levels. Through lectures, laboratory investigations, and discussions, students gain essential skills in scientific reasoning and an appreciation of the processes that govern life, laying a foundation for more advanced studies in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The choice of whether a particular organism belongs to the experimental group or the control group should be based on
A) age.
B) size.
C) chance.
D) history.
E) gender.
Answer: C
Q2) In an experiment, the control group is:
A) not subjected to experimental error.
B) exposed to experimental treatments.
C) maintained under strict laboratory conditions.
D) treated exactly the same as the experimental group, except for one variable.
E) statistically the most important part of the experiment.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) "Acidic" is an appropriate description for four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) excess hydrogen ions
B) the contents of the stomach
C) magnesium hydroxide
D) HCl
E) a pH less than 7
Answer: C
Q2) The nucleus of an atom contains ____.
A) neutrons and protons
B) neutrons and electrons
C) protons and electrons
D) protons only
E) neutrons only
Answer: A
Q3) The ability of a solution to resist changes in pH depends on its ____________________ capacity.
Answer: buffering
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholesterol ____.
A) has a rigid backbone of four nitrogen rings
B) is the most common steroid in animal tissue
C) is a lipid with a fatty-acid component
D) is needed to inhibit sexual development and maturity
E) is needed to lubricate feathers
Answer: B
Q2) triglyceride
A)glucose
B)nucleotide
C)fatty acid
D)amino acid
Answer: C
Q3) A denatured protein has lost its _____________________.
Answer: 3D structure
three dimensional structure
Q4) Write the empirical formula for a carbohydrate.
Answer: (CH O)n
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) plasma membrane
Q2) These are the most stable cytoskeletal elements.
A)microtubules
B)microfilaments
C)intermediate filaments
D)motor proteins
E)cilium
F)flagellum
G)pseudopods
Q3) Aerobic respiration occurs in this organelle.
A)ribosome
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosome
D)Golgi body
E)endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) pair of centrioles
Q5) A number of ____________________ cover the rough ER.
Q6) Chart the path of molecules of a secreted protein beginning at the DNA for a eukaryote.
Q7) lysosome
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) Energy is commonly defined as ____.
A) a form of heat
B) thermodynamics
C) the capacity to change
D) the capacity to do work
E) the ability to do work
Q2) What type of energy is the energy in chemical bonds?
A) solar energy
B) activation energy
C) kinetic energy
D) potential energy
E) thermal energy
Q3) This process occurs when an electron transport molecule gives up an electron.
A)oxidation
B)reduction
C)phosphorylation
D)electron transport chain
Q4) The enzyme that works in conjunction with ATP to produce bioluminescence is called ____________________.
Q5) The loss of an electron by a molecule is called ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) chlorophyll b
A)Peak A
B)Peak B
C)Peak C
D)Peak D
E)Peak E
Q2) The best light to grow the alga in is ____, according to the figure.
A) blue-violet
B) blue-green
C) green-yellow
D) yellow-orange
E) orange-red
Q3) The first stable compound produced from CO in the light-independent reaction is
A) phosphoglycerate (PGA)
B) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
C) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
D) O
E) NADP+
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Page 8
Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) In this process, the net energy yield is equal to two molecules of ATP, and the final product is ethanol.
A)glycolysis
B)aerobic respiration
C)electron transfer phosphorylation
D)alcoholic fermentation
E)lactate fermentation
Q2) Fats provide more energy than carbohydrates because they ____.
A) are larger molecules
B) require more oxidation reactions to breakdown fully
C) are hydrophilic
D) are liquid
E) are partially oxidized initially
Q3) Which of the following has the greatest total energy?
A) cAMP
B) ADP
C) ATP
D) glucose
E) NADPH
Q4) During alcoholic fermentation, ____________________ is converted into ethanol.
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) The accompanying figure best illustrates ____.
A) DNA repair
B) semiconservative replication
C) the action of the ligases
D) the binding of initiator proteins
E) DNA hybridization
Q2) Which scientist(s) identified the transforming substance involved in changing harmless (R) bacteria to lethal (S) bacteria?
A) Avery and McCarty
B) Griffith
C) Chargaff
D) Hershey and Chase
E) Pauling
Q3) Three hydrogen bonds connect guanine to __________ in the DNA molecule.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q4) Is it possible to prevent mutations entirely?
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) This codon terminates a coding region.
