General Biology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
General Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of biology, covering the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and interactive activities, students explore the processes that govern living organisms, their interactions with the environment, and the scientific methods used to study life. This course provides a strong foundation for further studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "heat" in chili peppers is due to a molecule called capsaicin.Suppose you breed only the hottest chili peppers over many generations-predict the characteristics of the resulting individuals.
A)larger fruits
B)smaller fruits
C)less capsaicin
D)more capsaicin
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following would not be a good reason for studying SSU RNA to understand the major branches in the evolutionary history of life?
A)This molecule is found in every species.
B)It is passed on through evolutionary history with only minor modifications.
C)It is a necessary part of the cellular machinery for reproduction and other purposes.
D)It mutates very frequently.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Carbon is an important element for biology because
A)of the variety of carbon skeletons and functional groups that can be built on them.
B)it has very high electronegativity and forms highly stable bonds.
C)carbon is so rare,organisms conserve it highly.
D)it has the ability to form six covalent bonds.
Answer: A
Q2) Why is water capable of forming hydrogen bonds?
A)The hydrogen atoms carry partial positive charges.
B)The oxygen atom carries a partial negative charge.
C)It is highly polar.
D)All of the above apply.
Answer: D
Q3) Why is water such a good solvent?
A)Most polar and charged substances dissolve in it.
B)It is highly polar.
C)It can participate in hydrogen bonds.
D)All of the above apply.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) The aquaporin family of proteins plays a major role in the transport of water all over the body.During the folding process of these proteins, -helices start forming as
A)part of the primary structure of the protein.
B)part of the secondary structure of the protein.
C)part of the tertiary structure of the protein.
D)part of the quaternary structure of the protein.
Answer: B
Q2) In interstellar space,millions of ice-encrusted dust particles contain simple carbon-containing compounds.When particles like these are exposed to solar radiation,more complex organic molecules form on the surfaces of the dust.What is the significance of these findings?
A)Chemical evolution occurs only in outer space and was not possible on Earth.
B)Life began in outer space.
C)Life exists in outer space.
D)Chemical evolution occurs readily in outer space.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Bartel's research group showed that an RNA replicase ribozyme could be created by
A)carefully synthesizing a novel ribozyme monomer by monomer based on the sequence of known ribozymes.
B)creating large numbers of random RNA segments and testing each one to see if any replicase activity was present.
C)starting with random components and allowing natural selection to evolve molecules that were better and better at replicating.
D)examining protein replicases and reverse-engineering an RNA molecule capable of doing the same job.
Q2) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?
A) -pleated sheet
B)double parallel helical strands
C)turn-loop-turn
D)double antiparallel helical strands
Q3) Is Nakano's quote consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?
A)yes
B)no
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A)the number of carbons
B)the position of the hydroxyl groups
C)the position of the carbonyl group
D)one is a ring form,the other is a linear chain
Q2) Synthesis of larger sugars has allowed us to study them more in depth.Which of the following are potential benefits/reasons why we would want to study oligosaccharides in detail?
A)Oligosaccharides are present on cell surfaces and are part of cell identity mechanisms.
B)Oligosaccharides are embedded in the cell membrane and help transport molecules across the membrane.
C)Oligosacchrides are one of the information molecules of the cell.
D)Oligosaccharides form the part of the membrane bilayer that controls membrane permeability.
Q3) In animals,the role of carbohydrate polymers is primarily
A)body protection.
B)information storage.
C)energy storage.
D)enzymes.
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Suppose some blood cells were in an isotonic solution.What would happen to them?
A)They would shrink.
B)They would expand.
C)They would remain the same size.
D)The outcome is not predictable.
Q2) What region of a steroid is hydrophilic?
A)the methyl (-CH )groups
B)the terminal hydroxyl group
C)the ring structures
D)the long hydrocarbon chain
Q3) You want to view the surface of a particular cell or tissue (group of related cells)at magnifications above 1000x.What tool would you use?
A)scanning electron microscope
B)transmission electron microscope
C)light microscope
D)confocal microscope
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus?
A)They are foreign proteins.
B)They lack nuclear localization signals (NLS).
C)They are defective proteins.
D)They have been tagged for destruction.
Q2) Flagella and cilia bend or move,imparting mobility to cells.How do these structures move?
A)The basal body at the base of the structure hydrolyzes ATP,causing a conformational change that results in movement of the cilium or flagellum.
B)Two microtubules at the core of the structure serve as motor proteins.
C)Axonemes are structured such that movement is constant.
D)Dynein is a motor protein that hydrolyzes ATP and is responsible for movement of the cilium or flagellum.
Q3) What is the most likely role of a cell that contains an extensive smooth ER?
A)It plays a role in storage.
B)It synthesizes large quantities of lipids.
C)It actively exports protein molecules.
D)It plays a role in immune function.
