General Biology II Review Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology II is a comprehensive course that builds upon foundational biological principles, focusing on the diversity of life, anatomy and physiology of plants and animals, evolutionary mechanisms, and ecological relationships. Topics include the structure and function of major organ systems, plant biology, animal development, and the interactions between organisms and their environments. Students will engage in laboratory investigations and collaborative projects designed to reinforce concepts covered during lectures, fostering a deeper understanding of the dynamic processes that underpin living systems and the interconnectedness of life on Earth.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 9th Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as A) technology.
B) deductive science.
C) inductive science.
D) anthropologic science.
E) pure science.
Answer: A
Q2) The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as A) hypothesis-based science.
B) discovery science.
C) experimental science.
D) quantitative science.
E) qualitative science.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon, and has an atomic mass of 12 daltons. A mole of carbon in naturally occurring coal, however, weighs slightly more than 12 grams. Why?
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
E) Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated above?
A) 1
B) 8
C) 10
D) 11
E) 16
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of the lake?
A) 10 ¹ M
B) 10 M
C) 10 M
D) 10 ¹
E) 10 M
Answer: A
Q2) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) nonpolar covalent bonds.
C) polar covalent bonds.
D) ionic bonds.
E) van der Waals interactions.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the structures illustrated above are the atoms bonded by ionic bonds?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) C, D, and E only
E) none of the structures
Q2) Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which molecule shown above contains a carboxyl group?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of DNA is correct?
A) The 5' end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
B) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
C) The 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base.
D) The 5' end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
E) The 5' end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is not true?
A) They are more common in animals than in plants.
B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
C) They generally solidify at room temperature.
D) They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
E) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.
Q3) Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety?
A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen?
A) lysosome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome
Q2) A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified?
A) It must be a single-celled protist.
B) It must be a single-celled fungus.
C) It could be almost any typical bacterium.
D) It could be a typical virus.
E) It could be a very small bacterium.
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every domain of organisms: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. What does this most probably mean?
A) Proton pumps must have evolved before any living organisms were present on Earth.
B) Proton gradients across a membrane were used by cells that were the common ancestor of all three domains of life.
C) The high concentration of protons in the ancient atmosphere must have necessitated a pump mechanism.
D) Cells of each domain evolved proton pumps independently when oceans became more acidic.
E) Proton pumps are necessary to all cell membranes.
Q2) Which component is the peripheral protein?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the smallest closed system?
A) a cell
B) an organism
C) an ecosystem
D) Earth
E) the universe
Q2) Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?
A) the muscle contractions of a person mowing grass
B) water rushing over Niagara Falls
C) light flashes emitted by a firefly
D) a molecule of glucose
E) the flight of an insect foraging for food
Q3) How do cells use the ATP cycle shown in the figure?
A) Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP and phosphate.
B) Cells use the cycle to recycle energy released by ATP hydrolysis.
C) Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP, phosphate, and the energy released by ATP hydrolysis.
D) Cells use the cycle to generate or consume water molecules as needed.
E) Cells use the cycle primarily to generate heat.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce CO and water release free energy?
A) The covalent bonds in organic molecules and molecular oxygen have more kinetic energy than the covalent bonds in water and carbon dioxide.
B) Electrons are being moved from atoms that have a lower affinity for electrons (such as C) to atoms with a higher affinity for electrons (such as O).
C) The oxidation of organic compounds can be used to make ATP.
D) The electrons have a higher potential energy when associated with water and CO than they do in organic compounds.
E) The covalent bond in O2 is unstable and easily broken by electrons from organic molecules.
Q2) One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to A) reduce NAD to NADH. B) reduce FAD to FADH . C) oxidize NADH to NAD . D) reduce FADH to FAD . E) do none of the above.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon?
A) They have a direct, linear relationship.
B) They are inversely related.
C) They are logarithmically related.
D) They are separate phenomena.
E) They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum.