A)AUG
B)UAA
C)UUU
D)UUA
E)AAA
Q2) Ricin is a(n)
A) substance found in castor bean seeds.
B) polysaccharide extracted from rice.
C) ingredient in many paints and cosmetics.
D) protein that inactivates ribosomes.
E) substance found in castor bean seeds and a protein that inactivates ribosomes.
Q3) The sequence of amino acids specified by this mRNA (AUGCGUCCA) is
A) serine - histidine - lysine.
B) methionine - arginine - proline.
C) methionine - alanine - serine.
D) valine - arginine - leucine.
E) valine - proline - methionine.
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) transport control
A)influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural gene
B)splicing, capping, and adding a poly-A tail
C)nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
D)phosphorylation of translated protein
E)dosage compensation
Q2) When cells stop responding to normal controls over growth and division they
A) begin to form a tumor.
B) produce a malignancy.
C) start to die.
D) kill surrounding cells.
E) produce scar tissue.
Q3) A mammalian female's
A) cells usually have multiple Barr bodies.
B) body is a mosaic for the X-linked traits she inherits.
C) Barr bodies are active in some cells.
D) Barr bodies are produced after puberty.
E) X-linked recessive genes are always expressed because of the deactivation of an X chromosome in each cell.
Q4) The __________ governs expression of three genes active in lactose metabolism.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase do sister chromatids separate?
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) metaphase
Q2) The unique feature of HeLa cells that make them important for research is that they are
A) identical to all other human cells.
B) immortal cells and will grow in culture.
C) limited in growth cycles.
D) identical to stem cells.
E) cannot propagate.
Q3) period prior to mitosis
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q4) The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) Fertilization of plant gametes produces a A) zygote.
B) gametophyte.
C) spore.
D) meiospore.
E) multicellular haploid plant.
Q2) What would happen if sister chromatids did not break apart during anaphase of mitosis?
Q3) All of the microtubules are the same length, and homologous chromosomes are aligned midway between the spindle poles at ____.
A) telophase I
B) metaphase I
C) anaphase I
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase II
Q4) __________ are regions in an organism's DNA that encode information about heritable traits.
Q5) Sexual reproduction has many benefits from a genetic standpoint. Can you think of any downside to sexual reproduction?
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE of cystic fibrosis?
A) It results in reduced mucus production.
B) It leads to increased bacterial lung infections.
C) It affects the amino acid alanine.
D) It causes excess water to leave the cells.
E) It most often affects the liver.
Q2) A homozygous recessive where "A" represents the trait has two recessive alleles symbolized by __________.
Q3) Which is easier to establish in a pure-breeding population, a dominant or a recessive gene?
Q4) Which of the following is associated with Marfan syndrome?
A) lanky, loose jointed skeleton
B) reduced eye sight
C) calcium deposits in the liver
D) excessive production of red blood cells
E) skin becomes elastic
Q5) __________ refers to an individual's observable traits.
Q6) Tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d). If a true-breeding tall plant is crossed with a true-breeding dwarf plant, give the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the F2generation.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) Color blindness is an X-linked recessive gene. Two normal-vision parents produce a color-blind child.
(a)Is this child male or female?
(b)What are the genotypes of the parents?
(c)What are the chances that their next child will be a color-blind daughter?
Q2) Polyploidy can be described as ____.
A) only occurring artificially
B) only occurring when there is one set of chromosomes
C) fatal to all living things
D) occurring in about 20% of flowering plants
E) fatal in humans but common in flowering plants
Q3) Achondroplasia ____.
A) is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition
B) affects about one in one million people
C) affects only homozygotes
D) is characterized by abnormally short arms and legs
E) is inherited as an X-linked disorder
Q4) Which nondisjunction disorder must be due to an event in sperm development: XO, XXX, XXY or XYY?
Q5) The human has __________ sets of autosomal chromosomes.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme joins the paired sticky ends of DNA fragments?
A) reverse transcriptase
B) restriction enzyme
C) DNA ligase
D) DNA polymerase
E) polynucleotide kinase
Q2) The goal of eugenics is to ____.
A) select the most desirable human characteristics
B) eliminate genetic disorders that reach a certain threshold in terms of their costs to individuals and society
C) produce genetically identical humans.
D) eliminate genes for abnormal behavior.
E) produce genetically perfect people.
Q3) SNP-chips are used ____.
A) to sequence DNA.