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) H.V.Wilson worked with sponges to gain some insight into exactly what was responsible for holding adjacent cells together.He exposed two species of differently pigmented sponges to a chemical that disrupted the cell-cell interaction.The cells of the sponges dissociated.Wilson mixed the cells of the two species and removed the chemical that caused the cells to dissociate.Wilson found the sponges reassembled into two separate species.The cells from one species did not interact or form associations with the cells of the other species.How do you explain the results of Wilson's experiments?
A)There are enzymes involved in the assembly of the sponge organism,and the two different species had two different enzymes functioning in reassembly.
B)The disassembled cells formed bonds with any of the cells in the mixture.However,once the organism was completely assembled,an enzyme changed all cells to the same pigment.
C)The molecules responsible for cell-cell adhesion were different in the two different species of sponge.
D)One cell functions as the nucleus for each organism,attracting only cells of the same pigment.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes the pathway shown above?
A)It is a catabolic pathway.
B)It is an anabolic pathway.
C)It is a set of reactions,each of which is exergonic.
D)It is a pathway that occurs in plants,algae,and some prokaryotes,but not in other organisms (such as animals,fungi).
Q2) C H O (glucose)+ 6O 6 CO + 6H O Where is most of the water in this reaction produced?
A)glycolysis
B)Krebs cycle
C)fermentation
D)electron transport chain
Q3) What is the function of coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle?
A)It is the coenzyme of carboxylation reactions.
B)It is the coenzyme of redox reactions.
C)It is a coenzyme of dehydration reactions.
D)It is the coenzyme of acetylation reactions.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) During a discussion of photosynthesis,you are given the following series of facts:
1.Photosystem P700 alone is involved.
2)Water-splitting is not occurring.
3)A proton gradient is created in the Thylakoid lumen.
To which of the following processes do these statements collectively refer?
A)linear electron transport
B)cyclic electron transport
C)the Calvin cycle
D)the Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle)
Q2) In photosynthesis,what is the role of water (H O)?
A)It accepts electrons liberated from the reaction centre of photosystem I.
B)It donates electrons to replace lost electrons in the reaction centre of photosystem II.
C)It provides the necessary H+ ions needed to reduce glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P).
D)It provides O2,the terminal electron acceptor for the electron transport chain.
E)It allows cyclic photophosphorylation to occur when ATP levels are low in the stroma.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) The microtubular organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle.Specifically,it is known as which of the following?
A)cell plate
B)centrosome
C)centromere
D)kinetochore
Q2) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein.It forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis.Its function is analogous to
A)the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells.
B)the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells.
C)the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells.
D)the microtubular organizing center of eukaryotic cells.
Q3) Another term that could be used to describe the process of binary fission is A)genetic recombination.
B)fusion.
C)recombination.
D)cloning.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?
A)Turner's syndrome (XO)
B)Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY)
C)Down's syndrome (21,21,21)
Q2) Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following processes?
A)anaphase I of meiosis
B)alignment of tetrads in metaphase I
C)crossing over
D)random alignment of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I
Q3) Centromeres split and sister chromosomes migrate to opposite poles in
A)anaphase I.
B)prophase II.
C)anaphase II.
D)telophase II.
Q4) The egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes.How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a fruit fly?
A)4
B)2
C)8
D)16
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) Two individuals of genotype AABBCCDD and aabbccdd are mated.The F1 generation is interbred (self-fertilized)to yield 5000 progeny.What proportion of the F2 is expected to be AabbCcDD?
A)1/64
B)1/78
C)1/2
D)1/8
Q2) A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans.A woman with normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color-blind male.What is the probability that this couple's first son will be color blind?
A)25%
B)50%
C)100%
D)75%
E)0%
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15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) What are pyrimidine dimers?
A)pyrimidines (C and T)that have gained an extra nitrogen-containing ring structure
B)pyrimidines on antiparallel DNA strands that form complementary base pairs
C)adjacent pyrimidines on the same DNA strand that join by covalent bonding
D)pyrimidines formed by demethylation of purines
Q2) DNA replication is highly accurate.It results in about one mistake per billion nucleotides.For the human genome,how often would errors occur?
A)on average,once or twice in the lifetime of an individual
B)on average,6 times each time the entire genome of a cell is replicated
C)on average,once every 6 cell divisions
D)on average,once a lifetime in 10% of the population
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.1.What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the order that they will be added.
A)C,A,G,C,A,G,A
B)T,C,T,G,C,T,G
C)A,G,A,C,G,A,C
D)U,G,U,C,G,U,C
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) The synthesis of RNA through complementary base pairing is known as
A)semiconservative replication.
B)dispersive polymerization.
C)transcription.
D)translation.
Q2) For a hypothetical gene,how do the terms dominance and recessive relate to gene expression and how genes work?
A)The allele with the dominant phenotype inhibits transcription of the allele for the recessive phenotype.