Q2) As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the Calvin cycle in 1 hour. You find 30,000 molecules of ATP consumed, but only 20,000 molecules of NADPH. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from?
A) photosystem II
B) photosystem I
C) cyclic electron flow
D) linear electron flow
E) chlorophyll
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) The termination phase of cell signaling requires which of the following?
A) removal of the receptor
B) activation of a different set of relay molecules
C) converting ATP to camp
D) incompatibility of the binding of the signal molecule to the receptor
E) apoptosis
Q2) If you wish to design an experiment to block the G protein-coupled receptor interaction, the block would preferentially affect which of the following?
A) the exterior (cytoplasmic) end of the receptor
B) the cytosolic end of the receptor
C) the phospholipid's transmembrane domain
D) the amino acid sequence in the binding site for the G protein
E) the amino acids in the binding site for the transduction molecules
Q3) Which of the following is true of transcription factors?
A) They regulate the synthesis of DNA in response to a signal.
B) They transcribe ATP into cAMP.
C) They initiate the epinephrine response in animal cells.
D) They control gene expression.
E) They regulate the synthesis of lipids in the cytoplasm.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away?
A) The cells originated in the nervous system.
B) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
C) They have altered series of cell cycle phases.
D) The cells show characteristics of tumors.
E) They were originally derived from an elderly organism.
Q2) Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present.
A) I only
B) I and IV only
C) I and VIII only
D) II and VI only
E) I, II, III, and IV only
Q2) The human X and Y chromosomes
A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E) include only genes that govern sex determination.
Q3) In the human species, all somatic cells have 46 chromosomes. Which of the following can also be true?
A) A plant species (privet shrubs) has 46 chromosomes per cell.
B) Some adult humans have 69 chromosomes per cell.
C) Some adult humans have 23 chromosomes per cell.
D) A certain fungal species has only one chromosome per cell.
E) A certain bacterial species has 23 chromosomes.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?
A) Mendel's law of independent assortment
B) Mendel's law of segregation
C) Darwin's explanation of natural selection
D) Darwin's observations of competition
E) the malarial parasite changing the allele
Q2) A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
A) all sharp-spined progeny.
B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny.
D) all spineless progeny.
E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
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16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is known as a Philadelphia chromosome?
A) a human chromosome 22 that has had a specific translocation
B) a human chromosome 9 that is found only in one type of cancer
C) an animal chromosome found primarily in the mid-Atlantic area of the United States
D) an imprinted chromosome that always comes from the mother
E) a chromosome found not in the nucleus but in mitochondria
Q2) A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the child's condition?
A) The woman inherited this tendency from her parents.
B) One member of the couple carried a translocation.
C) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell production.
D) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.
E) The mother had a chromosomal duplication.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
A) 8%
B) 16%
C) 31%
D) 42%
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
Q2) In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?
A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.
E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media?
A) minimal medium
B) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient A only
C) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient B only
D) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient C only
E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and C
Q2) In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?
A) ligase
B) RNA polymerase I
C) RNA polymerase II
D) RNA polymerase III
E) primase
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates so that the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to occur?
A) The usual mRNAs transcribed from centromeric DNA will be missing from the cells.
B) Tetrads will no longer be able to form during meiosis I.
C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture.
D) The cells will no longer be able to resist bacterial contamination.
E) The DNA of the centromeres will no longer be able to replicate.
Q2) The next step after the embryo is formed would be
A) division of the embryo into five broad regions.
B) use of pair-rule genes to divide the embryo into stripes, each of which will become two segments.
C) use of zygotic segment polarity genes to divide each segment into anterior and posterior halves.
D) enclosure of the nuclei in membranes, forming a single layer over the surface.
E) separation of head, thoracic, and abdominal segments of the embryo.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. However, a zoonosis is a disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans, at least sporadically, without requiring viral mutation. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis?
A) rabies
B) herpesvirus
C) smallpox
D) HIV
E) hepatitis virus
Q2) To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees.