B) in DNA profiling
C) for full genome sequencing
D) in PCR
E) with short tandem repeat profiling
Q4) How could personal DNA testing be beneficial to medicine?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The geologic time scale is often subdivided on the basis of ____.
A) the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata
B) levels of background extinction
C) periods of mass extinction
D) the appearance of new species
E) climate change
Q2) Which fossil would be the oldest in a given strata and why?
Q3) Which scenario would be a modern example of Lamarckianism?
A) A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges.
B) Squirrels separated by a river are found to be unable to interbreed.
C) A son is born with a portion of his right index finger missing--the same portion that was severed from his father's hand in an accident.
D) A species of lizards shows changes in diet and body shape after being moved to a nearby island.
E) Snails are found to have thicker shells after the introduction of a predator.
Q4) Based on what we know today, what is the best explanation for why the emu, ostrich, and rhea are so similar despite being geographically separated?
Q5) Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?
Q6) ____________________ are evidence of life in the distant past.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) Stabilizing selection occurs when
A) the environment controls which organisms will survive.
B) humans determine which organisms will survive.
C) the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
D) the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
E) the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
Q2) __________ selection favors intermediate forms of a trait where __________ selection favors extreme forms.
Q3) This process can rapidly offset the effects of genetic isolation when two populations come into secondary contact.
A)Mutation
B)gene flow
C)genetic drift
D)natural selection
Q4) __________ counters the effects of mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift.
Q5) __________ species of many plants (and a few animals) originated by chromosome doublings and hybridizations.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) Phylogeny research is LEAST likely to include which type of analysis?
A) genetic
B) anatomical
C) behavioral
D) physiological
E) direct observation of evolution
Q2) Why do scientists favor the clade in which derived traits evolve the fewest times?
Q3) Which of the following are examples of homologous structures?
A) whale flipper and cat leg
B) human eye and octopus eye
C) bird and insect wings
D) body shape of sharks and dolphins
E) penguin wing and fish fin
Q4) Mutations in genes that affect __________ may cause morphological shifts in a lineage.
Q5) __________ is the science of making hypotheses about evolutionary relationships among clades.
Q6) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.
Q7) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) What is the most probable basis for the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) Bacteria can be taken up by host cells.
B) Light is an energy source.
C) ATP can carry energy.
D) Oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
E) Energy can be transformed from one form to another.
Q2) The area in which there is a spark discharge in the accompanying figure represents ____.
A) sunlight energy in the environment.
B) heat energy in the environment.
C) electrical energy in the environment.
D) ionizing radiation in the environment.
E) the explosion of the hydrogen gas to release energy for the reactions.
Q3) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
Q4) Proteins that speed metabolic reactions might have first formed when reactants could have begun interacting inside tiny holes in rocks near deep-sea __________.
Q5) According to the __________, the universe formed about 13 to 15 billion years ago and is still expanding.
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Which prokaryotic nutritional groups uses CO and sunlight to produce energy?
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) photoheterotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
E) methanoheterotrophs
Q2) Some viruses cause disease; they act as __________ in humans.
Q3) Which prokaryotic nutritional group use organic substances for carbon and photons for energy?
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) photoheterotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
E) methanoheterotrophs
Q4) What component is located on the exterior surface of a prokaryote?
A) flagellum
B) cytoplasm
C) plasma membrane
D) DNA
E) nucleoid
22
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Four of the following are shared characteristics of parabasalids and diplomonads. Which is the exception?
A) heterotrophy
B) flagella
C) oxygen-poor or anaerobic habitats
D) abundant mitochondria
E) presence of a pellicle
Q2) Some protists have complex life cycles and change between the haploid and diploid state. This process is called __________ of _________.
Q3) Describe the relationship of protists to the major groups of eukaryotes.
Q4) Which feature is shared by euglenoids and kinetoplastids?
A) an eyespot
B) flagellated
C) photoautotrophy
D) parasitic existence
E) marine and freshwater habitats
Q5) Are humans responsible for neurotoxic shellfish poisoning? Why or why not?
Q6) Why is malaria such an effective disease?
Q7) Euglenoids live in freshwater; a(n) __________ rids them of excess water.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Why do ferns only thrive in moist environments?
Q2) Which numbered item in the accompanying figure above represents microspores?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) Which of the photographs in the above figure is an angiosperm?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) both C and D
Q4) Although we know of threats to about ____ wild plant species, the actual number is likely much higher.