B)Both alleles get expressed,but the product of the allele with the dominant phenotype masks the phenotype of the recessive allele.
C)A dominant phenotype results in the expression of the most beneficial genes resulting in increased chances of survival of the organism.
Q3) The HIV virus that causes AIDS is a retrovirus.What is a retrovirus?
A)a DNA virus that uses DNA as a template in the process of translation
B)an RNA virus that makes proteins directly from RNA
C)an RNA virus that has reverse transcriptase,enabling it to make DNA from RNA
D)a DNA virus that is acellular and is able to reproduce outside a living cell
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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA
A)once post-transcriptional modification is complete.
B)before transcription is complete.
C)once replication is complete.
D)once the primary transcript has been released from RNA polymerase.
Q2) How does termination of translation take place?
A)The ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA molecule.
B)Stop codons with no corresponding tRNAs are read.
C)Hairpin turns of mRNA force the ribosome off the molecule.
D)Energy depletion causes termination.
Q3) There should be a strong positive correlation between the rate of protein synthesis and
A)the quantity of DNA polymerase.
B)the size of the genome.
C)the size of mRNA.
D)the number of ribosomes.
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) The particular amino acid sequence in the helix-turn-helix domain of a regulatory protein
A)determines which DNA sequence is recognized by this protein.
B)determines which RNA polymerase will bind to the promoter.
C)controls the catalytic activity of an enzyme.
D)allows this protein to change shape when it binds cAMP.
Q2) The product of the lacI gene is most like a car's
A)parking brake.
B)accelerator pedal.
C)steering wheel.
D)engine.
E)wheels.
Q3) Catabolite activator protein (CAP)activity is controlled by cAMP at the ________ level.
A)transcriptional
B)translational
C)post-translational
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) A patient is undergoing genetic screening for cancer.The results show the patient has many proto-oncogenes.Based on this information only,which of the following statements is correct regarding the probability that this patient will develop cancer in the very near future?
A)Due to the increased number of proto-oncogenes,the chances are high.
B)The chances are low because the patient would have to show an increased number of oncogenes.
C)The chances are high because the patient most likely also shows an increase in the number of tumor suppressors.
Q2) In the roundworm C.elegans,the lin-4 gene produces an RNA that forms a hairpin structure.One of the strands in the double-stranded region of lin-4 hairpin RNA is complementary to the mRNA of a protein-coding gene,lin-14.Predict the effect of expressing lin-4 RNA during development.
A)The lin-14 expression will fall when lin-4 expression begins.
B)The lin-14 expression will rise when lin-4 expression begins.
C)The lin-4 RNA will bind the promoter of the lin-14 gene,destroying the lin-14 gene.
D)The lin-4 RNA will bind to the enhancer of lin-14,increasing lin-14 transcription.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Plasmids are used as vectors in both plant and bacterial genetic engineering.However,there is a major difference in the fate of genes introduced into bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on Ti plasmids.What is this difference?
A)In bacteria,genes are stably expressed;in plants,gene expression is always lost quickly.
B)Gene expression tends to decrease rapidly and unpredictably in bacteria;gene expression is much more stable in plants.
C)Bacterial plasmids are circular DNAs;Ti plasmid DNA is linear.
D)Bacterial plasmids and the genes they carry usually are not integrated into the chromosome;Ti plasmids and the genes they carry are integrated into the chromosome.
E)Bacterial plasmids typically do not modify the growth of the host cells;Ti plasmids modified for genetic engineering always produce plant galls.
Q2) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?
A)a dominant disorder
B)an incompletely dominant disorder
C)a recessive disorder
D)Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) One surprising discovery from the analysis of bacterial genomes is that
A)very few species contain plasmids.
B)there is only one copy of each gene present within a bacterial genome.
C)there are many genes of unknown function.
D)bacterial genomes are always contained on a single circular chromosome.
E)there is almost no difference between the genomes of diverse bacteria.
Q2) Because DNAs for sequencing were chosen at random with no way of knowing which organism they came from,how could genes be identified?
A)by searching for ORFs,especially those with translation start and stop sites
B)by searching for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases
C)by searching for exons bounded by consensus donor and acceptor splice sites (those that mark exon/intron boundaries)
D)A and B only
E)all of the above
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Cellular differentiation is usually produced by
A)differences in gene expression.
B)differences in DNA sequences.
C)differences in gene copy numbers.
D)morphogenesis.
Q2) What does the term "genetic equivalence" refer to?
A)Plant cells can differentiate into animal cells and vice versa.
B)Differentiated cells of a plant contain the same genes as other cells in the same plant.
C)Differentiated animal cells can share gene products with each other,resulting in a balance of products among the cells.
D)During development,sending and receiving of signals via cell-cell interactions makes the cells involved more equal.
Q3) What is common to gap genes,segment-polarity genes,and homeotic genes?