B) develop into a virus with a different host range.
C) become capable of human-to-human transmission.
D) arise independently in chickens in North and South America.
E) become much more pathogenic.
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21
Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
B) methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment
C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment
D) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
E) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
Q2) As genetic technology makes testing for a wide variety of genotypes possible, which of the following is likely to be an increasingly troublesome issue?
A) use of genotype information to provide positive identification of criminals
B) using technology to identify genes that cause criminal behaviors
C) the need to legislate for the protection of the privacy of genetic information
D) discrimination against certain racial groups because of major genetic differences
E) alteration of human phenotypes to prevent early disease
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What is the difference between a linkage map and a physical map?
A) For a linkage map, markers are spaced by recombination frequency, whereas for a physical map they are spaced by numbers of base pairs (bp).
B) For a physical map, the ATCG order and sequence must be achieved; however, it does not for the linkage map.
C) For a linkage map, it is shown how each gene is linked to every other gene.
D) For a physical map, the distances must be calculable in units such as nanometers.
E) There is no difference between the two except in the type of pictorial representation.
Q2) Bioinformatics can be used to scan sequences for probable genes looking for start and stop sites for transcription and for translation, for probable splice sites, and for sequences known to be found in other known genes. Such sequences containing these elements are called
A) expressed sequence tags.
B) cDNA.
C) multigene families.
D) proteomes.
E) short tandem repeats.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the bones in the wing of a bird?
A) cartilage in the dorsal fin of a shark
B) bones in the hind limb of a kangaroo
C) chitinous struts in the wing of a butterfly
D) bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish
E) bones in the flipper of a whale
Q2) How many separate species, both extant and extinct, are depicted in this tree?
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
E) six
Q3) Which pair would probably have agreed with the process that is depicted by this tree?
A) Cuvier and Lamarck
B) Lamarck and Wallace
C) Aristotle and Lyell
D) Wallace and Linnaeus
E) Linnaeus and Lamarck
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) If the sickle-cell allele is recessive, what proportion of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell anemia under typical conditions?
A) 0.04
B) 0.16
C) 0.20
D) 0.32
E) 0.80
Q2) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?
A) 0.09
B) 0.49
C) 0.9
D) 9.0
E) 49.0
Q3) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A) 0.25
B) 0.50
C) 0.75
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Why should deepwater shrimp on different sides of the isthmus have diverged from each other earlier than shallow-water shrimp?
A) They have been geographically isolated from each other for a longer time.
B) Cold temperatures, associated with deep water, have accelerated the mutation rate, resulting in faster divergence in deepwater shrimp.
C) The rise of the land bridge was accompanied by much volcanic activity. Volcanic ash contains heavy metals, which are known mutagens. Ash fall caused high levels of heavy metals in the ocean sediments underlying the deep water, resulting in accelerated mutation rates and faster divergence in deepwater shrimp.
D) Fresh water entering the ocean from the canal is both less dense and cloudier than seawater. The cloudy fresh water interferes with the ability of shallow-water shrimp to locate mating partners, which reduces the frequency of mating, thereby slowing the introduction of genetic variation.
Q2) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A) V is most closely related to species W.
B) X is most closely related to species W.
C) Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D) It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of these fly organs, as they exist in current fly populations, best fits the description of an exaptation?
A) wings
B) balancing organs
C) mouthparts
D) thoraxes
E) walking appendages
Q2) Which of the following characteristics should have been possessed by the first animals to colonize land?
1)were probably herbivores (ate photosynthesizers)
2)had four appendages
3)had the ability to resist dehydration
4)had lobe-finned fishes as ancestors
5)were invertebrates
A) 3 only
B) 3 and 5
C) 1, 3, and 5
D) 2, 3, and 4
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4
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27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes
A) polyphyletic.
B) paraphyletic.
C) monophyletic.
D) conform with Linnaeus' view of great ape phylogeny.