A) 5,000
B) 7,000
C) 12,000
D) 37,000
E) 130,000
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) The structure labeled "2" in the figure is a(n) ____.
A) mycelium
B) zygote
C) ascus
D) gill from the underside of a mushroom
E) spore sac
Q2) The fungus Puccinia graminis causes the disease ____.
A) powdery mildew
B) wilt
C) wheat blight
D) wheat stem rust
E) flame spot
Q3) Penicillium, the source of antibiotics, is a member of this group.
A)Zygomycetes
B)Ascomycetes
C)Basidiomycetes
D)Glomeromycetes
Q4) You have discovered a fungus that has septate hyphae and is partnered with a photosynthetic cell. What type of fungus is it, and how do you know this?
Q5) __________ fungi include common molds.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) Four of the following are chelicerates. Which one is the exception?
A) Tick
B) mosquito
C) spider
D) horseshoe crab
E) scorpion
Q2) Trilobites were members of this phylum.
A)Porifera
B)Cnidaria
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Nematoda
E)Annelida
Q3) In __________, an anus forms first.
Q4) Explain how insects are both essential for, and detrimental to agriculture
Q5) Rotifers take their name from ____.
A) their tumbling movements through the water
B) actions of cilia on their head
C) their radial symmetry
D) their elaborate digestive system
E) rotational action around the central body axis
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) birds
A)cartilaginous skeleton; jaws
B)reptile with four-chambered heart
C)placental mammal
D)legless amphibian
E)invertebrate chordate; no metamorphosis
F)endotherm with feathers
G)limbless reptile
H)most primitive fishes with jaws; extinct
I)modern-day parasitic jawless vertebrate
J)marsupial
K)adult is called "sea squirt"
L)egg-laying mammal
M)swim bladder for buoyancy
N)may be sexually mature in larval form
Q2) Members of this class are fully terrestrial except for reproduction.
A)cartilaginous fishes
B)bony fishes
C)amphibians
D)reptilians
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Compared to modern humans, Neanderthals were ____.
A) skinnier
B) shorter
C) more numerous
D) more widely dispersed
E) small brained
Q2) Homo sapiens
A) shorter than modern humans, but stood upright; stocky body adapted to colder climates
B) arose in Africa about 2 million years ago; had a significantly larger brain than earlier hominins and a gait similar to modern humans.
C) modern humans since 195,000 years ago
D) Lucy; lived about 3.2 million years ago
Q3) This species was the first Homo species definitely known to use tools.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
Q4) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) This tissue gives rise to protoderm and procambium.
A)primary meristems
B)ground meristem
C)pericycle
D)vascular cambium
Q2) One way in which monocots and eudicots differ is in ____.
A) having the capacity to bear seeds
B) their types of tissues
C) their organ systems
D) their pattern of tissue organization
E) having vascular bundles
Q3) The seeds are located inside the structure labeled __________.
Q4) Most of the plant body is composed of ____.
A) dermal tissue
B) root tissue
C) ground tissue
D) vascular tissue
E) cork tissue
Q5) Secondary growth (thickening) arises from ____________________.
Q6) Photosynthetic parenchyma is called ____________________.
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Organisms that are used to decontaminate soils ____.
A) cannot store pollutants in their tissues
B) cannot release pollutants into the air
C) do not degrade pollutants
D) typically die from the pollutants
E) release pollutants into the air and/or degrade the pollutants
Q2) mycorrhiza
A)responsible for opening and closing of stomata
B)region of a plant where sugars are being used
C)pipelines of the xylem
D)a mutually beneficial association between a fungus and a root
E)structures on roots that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria
F)pipelines of the phloem
G)evaporation of water from stems and leaves
H)provide metabolic functions necessary to sustain its paired sieve element
I)control the uptake of mineral ions into the vascular cylinder
J)transport of organic molecules from source region to sink
K)a waxy band that prevents water from diffusing through endodermal cell walls
Q3) What are guard cells and how are they able to control the opening and closing of stomata.
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) Which of the following structures gives rise to endosperm?
A) zygote formed from the fusion of a sperm and an egg
B) triploid cell formed during double fertilization
C) inner wall of the ovary
D) cytoplasm of the megaspore
E) cytoplasm of the microspore
Q2) A flower that lacks one or more of the four types of modified leaves is referred to as ____.