A)They act independently of one another.
B)They code for transcription regulatory factors.
C)They can be activated at any time during development.
D)They are unique to Drosophila embryos.
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) During gastrulation,mesoderm is found between the ectoderm and the endoderm.The mesoderm gives rise to all of the following EXCEPT
A)the skin epidermis.
B)the circulatory system.
C)the lining of the body cavity.
D)the skeletal system.
Q2) What is a major difference between the development of Drosophila or Xenopus and that of humans?
A)Drosophila and Xenopus do not undergo gastrulation;humans do.
B)Drosophila and Xenopus undergo metamorphosis;humans do not.
C)Drosophila and Xenopus do not show development of germ layers;humans do.
D)In Drosophila and Xenopus,the notochord remains;in humans,it disappears.
E)Drosophila and Xenopus do not undergo blastula formation;humans do.
Q3) When a somite matures,the fact that it will become a specific cell type is referred to as which of the following?
A)cell specification
B)cell determination
C)cell differentiation
D)cell gastrulation
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) In flowering plants,an event known as double fertilization occurs when A)two sperm enter the ovule;one fertilizes the egg,and the other fertilizes a 2n cell to generate endosperm.
B)two sperm cells fertilize one normal egg cell to make a 3n embryo,and the embryo later becomes 2n during a unique mitotic division.
C)two eggs are simultaneously fertilized by two sperm nuclei.
D)None of the above apply.
Q2) Of the following developmental processes,which is not undergone by plant embryos?
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)embryogenesis
D)gastrulation
E)organogenesis
Q3) On the figure above,which of the letters represents the apical axis?
A)A
B)B
C)C
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25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white to pale pink to bright pink.Slugs prefer to eat pink-flowering over white-flowering plants (due to chemical differences between the two),and plants experiencing severe herbivory are more likely to die.The bees that pollinate this plant also prefer pink to white flowers,so that Claytonia with pink flowers have a greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers.A researcher observes that the percentage of different flower colors remains stable in the study population from year to year.If the researcher removes all slugs from the study population,what do you expect to happen to the distribution of flower colors in the population over time?
A)The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time.
B)The percentage of white flowers should increase over time.
C)The distribution of flower colors should not change.
D)The distribution of flower colors should randomly fluctuate over time.
Q2) The same basic internal organs (kidneys,stomach,heart,lungs)are found in frogs,birds,snakes.and rodents.This is primarily an example of
A)structural homology.
B)developmental homology.
C)genetic correlation.
D)inheritance of acquired characteristics.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Male turkeys have a snood,a flap of skin that hangs across their beak.Snood length is negatively correlated with parasite load (e.g.,males with longer snoods have fewer parasites),and females prefer to mate with long-snooded males.This is an example of
A)the fundamental asymmetry of sex.
B)sexual selection via female choice.
C)sexual selection via male-male competition.
D)a genetic marker.
Q2) Examine the figure above.What type of selection for body size appears to be occurring in these marine iguanas?
A)directional selection
B)stabilizing selection
C)disruptive selection
D)sexual selection
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to natural selection and genetic drift?
A)Both natural selection and genetic drift result in allele frequency changes.
B)Both natural selection and genetic drift involve differences in fitness.
C)Both natural selection and genetic drift require genetically inherited traits.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) You want to study divergence of populations,and you need to maximize the rate of divergence in order to see results within the period of your grant funding.You will form a new population by taking some individuals from a source population and isolating them so the two populations cannot interbreed.What combination of characteristics would maximize your chance of seeing divergence in this study? 1. Choose a random sample of individuals to form the new population.
2) Choose individuals from one extreme to form the new population.
3) Choose a species to study that produces many offspring.
4) Choose a species to study that produces a few,large offspring.
5) Place the new population in the same type of environment as the source population.
6) Place the new population in a novel environment compared to that of the source population.
A)1,3,and 5
B)1,3,and 6
C)2,3,and 5
D)2,3,and 6
E)2,4,and 6
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) You find a new fossil deposit,containing many species with shells but no soft-bodied species.What is the most logical conclusion?
A)There were no soft-bodied organisms at this time and location.
B)Conditions were not right to fossilize soft-bodied organisms.
C)There was a mass extinction event among hard-bodied,but not soft-bodied,species at this location.
Q2) Deletions in mice in the Hoxa3 gene,on the A cluster,result in abnormal formation of glands in the neck.Deletions in the homologous Hoxd3 gene,on the D cluster,result in abnormal formation of the neck skeleton.The protein-coding sequences of Hoxa3 and Hoxd3 are about 50% the same.Researchers inserted a functional copy of the coding sequence of Hoxd3 in place of the coding sequence of a nonfunctional Hoxa3.They left all promoters,enhancers,splicing signals,and processing signals of Hoxa3 in place.Normal neck gland development was restored.What can you conclude? (J.M.Greer,J.Puetz,K.R.Thomas,and M.R.Capecchi.2000.Maintenance of functional equivalence during paralogous Hox gene evolution.Nature 403:661-65.)