Q2) Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology?
A) Dogs and wolves have very similar morphologies.
B) Dogs and wolves belong to the same order.
C) Dogs and wolves are both members of the order Carnivora.
D) Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently.
Q3) Members of which kingdom have cell walls and are all heterotrophic?
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Animalia
D) Protista
E) Monera
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following, if it occurs in the absence of any other type of adaptation listed here, is least reasonable in terms of promoting bacterial survival over evolutionary time in a low-glucose environment?
A) increased efficiency at transporting glucose into the cell from the environment
B) increased ability to survive on simple sugars, other than glucose
C) increased ability to synthesize glucose from amino acid precursors
D) increased reliance on glycolytic enzymes
E) increased sensitivity to, and ability to move toward, whatever glucose is present in its habitat
Q2) Adherence to the intestinal lining by this bacterium is due to its possession of A) fimbriae.
B) pili.
C) a capsule.
D) a flagellum.
E) a cell wall with an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane.
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29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which of the following are actual mutualistic partnerships that involve a protist and a host organism?
A) cellulose-digesting gut protists-wood-eating termites
B) dinoflagellates-reef-building coral animals
C) Trichomonas-humans
D) algae-certain foraminiferans
E) all except that involving humans
Q2) Biologists suspect that endosymbiosis gave rise to mitochondria before plastids partly because
A) the products of photosynthesis could not be metabolized without mitochondrial enzymes.
B) all eukaryotes have mitochondria (or their remnants), whereas many eukaryotes do not have plastids.
C) mitochondrial DNA is less similar to prokaryotic DNA than is plastid DNA.
D) without mitochondrial CO production, photosynthesis could not occur.
E) mitochondrial proteins are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes, whereas plastids utilize their own ribosomes.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) If a fern gametophyte is a hermaphrodite (that is, has both male and female gametangia on the same plant), then it
A) belongs to a species that is homosporous.
B) must be diploid.
C) has lost the need for a sporophyte generation.
D) has antheridia and archegonia combined into a single sex organ.
E) is actually not a fern, because fern gametophytes are always either male or female.
Q2) This student has probably found a(n)
A) immature pine tree.
B) bryophyte sporophyte.
C) fern sporophyte.
D) horsetail gametophyte.
E) lycophyte sporophyte.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of archegonia?
A) They are the sites where male gametes are produced.
B) They may temporarily contain sporophyte embryos.
C) They are the same as sporangia.
D) They are the ancestral versions of animal gonads.
E) They are asexual reproductive structures.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?
A) wind pollination
B) dominant gametophytes
C) fruits enclosing seeds
D) embryos enclosed within seed coats
E) sperm cells without flagella
Q2) The yolk and/or albumen of an animal egg is what type of angiosperm analog?
A) endosperm
B) pollen tube and sperm nuclei
C) carpels
D) fruit
E) integuments
Q3) The agouti is most directly involved with the Brazil nut tree's dispersal of A) male gametophytes.
B) female gametophytes.
C) sporophyte embryos.
D) sporophyte megaspores.
E) female gametes.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) If Bd cannot grow properly at temperatures above 28°C (82°F), then, assuming the amphibians can survive, in which time or place should the chytrid infection proceed most rapidly?
1)cooler months
2)warmer months
3)lower altitudes
4)higher altitudes
A) 1 or 3
B) 1 or 4
C) 2 or 3
D) 2 or 4
Q2) Apart from direct amphibian-to-amphibian contact, what is the most likely means by which the zoospores spread from one free-living amphibian to another?
A) by wind-blown spores
B) by flagella
C) by cilia
D) by pseudopods
E) by hyphae
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) On the basis of the cleavage pattern of cycliophoran embryos, which of these should be true?
A) It has determinate development.
B) The blastopore becomes the anus.
C) They are deuterostomes.
D) A cell separated from a four-cell embryo should develop into a complete organism.
Q2) The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is that between having
A) radial or bilateral symmetry.