A) perfect
B) imperfect
C) complete
D) incomplete
E) irregular
Q3) Which flower trait is associated with butterfly pollination?
A) bowl-shaped, closed during the day
B) strong, musty smells emitted at night
C) absence of nectar
D) dull flower colors, such as white or green
E) bright flower colors, such as red and purple
Q4) Many species of flowering plants reproduce asexually by __________.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) This hormone inhibits formation of lateral roots.
A)auxins
B)gibberellins
C)cytokinins
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
Q2) This hormone is a gas that promotes ripening.
A)auxins
B)gibberellins
C)cytokinins
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
Q3) The effect of directional growth shown in the accompanying figure is known to be caused by ____.
A) thigmotropism
B) gravitropism
C) abscisic acid
D) salicylic acid
E) vernalization
Q4) Explain how gibberellin "removes the brakes" from some cellular processes.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) hair
Q2) Which system produces red blood cells?
A) endocrine
B) skeletal
C) muscular
D) immune
E) integumentary
Q3) As of 2014, a new clinical study in the United States is testing whether cells derived from IPSCs can reverse ____.
A) spinal cord injuries
B) Parkinson's disease
C) muscular dystrophy
D) heart attacks
E) blindness
Q4) What is the primary function of the endocrine system?
A) conduction
B) contraction
C) hormonal control of the body
D) protection against disease
E) cell production
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) A neuron's __________ receive signals, and its __________ transmits signals.
Q2) white matter
A)integrates body position, motions, balance
B)in cnidarians; based on reflex pathways devoted to swimming and feeding
C)messages from here arouse the brain and maintain wakefulness
D)the cortical region that coordinates muscles required for speech
E)all parts of nerve cells outside the brain and spinal cord
F)acetylcholine is an example
G)reflex control center for breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
H)axons of the central nervous system that are sheathed with fatty myelin
I)at top of the brainstem bordering the cerebral hemispheres; influences learning and emotional behavior
J)motor neurons that are divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
K)membrane coverings over brain and spinal cord
L)part of the brainstem; plays roles in reward-basesd learning and voluntary movements
M)connects right and left cerebral hemispheres
N)group of nerve cell bodies that form an integrative center
O)contains centers concerned with body temperature regulation and with salt and water balance
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) pitch
A)relays action potentials from the ear to the brain
B)contains the organ of Corti
C)separates the outer and middle ears
D)membrane-covered gateway to inner ear
E)consists of tissue containing rods and cones
F)bone in middle ear
G)defined by peak height and valley depth of sound waves
H)helps maintain balance and position; detects acceleration
I)depends on the number of wave cycles per second
J)a substance that elicits a response in members of the same species
K)regulates size of pupil and amount of incoming light
Q2) Which analgesic relieves pain by mimicking the action of endorphins?
A) aspirin
B) ziconotide
C) NSAIDS
D) morphine
E) acetaminophen
Q3) Insects have a(n) __________ eye, with many individual units.
Q4) What would be the danger in lacking nociceptors?
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) parathyroid gland
Q2) adrenal glands
Q3) The __________ secretes aldosterone, which targets the kidney, and __________, the stress hormone.
Q4) adrenal cortex
A)secretes one hormone that increases the metabolic rate and another that inhibits calcium release from bone storage sites
B)secrete insulin and glucagon
C)secretes hormones that prepare accessory reproductive structures for reproduction
D)involved in lymphocyte maturation
E)secretes tropic hormones, growth hormone, and prolactin
F)secretes mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
G)secretes melatonin
H)two-lobed structure adjacent to the hypothalamus
I)releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone into bloodstream
J)secretes a hormone that promotes calcium release from bone storage sites
K)produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
L)secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
M)secrete pheromones, milk, tears, sweat, and mucus
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) threadlike protein structures consisting of contractile units arranged end to end; comprises the bulk of the muscle fiber
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
Q2) Why is back pain so common in humans?
Q3) Examples are the joints that connect the ribs to the sternum.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q4) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts at the body surface.
Q5) The __________ is the pelvic girdle, pectoral girdle, and paired limbs.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) __________ fills spaces between cells.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q2) The valve between "C" and "E" is the ____.
A) right AV valve
B) pulmonary vein
C) left AV valve
D) pulmonary valve
E) aortic valve
Q3) Most of the oxygen in the blood is transported by ____.