A)The protein-coding sequence is most important in producing different functions.
B)Regulation of the genes is most important in producing different functions.
C)Either A or B could be true.
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) What organisms are most numerous on Earth?
A)eukaryotes
B)archaea
C)prokaryotes
D)plants
E)insects
Q2) While examining a rock surface,you have discovered an interesting new organism.Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria,but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)It is unicellular.
B)Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C)The organism does not have nucleus.
D)It can survive at a temperature over 100Ā°C.
Q3) You have found a prokaryote that is able to form colonies and produce oxygen.To what lineage does it belong?
A)Cyanobacteria
B)Chlamydiales
C)Actinobacteria
D)Proteobacteria
E)Crenarchaeota
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Consider the following points: (a)All excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is low;(b)all excavates lack mitochondria;and (c)all excavates have some mitochondrial genes.Based on this information,which of the following statements is true of the excavate lineage?
A)Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria.
B)Their ancestors had mitochondria,but the mitochondria were lost over time.
C)Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose.
D)Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation.
Q2) What is the major distinguishing feature of Amoebozoa?
A)Cells have chloroplasts with a double membrane.
B)Cells lack cell walls and so,when portions of the cell extend for movement,large lobes are formed.
C) Cells lack cell walls and so,when portions of the cell extend for movement,they are slender in shape.
D)Cells have pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Which of the following possess stomata?
A)Ulvophyceae
B)Hepaticophyta
C)Charaphyaceae
D)Anthocerophyta
E)All of these answers apply.
Q2) Spores and seeds have basically the same function,dispersal,but are vastly different because
A)spores have a protective outer covering;seeds do not.
B)spores have an embryo;seeds do not.
C)spores have stored nutrition;seeds do not.
D)spores are unicellular;seeds are not.
E)spores depend primarily on animals for dispersal;seeds do not.
Q3) The retaining of the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants
A)protects the zygote from herbivores.
B)helps in dispersal of the zygote.
C)allows it to be nourished by the parent plant.
D)is found only in seed plants.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following best explains the data given in graph (b)of Figure 31.4 about Lotus corniculatus?
A)This plant grows best when AMF taxa A or C are present.
B)Lotus corniculatus does not form mycorrhizal associations.
C)Mycorrhizal fungi parasitize the plant's roots when they are present,reducing its growth.
D)This plant forms multiple AMF associations,growing best with increased fungal diversity.
Q2) Fungi have an extremely high surface-area-to-volume ratio.What is the advantage of this to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption?
A)The larger surface area allows for more material to be transported through the cell membrane.
B)The lower volume prevents the cells from drying out too quickly,which can interfere with absorption.
C)This high ratio creates more room inside the cells for additional organelles involved in absorption.
D)This high ratio means that fungi have a thick,fleshy structure that allows the fungi to store more of the food it absorbs.
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Due to its unusual habitat (inside the digestive tracts of other animals),the tapeworm lacks
A)a head
B)a mouth
C)a digestive tract
D)B and C
E)A,B,and C
Q2) All of the following are true about choanoflagellates EXCEPT
A)they are suspension feeders.
B)they are sessile as adults.
C)they live in aquatic habitats.
D)they are animals.
E)they reproduce asexually.
Q3) From the information provided in the figure above,how would you classify the feeding strategy of organism C?
A)suspension feeding
B)predation
C)parasitism
D)A and B
E)B and C
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) To which of the following terrestrial habitats would it be easiest for an aquatic animal to adapt?
A)tundra (very low temperature,very low precipitation,low plant biomass)
B)temperate forest (moderate temperature,moderate precipitation,moderate plant biomass)
C)rain forest (high temperature,high precipitation,high plant biomass)
D)boreal forest (low temperature,low precipitation,high plant biomass)
E)subtropical desert (high temperature,very low precipitation,low plant biomass)
Q2) Refer to Figure 33.1.Suppose new molecular analyses indicated that the phylum
Annelida had diverged from the arthropod lineage after Onychophora and Tardigrada.What would this imply about protostome evolution?
A)Segmentation evolved only once within protostomes.
B)The annelid lineage gained and then lost the ability to molt.
C)The annelid lineage gained and then lost jointed limbs.
D)A and B
E)A and C
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35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) How does a swim bladder help the ray-finned fishes maintain buoyancy?
A)It removes water from the digestive tract.
B)It removes oxygen from the water and stores it.
C)Gas is added to the bladder as the fish's depth increases.
D)Gas is removed from the bladder as the fish's depth increases.
E)It adds and removes salt from the water stored in the bladder,which changes its density and,thus,its buoyancy.
