General Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of biology, including the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course explores foundational biological processes such as metabolism, reproduction, and development, as well as the interdependence of organisms within ecosystems. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain an understanding of how biological systems operate at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, preparing them for advanced studies in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology 6th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taxonomy is the ________.
A)study of cells
B)naming and classifying of species
C)study of organisms and their interaction with the environment
D)study of genes
Answer: B
Q2) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is
A)evolution
B)microbiology
C)taxonomy
D)genetics
Answer: A
Q3) You try to start your car,but it does not start.Which of these is a prediction?
A)My car's battery is dead.
B)If I recharge the battery,then my car will start.
C)My car is too old to function properly.
D)What is wrong with my car?
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sugar dissolves when stirred into water.The sugar is the ________,the water is the ________,and the sweetened water is the ________.
A)solution...solvent...solute
B)solute...solvent...solution
C)solvent...solute...solution
D)solution...solute...solvent
Answer: B
Q2) A cancer patient receives an injection of the drug on March 1.Suppose that the patient must receive a second injection once the amount of the drug decreases to less than 6% in his or her body.On approximately what day should the cancer patient schedule an appointment to receive another injection?
A)March 13
B)March 23
C)April 3
D)April 25
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A DNA molecule has the sequence AGTTCAACT.The equivalent RNA molecule would have the sequence ________.
A)AGTTCAACT
B)AGUUCAACU
C)UGTTCUUCT
D)UGUUCUUCU
Answer: B
Q2) By definition,what type of fatty acid has double bonds?
A)steroid
B)triglyceride
C)unsaturated
D)saturated
Answer: C
Q3) In the following equation,lactose is a ________. galactose + glucose lactose + water
A)nucleic acid
B)fatty acid
C)disaccharide
D)dipeptide
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ________.
A)in a marine environment
B)within the cells of another organism
C)in fresh water
D)in ice
Q2) Microtubules are associated with ________.
A)cilia
B)flagella
C)cell shape
D)all of the answer choices
Q3) The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ________.
A)phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
B)phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
C)most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane
D)carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ________ and moves a substance ________ its concentration gradient.
A)energy...down
B)transport proteins...down
C)energy and transport proteins...against
D)transport proteins...against
Q2) Active transport ________.
A)uses ATP as an energy source
B)can move solutes against their concentration gradient
C)can involve the transport of ions
D)all of the answer options
Q3) An object at rest has no ________ energy,but it may have ________ energy resulting from its location or structure.
A)kinetic...potential
B)kinetic...conserved
C)potential...kinetic
D)stored...potential
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?
A)production of CO
B)conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
C)a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule
D)conversion of NADH to NAD
Q2) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
A)glycolysis,citric acid cycle,electron transport
B)citric acid cycle,glycolysis,electron transport
C)citric acid cycle,electron transport,glycolysis
D)electron transport,glycolysis,citric acid cycle
Q3) A horse eating some hay is an example of ________.
A)an autotroph eating a producer
B)an autotroph eating a consumer
C)a consumer eating a producer
D)a consumer eating a heterotroph
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?
A)stroma
B)mitochondria
C)thylakoids
D)vesicles
Q2) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ________.
A)G3P production
B)oxidation of CO
C)regeneration of RuBP
D)sugar production
Q3) C plants conserve water by ________.
A)shuttling CO from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem
B)keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry
C)growing very deep roots
D)running the Calvin cycle at night
Q4) The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ________.
A)in the stroma
B)in the mitochondria
C)in the thylakoid membrane
D)in the cytosol
9
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells From Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ________.
A)independent assortment of chromosomes
B)crossing over C)nondisjunction
D)random fertilization
Q2) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male?
A)22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
B)44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
C)44 autosomes,one X chromosome,and one Y chromosome
D)46 autosomes,one X chromosome,and one Y chromosome
Q3) The mitotic cell cycle results in the production of ________.