A) erythropoietin
B) prothrombin
C) platelets
D) hemoglobin
E) leukocytes
Q4) The SA node, also known as the __________ spontaneously generates the action potentials that set the pace for cardiac contractions.
Q5) Chart the path of blood through the heart, including the valves passed.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) The variable region of a light chain is indicated by ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Ig stands for __________.
Q3) __________ is the only disease to have been eradicated from causing natural infections.
Q4) Proteins produced by these attack bacteria and viruses in the blood.
A)antigens
B)antibodies
C)helper T cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)effector B cells
Q5) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.
Q6) __________ immunity specifically targets billions of different antigens.
Q7) __________ relieve allergy symptoms by dampening the effects of histamines.
Page 39
Q8) __________ refers to processes designed to induce immunity.
Q9) Why is it beneficial to urinate after sexual activity?
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) The most oxygenated blood is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Contraction of the diaphragm ____.
A) diminishes the volume of the thoracic cavity
B) increases the volume of the thoracic cavity
C) pushes the rib cage downward
D) causes external intercostal muscles to relax
E) decreases lung capacity
Q3) Total lung capacity is indicated by ____.
A) A + B
B) B + C
C) C + E
D) D + E
E) E + A
Q4) Invertebrates on land use __________ or __________ systems for gas exchange.
Page 41
Q5) Emphysema would have the greatest impact on which respiratory volume?
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) A villus are indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) An empty stomach increases its secretion of ____ to stimulate the appetite.
A) pepsinogen
B) ghrelin
C) gastric fluid
D) chyme
E) serosa
Q3) In addition to being an energy source, fats are used to make _____.
A) amino acids
B) nucleic acids
C) steroids
D) skin cells
E) carbohydrates
Q4) Saliva contains the enzyme __________, which begins the process of starch digestion.
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT influence the pH of extracellular fluids?
A) respiration
B) a high protein diet
C) bicarbonate ions
D) excretion of filtrates
E) phosphate and ammonia ions
Q2) Kidney __________ are small, tubular structures that interact with nearby capillaries to form urine.
Q3) The nephron begins in the ____.
A) glomerulus
B) loop of Henle
C) cortex
D) ureter
E) medulla
Q4) The urinary system helps to maintain the extracellular fluid pH by ____.
A) synthesizing buffers
B) retaining carbon dioxide in the filtrate
C) excreting excess hydrogen ions
D) combining hydrogen ions with urea
E) excreting filtrate
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
A) Sexual reproduction is faster than asexual reproduction.
B) Individual organisms do not have to seek mates.
C) Sexual reproduction promotes genetic variation.
D) Sexual reproduction is more energy efficient.
E) Individual organisms are protected from harmful mutations.
Q2) The ____ carries sperm away from the epididymis.
A) vas deferens
B) urethra
C) seminal vesicle
D) ejaculatory duct
E) prostate
Q3) The oviduct empties directly into the ____.
A) ovaries
B) uterus
C) vagina
D) cervix
E) follicle
Q4) anus
Q5) scrotum
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) Different cell lineages express different subsets of genes, resulting in _____.
A) epigenetics
B) selective genetics
C) differentiation
D) morphogenic
E) assimilation
Q2) The process that causes embryonic cells to produce signals that alter the behavior of neighboring cells is known as ____.
A) contact inhibition
B) ooplasmic localization
C) embryonic induction
D) pattern formation
E) gene splicing
Q3) __________, products of master genes, act as long-range signals that diffuse out from a source and form a concentration gradient.
Q4) __________ results in an early embryo that has three primary tissue layers.
Q5) Diffusion of morphogens influence the differential expression of other genes such as __________, which govern the formation of specific body parts.
Q6) During implantation, the __________ buries itself in the uterine wall.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The accompanying figure is of wolf behavior, which tells others _____.
A) to prepare for a fight
B) that the following behavior will be play
C) that the wolf is subordinate to whom he is bowing
D) that the following behavior will be aggressive
E) the wolf is ready to mate
Q2) Vocal signals are used by _____.
A) wolves
B) mice
C) snakes only
D) lizards only
E) snakes and lizards
Q3) What are some benefits for animals to live in groups?
Q4) Classical conditioning and operant conditioning differ in that they apply, respectively, to ____ and ____ behavior.
A) voluntary; involuntary
B) involuntary; voluntary
C) instinctive; learned
D) learned; instinctive
E) active; passive
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