Q2) If you were trying to identify an unknown adult animal that must be either an echinoderm or chordate,which morphological feature(s)would guarantee that your organism was an echinoderm rather than a chordate?
A)a fluid-filled vascular system
B)a radially symmetrical body plan
C)a calcium-based endoskeleton
D)B or C
E)A,B,or C
Q3) In an amniotic egg,where is the embryo found?
A)just inside the outer shell or membrane
B)just outside the membrane containing the albumen
C)directly within the albumen
D)inside the amnion
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses?
A)Enveloped viruses have their genetic material enclosed by a protein or phospholipid coat.
B)Nonenveloped viruses have only a phospholipid membrane,while enveloped viruses have two membranes,the other one being a protein capsid.
C)Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid,whereas nonenveloped viruses do not.
D)Both viruses have a capsid and phospholipid membrane,but,in the nonenveloped virus,the genetic material is between these two membranes,while in the enveloped virus the genetic material is inside both membranes.
Q2) Using the data in Figure 35.1,how long does it take for virus B to go through one lytic cycle?
A)15 minutes
B)30 minutes
C)45 minutes
D)60 minutes
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Which of these structure-function pairs is correct?
A)stomata-protect against pathogens
B)trichomes-secrete the waxy cuticle
C)cuticle-inhibits water loss and pathogen entry
D)wax-makes leaf slippery so insects skid off
E)guard cells-prevent insects from laying eggs on leaves
Q2) You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section.What do you conclude about the plant?
A)It is probably an herbaceous eudicot.
B)It will probably get annual rings of wood.
C)It is probably a monocot.
D)It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot.
Q3) The surface area of a plant's root system is substantially larger than the surface area of its shoot system.Which hypothesis best explains the extensive surface area of roots?
A)needed for contact with soil particles for mineral and water absorption
B)provides structure for vascular tissue in the roots
C)provides good anchoring ability of the root system
D)needed to store sugars for overwintering capability
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Water potential of plants during night is ________ compared to day water potential due to ________.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
Q2) Which of the following cross-membrane transport mechanisms occur without expenditure of energy?
A)facilitated diffusion
B)antiporter
C)symporter
D)cotransporter
E)pump
Q3) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called
A)pressure flow.
B)cohesion-tension.
C)respiration.
D)evaporation.
E)transpiration.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells?
A)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient,but ion channels cannot.
B)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the concentration gradient,but ion channels cannot.
C)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the proton gradient,but ion channels cannot.
D)Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels.
Q2) The micronutrient iron is abundant in soil,but often unavailable to plants due to insolubility.Knowing that the reaction Fe(OH) + 3H FeĀ³ + 3H O occurs,and assuming all soil samples have same total amount of iron in them,which type of soil would you predict to have the highest amount of soluble iron?
A)neutral
B)acidic
C)alkaline
D)The amount of iron in soil does not depend on pH.
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) To find the gene that encodes for the blue-light receptor,researchers inserted the gene for the PHOT1 protein into insect cells growing in culture.When they exposed the transgenic cells to blue light,they found that the PHOT1 protein became phosphorylated.No other plant proteins were present in the insect cells.Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion from this result?
A)The PHOT1 protein enabled the insect cells to photosynthesize.
B)The PHOT1 protein phosphorylated itself in the presence of blue light.
C)The PHOT1 protein is not responsive to blue light.
D)The PHOT1 protein is photoreversible.
E)The PHOT1 protein is not functional in insect cells.
Q2) Lettuce seeds need full sunlight to germinate;therefore,germination is inhibited when their phytochrome molecules are in the Pfr conformation.
A)true
B)false
Q3) If cells in the ________ are removed,roots will no longer respond to gravity.
A)root hairs
B)zone of elongation
C)root cap
D)secondary meristem
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Angiosperms are unique in having double fertilization that forms endosperm.What is true about double fertilization in angiosperms?
A)Two sperm combine with a polar nucleus to form endosperm.
B)Two sperm combine with two eggs to form the zygote and endosperm.
C)One sperm combines with the polar nuclei to form the zygote,and one sperm combines with the egg to form endosperm.
D)One sperm combines with the egg to form the zygote,and one sperm combines with the polar nuclei to form endosperm.
Q2) What is the similarity between spores and gametes?
A)They are produced by meiosis.
B)They are haploid.
C)They divide by mitosis.
D)They can fuse with another cell to form a new organism.
E)They are made by a sporophyte.
Q3) Whitebark pine frequently grows in clumps of 3-4.That growth pattern indicates A)one seed can branch repeatedly to form several seedlings.
B)more than one seed germinates,and sibling seedlings are produced in one cache.
C)bears and squirrels move seeds into one cache.
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) How do the epithelial tissues covering organisms contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis?
A)They act as a barrier to create an internal environment different from the external environment.
B)They regulate the exchange of ions between the body and the environment.