A)four cells,each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B)two cells,each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C)two cells,each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D)four cells,each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recombinant offspring were produced by the mating shown in the accompanying art.What is the recombination frequency of purple round and red long offspring?
A)21%
B)381
C)21 + 21
D)11%
Q2) Which of these crosses will produce only heterozygous offspring?
A)AA × aa
B)AA × Aa
C)Aa × Aa
D)Aa × aa
Q3) Mary has the genotype ________.
A)WW
B)ww
C)Ww
D)More information is needed.
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Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
A)ionic
B)covalent
C)hydrophilic
D)hydrogen
Q2) The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted in ________.
A)a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence
B)a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence
C)a single nucleotide in the middle of an intron
D)deletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene
Q3) Mad cow disease is caused by
A)a retrovirus similar to HIV.
B)an enveloped virus.
C)small circular RNA molecules called viroids.
D)infectious proteins called prions.
Q4) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A)genome
B)genotype
C)phenotype
D)genetic code
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can you conclude from these results?
A)Unpacking of the hexokinase gene occurs only at 37°C.
B)Transcription of the hexokinase gene occurs less frequently at lower temperatures.
C)The levels of hexokinase protein are not affected by temperature.
D)Translation of the hexokinase gene occurs more frequently at higher temperatures.
Q2) Introns are ________.
A)noncoding DNA sequences
B)DNA sequences to which activators bind
C)expressed DNA sequences
D)the product of RNA splicing
Q3) What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
A)The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.
B)Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.
C)It is easier to obtain embryonic stem cells.
D)Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.
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13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) The gel shown above includes a DNA ladder that can be used to estimate the sizes of DNA molecules.The ladder increases in 100 nucleotide increments,from 100 to 700.Four DNA molecules have been separated on this gel (labeled A to D) What is the approximate size of DNA molecule A?
A)250 nucleotides
B)300 nucleotides
C)350 nucleotides
D)400 nucleotides
Q2) STR analysis is a DNA profiling technique that makes use of the fact that different people have ________.
A)different numbers of repeats of short DNA sequences at certain sites in the genome
B)different alleles for many genes in the genome
C)different restriction fragments
D)different CODIS DNA sequences
Q3) The study of the full protein sets that genomes encode is ________.
A)proteomics
B)genomics
C)metagenomics
D)systems biology
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Page 14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) After surviving a bottleneck,a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck.Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?
A)The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
B)The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.
C)The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.
D)The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement of natural selection?
A)differential reproductive success
B)overproduction of offspring
C)genetic variation
D)gene flow
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15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) Sympatric speciation specifically EXCLUDES ________.
A)behavioral isolation
B)postzygotic barriers
C)geographic isolation
D)temporal isolation
Q2) Homology is evidence of ________.
A)convergent evolution
B)polyploidy
C)common ancestry
D)paedomorphosis
Q3) Analogous structures are evidence of ________.
A)common ancestry
B)divergent evolution
C)stabilizing selection
D)convergent evolution
Q4) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?
A)Animalia
B)Plantae
C)Archaea
D)Eukarya
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a plausible reason for why it may be difficult to treat infections that arise from tooth decay?
A)Biofilm bacteria that cause tooth decay begin to produce endospores as a means to deter effects of antibiotics.
B)Binary fission in biofilm bacteria that cause tooth decay begins to decrease as the biofilm community becomes more complex,thereby producing fewer bacterial cells for antibiotics to penetrate.
C)As the biofilm that causes tooth decay becomes larger,its structure makes it difficult for antibiotics to break through bacterial cell walls.
D)Bacteria of the biofilm that cause tooth decay form a symbiotic relationship with the antibiotics and therefore diminish antibiotic effectiveness.
Q2) Approximately 10-15% of insect species harbor bacteria that make needed nutrients available to the insects.How might you classify these bacteria?