B) a well-defined head or no head.
C) diploblastic or triploblastic embryos.
D) true tissues or no tissues.
E) a body cavity or no body cavity.
Q3) Which of these features is least useful in assigning the phylum Cycliophora to a clade of animals?
A) having a true coelom as a body cavity
B) having a body symmetry that permits a U-shaped intestine
C) having embryos with spiral cleavage
D) lacking ecdysis (molting)
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34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) The parapodia of polychaetes have a function most similar to that of A) rhinophores.
B) dorsal plummules.
C) cerata.
D) more than one of these.
Q2) Against which hard structure do the circular and longitudinal muscles of annelids work?
A) bristles
B) cuticle
C) shell
D) endoskeleton
E) hydrostatic skeleton
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of nematodes?
A) All species can be characterized as scavengers.
B) They have only longitudinal muscles.
C) They have a true coelom.
D) They have a gastrovascular cavity.
E) Many species are diploblastic.
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35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of these would a paleontologist be most likely to do in order to determine whether a fossil represents a reptile or a mammal?
A) Look for the presence of milk-producing glands.
B) Look for the mammalian characteristics of a four-chambered heart and a diaphragm.
C) Because mammals are eutherians, look for evidence of a placenta.
D) Use molecular analysis to look for the protein keratin.
E) Examine the teeth.
Q2) If a physoclistus fish removes gas from its swim bladder, this fish's density cannot actually change until that gas arrives at the A) mouth.
B) gills.
C) skin.
D) heart.
E) anus.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Most of the growth of a plant body is the result of A) cell differentiation.
B) morphogenesis.
C) cell division.
D) cell elongation.
E) reproduction.
Q2) Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?
A) vascular cambium
B) apical meristem
C) endodermis
D) phloem
E) xylem
Q3) Cells produced by lateral meristems are known as A) dermal and ground tissue.
B) lateral tissues.
C) pith.
D) secondary tissues.
E) shoots and roots.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is not an important component of the long-distance transport process in plants?
A) the cohesion of water molecules
B) a negative water potential
C) the root parenchyma
D) the active transport of solutes
E) bulk flow from source to sink
Q2) Which of the following statements is false about bulk flow?
A) It is driven primarily by pressure potential.
B) It is more effective than diffusion over distances greater than 100 m.
C) It depends on a difference in pressure potential at the source and sink.
D) It depends on the force of gravity on a column of water.
E) It may be the result of either positive or negative pressure potential.
Q3) Which of the following experimental procedures would most likely reduce transpiration while allowing the normal growth of a plant?
A) subjecting the leaves of the plant to a partial vacuum
B) increasing the level of carbon dioxide around the plant
C) putting the plant in drier soil
D) decreasing the relative humidity around the plant
Page 38
E) injecting potassium ions into the guard cells of the plant
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following would be in the lowest concentration in an actively growing shoot tip?
A) zinc
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorus
D) potassium
E) calcium
Q2) In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants?
A) Only nitrogen can be lost from the soil.
B) Only nitrogen requires the action of bacteria to be made available to plants.
C) Only nitrogen is needed for protein synthesis.
D) Only nitrogen is held by cation exchange capacity in the soil.
E) Only nitrogen can be absorbed by root hairs.
Q3) Which of the following elements, if increased in concentration, would increase the stability of cell walls?
A) zinc
B) chlorine
C) calcium
D) molybdenum
E) manganese
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The black dots that cover strawberries are actually individual fruits. The fleshy and tasty portion of a strawberry derives from the receptacle of a flower with many separate carpels. Therefore, a strawberry is
A) both a multiple fruit and an aggregate fruit.
B) both a multiple fruit and an accessory fruit.
C) both a simple fruit and an aggregate fruit.
D) both an aggregate fruit and an accessory fruit.
E) a simple fruit with many seeds.
Q2) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains
A) two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain.
B) a generative cell and a tube cell.