C)They help to prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment.
D)All of the above answers apply.
E)Only A and C apply.
Q2) Scientists have performed studies to show that having a fever is adaptive.Which of the following observations in an ectotherm would be consistent with this conclusion?
A)An ectotherm with a fever will tend to stay warm by covering with a blanket.
B)An ectotherm with a fever will seek out cooler environments,like a tub of cool water.
C)An ectotherm with a fever will tend to decrease overall activity levels in order to keep from overheating.
D)An ectotherm will develop a fever after an infectious organism has been destroyed in order to speed healing.
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) Freshwater fish live in a hypotonic environment.To maintain homeostasis in this environment,they must
A)excrete large quantities of electrolytes.
B)consume large quantities of water.
C)excrete large quantities of water.
D)take in electrolytes through simple diffusion.
Q2) Refer to Table 42.1: Because the shark rectal gland functions only when ATP molecules are present,what can you infer about the movement of Na ,K ,and Cl ?
A)Movement of these ions from circulation into the rectal gland is an active process.
B)Movement of these ions takes place from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
C)These ions move into the rectal gland with their osmotic gradient.
D)The rectal gland is unable to concentrate these ions.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of osmoregulation?
A)two solutions that are isotonic
B)the contractile vacuole of a Paramecium
C)type 2 diabetes mellitus
D)all of the above
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Ruminants have a multi-compartmented stomach.They have a symbiotic relationship with bacterial organisms resident in the first of four compartments (the rumen).How do the bacteria help ruminant digestion?
A)They break down cellulose,a complex polysaccharide that would be indigestible without the assistance of bacterial organisms.
B)They increase the rate of movement of contents through the alimentary canal.
C)They maintain a basic pH in the rumen.
D)They do not help with digestion,but benefit from foods eaten by the ruminant.
Q2) Which of the following words best completes this sentence? The human body cannot ________ essential nutrients.
A)excrete
B)make
C)secrete
D)absorb
Q3) Fangs,like those found in wolves,are designed to
A)grind and chew.
B)tear flesh.
C)swallow the prey whole.
D)filter feed.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following statements supports the hypothesis that the bidirectional gas flow occurring in humans (air goes in and out through the same passages)is less efficient than the unidirectional flow in fish?
A)Bidirectional flow in humans does not take advantage of countercurrent exchange.
B)About one-third of the air in human lungs is trapped in "dead space" where gas exchange with the circulation cannot occur.
C)None of the above are true.
D)Both A and B are true.
Q2) You are a physician,and see a patient who complains of abnormal fatigue during exercise.You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues.What is the most likely cause?
A)abnormally shaped platelets
B)abnormal carbonic anhydrase
C)abnormal hemoglobin
D)not enough hemoglobin
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) If you experimentally increase the concentration of Na outside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were,what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
A)The membrane potential would decrease.
B)The membrane potential would increase.
C)The membrane potential would be unaffected.
D)The answer depends on the thermodynamic potential.
Q2) Most synapses found so far in the mammalian central nervous system (CNS)are classified as chemical rather than electrical.
A)true
B)false
Q3) The corpus callosum is a network of axons that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.What do you hypothesize the primary function of the corpus callosum is?
A)structural support for both hemispheres
B)communication between the hemispheres
C)transport of proteins between the hemispheres
D)source of nutrients for both hemispheres
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) What is the function of sensory receptor cells?
A)to receive a signal from the environment
B)to transduce a signal from the environment
C)to integrate a signal from the environment
D)all of the above
E)A and B only
Q2) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle is activated in this reflex?
A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh)
B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh)
Q3) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)true
B)false
Q4) What effect would this conotoxin have on the prey?
A)It would cause muscle spasms in the prey.
B)It would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle.
C)It would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting.
D)Either B or C,or both B and C.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) The posterior pituitary is anatomically and developmentally an extension of the hypothalamus.Which of the following is a true statement about the posterior pituitary?
A)The posterior pituitary's many hormone products and their diverse functions have led to it being called by the term master gland.
B)The posterior pituitary's hormones are actually produced in neurosecretory cells that originate in the hypothalamus.
C)None of the above answers apply.
D)Both answers A and B apply.
Q2) If a portion of the pancreas is surgically removed from a rat and the rat subsequently loses its appetite,one explanation is that the removed portion contains cells that secrete a chemical signal that somehow stimulates appetite.Given this scenario,what type of chemical signalling is occurring?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)neuroendocrine
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following hormones are secreted by a developing embryo during pregnancy in humans?
A)luteinizing hormone (LH)
B)progesterone
C)estradiol
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Q2) Why has RU-486 been dubbed by some as "the abortion pill"?
A)It prevents the zygote from implanting in the uterus,thus the zygote never develops beyond a few cells in size.
B)It blocks certain hormonal actions that result in menstrual flow occurring after implantation.