A)phytoplankton
B)extremophiles
C)exotoxins
D)endosymbionts
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) What is an evolutionary reason why individual ferns may produce millions of spores?
A)Having many spores increases the chances that they will produce fossil fuels.
B)Having many spores increases the chances that they can produce seeds.
C)Spores can germinate only in the right environmental conditions,so producing many spores increases the chances that at least one will end up in an area of those conditions.
D)Spores can disperse only short distances,so producing many spores increases the chances that at least one will travel far enough to germinate.
Q2) A pollen grain is a(n)________.
A)female gametophyte
B)sporophyte
C)male gametophyte
D)integument
Q3) Which aspect of truffle mushrooms drives their commercial importance?
A)size
B)smell
C)taste
D)texture
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18
Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the figure,which organism group demonstrates the most advanced body plan in reference to presence of tissue and symmetry?
A)sponges
B)cnidarians
C)ancestral protists
D)arthropods
Q2) What characteristic is unique to echinoderms?
A)a lack of segmentation
B)a water vascular system
C)radial symmetry
D)larvae with bilateral symmetry
Q3) Nearly all ________ are aquatic.
A)crustaceans
B)arachnids
C)flatworms
D)roundworms
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) ________ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.
A)Antelopes
B)Zebras
C)Buffalo
D)Insects
Q2) Which of these biomes are maintained by fire?
A)temperate broadleaf forests and chaparral
B)chaparral and savannas
C)deserts and chaparral
D)savanna and temperate grasslands
Q3) In an aquatic ecosystem,what name is given to the region where photosynthesis can occur?
A)pelagic zone
B)aphotic zone
C)benthic realm
D)photic zone
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) Non-native species can have important effects on biological communities by ________.
A)preying upon native species only
B)competing with native species for resources only
C)reducing biodiversity only
D)All of these are effects that non-native species can have on biological communities.
Q2) If there are 500 oak trees in a forest covering 50 square kilometers,then the population density is ________.
A)5 trees per square kilometer
B)10 trees per square kilometer
C)50 trees per square kilometer
D)100 trees per square kilometer
Q3) The ecological footprint of the United States ________.
A)is about the same as the global average
B)is lower than the global average
C)shows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel
D)shows that its population size is increasing slowly
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21
Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ________.
A)biologically magnified
B)endemic environments
C)biodiverse environments
D)biodiversity hot spots
Q2) As a result of a severe disturbance,a community will ________.
A)not be repopulated
B)be replaced by organisms in random order
C)not change
D)undergo succession
Q3) The primary goal of conservation biology is to ________.
A)catalog species
B)maximize the land set aside for wildlife
C)integrate human culture back into nature
D)counter the loss of biodiversity
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Which type of tissue forms an electrical communication system within the body?
A)nervous
B)blood
C)connective
D)muscle
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE of a typical skeletal muscle?
A)It is found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.
B)Its fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.
C)It can be enlarged by exercise.
D)It is only found in heart tissue.
Q3) What kind of connective tissue has a matrix that is strong and flexible?
A)bone
B)adipose tissue
C)loose connective tissue
D)cartilage
Q4) Which one of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?
A)cartilage
B)bone
C)adipose tissue
D)fibrous connective tissue
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) On a global scale,the most significant type of malnutrition is ________.
A)vitamin A deficiency
B)calcium deficiency
C)iron deficiency
D)protein deficiency
Q2) Which of the following ingredients of the bread pictured would prevent beriberi?
A)ascorbic acid
B)sea salt
C)sunflower oil
D)whole wheat (whole grain)flour
Q3) Which mineral is needed for the proper functioning of nerves,muscles,and bones?
A)calcium
B)linoleic acid
C)sodium
D)salt
Q4) Spiders are ________.
A)herbivores
B)filter feeders
C)carnivores
D)omnivores
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Blood pressure is lowest in ________.
A)veins
B)capillaries
C)arterioles
D)venules
Q2) In a human,the ________ provide(s)a common passageway for both food and air.
A)bronchioles
B)trachea
C)pharynx
D)alveoli
Q3) Blood is propelled back to the heart by ________.
A)rhythmic contractions of muscles in the walls of veins and the action of one-way valves
B)skeletal muscle contractions around veins and the action of one-way valves
C)the negative pressure of the heart pulling blood into the empty chambers
D)the natural flow of blood into ever-larger blood vessels leading to the heart
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Chapter 24: The Bodys Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following cell types are specifically responsible for the cytotoxic T cell response?
A)T cells
B)B cells
C)natural killer cells
D)phagocytic cells
Q2) When you cut yourself,the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?
A)defensive proteins
B)antibodies
C)histamine
D)antihistamines
Q3) Humans who are infected with avian influenza are likely to have elevated levels of ________.
A)defensive proteins
B)histamine
C)antihistamines
D)bacterial cells
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26
Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)is a hormone that ________.
A)helps to regulate the female menstrual cycle
B)stimulates general body growth
C)raises blood glucose levels
D)regulates hair growth and skin growth
Q2) Calcium levels are regulated by antagonistic hormones.This is likely because ________.
A)calcium has to be produced by the body and that production must be regulated
B)bone formation occurs only during puberty when many other hormones are present,thus careful regulation is necessary
C)both too much and too little calcium can have disastrous effects on the body,thus the levels need tight regulation
D)calcium is needed to repair bone fractures,so antagonistic hormones make sure it is available when needed
Q3) Which of these behaviors is NOT associated with androgens?
A)body-slamming elephant seals
B)mating songs in frogs
C)territorial battles in fish
D)maturation of ovaries in bears
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following results from cleavage?
A)formation of the nervous system
B)formation of the notochord
C)formation of more cells
D)segmentation
Q2) All of these are similarities between the male and female system EXCEPT one.Choose the exception.
A)Both have erectile tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual excitement.
B)Both have paired gamete-producing organs.
C)Both have a urethra that carries both urine and gametes.
D)Both have a pair of tubes that can carry gametes.
Q3) What moves the human egg through the oviduct?
A)the beating of the egg's cilia
B)rhythmic contractions of the oviduct
C)rhythmic contractions of the uterus
D)the beating of cilia in the oviduct
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Chapter 27: Nervous,Sensory,and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) If you lay your forearm along the table,you can rotate it so that your hand changes from a palm-down to a palm-up position.This is possible because your radius and ulna join at a ________ joint.
A)ball-and-socket
B)hinge
C)pivot
D)twist
Q2) When light levels suddenly increase,our eyes adjust quickly by reducing the size of the ________.
A)pupil
B)retina
C)iris
D)cornea
Q3) The cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are ________.
A)dendrites
B)neurons
C)effectors
D)synapses
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following do guard cells act to regulate?
A)stomata
B)cuticle
C)epidermis
D)root hairs
Q2) Without honeybees,which process in the life cycle of plants such as apples,almonds,blueberries,and pumpkins is most affected?
A)seed dispersal
B)secondary growth
C)pollination
D)seed germination
Q3) What evidence best supports the pineapple's classification as a monocot?
A)It does not produce woody tissue.
B)It produces a fruit.
C)Its flowers have three petals each.
D)It has double fertilization.
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Most plants rely on bacteria to supply them with a usable form of which of the following substances?
A)nitrogen
B)carbon dioxide
C)water
D)amino acids
Q2) In phytoremediation,plants are used to remove ________ and ________ from the soil.
A)carbon heavy metals
B)radioactive isotopes heavy metals
C)nitrogen phosphorus
D)water sulfur
Q3) Which of the following BEST describes the essential difference between plant and animal nutrition?
A)Plants use inorganic substances and energy from the sun to produce their own food.
B)Plants use organic substances to produce their own food.
C)Plants absorb food through their roots.
D)Plant and animal nutrition are essentially the same.
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