C)It mimics testosterone,which interferes with GnRH synthesis and thus terminates the pregnancy after several days.
D)A negative feedback on the pituitary stimulates the release of too much luteinizing hormone that prevents proper blood vessel formation in the embryo.
Q3) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Based on the above information,which of the following is the most likely explanation for the effect of oxygen levels on production of reactive oxygen intermediates (ROIs)?
A)Carbon dioxide buildup prevents formation of ROIs under low-oxygen conditions.
B)Under low-oxygen conditions,there is not enough oxygen to produce as many ROIs.
C)Phagocytic hemocytes are not as active when oxygen levels are low,so they cannot produce as many ROIs.
D)ROIs are less effective at killing cells under low-oxygen conditions,so phagocytic hemocytes do not produce as many.
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells?
A)One has a major role in antibody production,while the other has a major role in cytotoxicity.
B)One uses a receptor called BCR,while the other recognizes a receptor called TCR.
C)One is activated by membrane bound antigens,while the other is activated by free-floating antigens in blood or lymph.
D)All of the above are differences.
E)Only A and B are differences.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) What happens to animal and plant diversity as latitude decreases?
A)Animal and plant diversity increases.
B)Animal and plant diversity decreases.
C)Animal and plant diversity is not affected by latitudinal changes.
D)Animal and plant diversity increases in variation per unit area.
E)Animal and plant diversity decreases in variation per unit area.
Q2) What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?
A)The seasons would disappear.
B)Winters and summers would be more severe.
C)Winters and summers would be less severe.
D)The seasons would be shorter.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding altitude and climate is FALSE?
A)The presence of mountain ranges tends to produce extremes in precipitation.
B)Rain shadows may appear on one side of a mountain range.
C)The higher the altitude,the cooler the climate.
D)Both sides of a mountain range always receive equal amounts of precipitation.
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Using the information above,and knowing that the PKG encoded by the foraging gene has recently been associated with the maturation of out-of-nest behavior in honeybees,what would be a logical explanation for this relationship?
A)As animals mature,they require more food;therefore,PKG levels must increase.
B)As animals mature,they are more likely to forage;therefore,PKG levels must increase.
C)As animals mature,they respond to pheromones from the queen,which increases PKG levels.
D)As animals mature,they are able to fly,an activity that is connected to the increase in PKG levels.
Q2) In Figure 51.1,in which quadrant would the egg-rolling behavior of a goose be plotted?
A)quadrant A
B)quadrant B
C)quadrant C
D)quadrant D
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) Conservationists will take snow geese off the endangered species list when the population hits 10,000.If populations are sustaining growth at r = 0.088 and the population in 2001 is 3000 individuals,in what year will snow geese be taken off the endangered species list?
A)2014
B)2617
C)2003
Q2) It is estimated that a flock of wood buffalo crane should be able to sustain an r of 0.085 for the foreseeable future.If the flock currently contains 350 individuals,how long will it take for that population to double?
A)8 years
B)13 years
C)15 years
D)21 years
Q3) Based on the figure above,which of the following statements correctly interprets the data?
A)Female density is affected by clutch size.
B)Clutch size is affected by female density.
C)Survivorship is affected by female density.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) According to the figure above,which species is more successful in competing for seeds?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)These species do not compete for seeds.
D)This figure does not illustrate which species is more successful.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the figure above is true?
A)Immigration rates are higher on smaller islands.
B)Extinction rates are highest on large islands close to the mainland.
C)Species richness should be higher on larger islands close to mainland.
D)Species diversity should be highest on larger islands away from mainland.
Q3) During succession,tall canopies of maple trees form allowing chipmunks to be better hidden against hawks.This is an example of
A)interaction.
B)tolerance.
C)inhibition.
D)facilitation.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) You own 300 acres of patchy temperate forest.Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most?
A)adding fertilizer to the entire area
B)introducing 100 rabbits into the area
C)planting 500 new trees
D)relocating all the deer found in the area
Q2) Considering the global nitrogen cycle,how are humans altering this cycle?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)reduction of nitrogen available to terrestrial ecosystems
D)reduction of nitrogen fixation by bacteria
Q3) After looking at the figure above,what can be said about productivity in this ecosystem?
A)Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)Between 80 and 90% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level.
C)Between 10 and 20% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level.
D)Productivity increases with each trophic level.
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the figure above,what is occurring after 1985?
A)The population is increasing exponentially.
B)The population is increasing.
C)The population growth rate is increasing.
D)The sheep are climbing a hill.
Q2) Based on Figure 55.9,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England?
A)Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests.
B)A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients.
C)Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth.
D)Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation,do not recover.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is FALSE?
A)Only certain species are immune from extinction.
B)Species are vanishing today faster than at any other time in Earth's history.
C)Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not.
D)Extinctions can even be caused indirectly by humans.
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