C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell nucleus.
D) two haploid microspores.
E) a haploid nucleus and a diploid pollen wall.
Q3) Which of the following "vegetables" is botanically a fruit?
A) potato
B) lettuce
C) radish
D) celery
E) green beans
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) Incandescent light bulbs, which have high output of red light, are least effective in promoting
A) photosynthesis.
B) seed germination.
C) phototropism.
D) flowering.
E) entrainment of circadian rhythms.
Q2) Evidence for phototropism due to the asymmetric distribution of auxin moving down the stem
A) was first demonstrated in the coleoptiles of monocots.
B) has been found in all monocots and most eudicots.
C) has been shown to involve only IAA stimulation of cell elongation on the dark side of the stem.
D) can be demonstrated with unilateral red light, but not blue light.
E) is now thought by most plant scientists not to involve the shoot tip.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body tissue that consists largely of material located outside of cells is
A) epithelial tissue.
B) connective tissue.
C) skeletal muscle.
D) smooth muscle.
E) nervous tissue.
Q2) Seasonal changes in snake activity are due to the fact that the snake
A) is less active in winter because the food supply is decreased.
B) is less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators.
C) is more active in summer because that is the period for mating.
D) is more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction.
E) is more active in summer as a result of being disturbed by other animals.
Q3) If you gently twist your earlobe, it does not remain distorted because it contains
A) collagenous fibers.
B) elastin fibers.
C) reticular fibers.
D) adipose tissue.
E) loose connective tissue.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adaptations suited to a carnivorous diet include
A) broad, flat molars.
B) a rumen.
C) ingestion of feces.
D) bile salts.
E) amylase.
Q2) A group of animals among which a relatively long cecum is likely to be found is the A) carnivores.
B) herbivores.
C) autotrophs.
D) heterotrophs.
E) omnivores.
Q3) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the A) small intestine.
B) stomach.
C) pancreas.
D) liver.
E) mouth.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange
A) in their specialized external gills.
B) in their specialized internal gills.
C) in the alveoli of their lungs.
D) across the membranes of their cells.
E) across all parts of their thin cuticular exoskeleton.
Q2) A normal event in the process of blood clotting is the
A) production of erythropoietin.
B) conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen.
C) activation of prothrombin to thrombin.
D) increase in platelets.
E) synthesis of hemoglobin.
Q3) During most daily activities, the human respiration rate is most closely linked to the blood levels of
A) nitric acid.
B) nitrogen.
C) oxygen.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) carbon monoxide.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by A) its plasma cells.
B) its immunoglobulins.
C) its antibodies.
D) its antimicrobial peptides.
E) its B cells.
Q2) According to the graph, antibodies will be produced
A) between 3 and 7 days.
B) between 14 and 21 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 14 and 21 days and between 42 and 56 days.
E) both between 3 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.
Q3) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely
A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces.
B) lack humoral immunity.
C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a laboratory experiment with three groups of students, one group drinks pure water, a second group drinks an equal amount of beer, and a third group drinks an equal amount of concentrated salt solution, all during the same time period. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. Which groups are expected to have the greatest and least amounts of urine, respectively?
A) Beer drinkers have the most; salt solution drinkers have the least.
B) Salt solution drinkers have the most; water drinkers have the least.
C) Water drinkers have the most; beer drinkers have the least.
D) Beer drinkers have the most; water drinkers have the least.
E) There will be no significant difference between these groups.
Q2) Excessive formation of uric acid crystals in humans leads to
A) a condition called diabetes, where excessive urine formation occurs.
B) a condition of insatiable thirst and excessive urine formation.
C) gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints.
D) the absence of urea in the urine.
E) osteoarthritis, an inevitable consequence of aging.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason that the steroid hormone aldosterone affects only a small number of cells in the body is that
A) only its target cells get exposed to aldosterone.
B) only its target cells contain aldosterone receptors.
C) it is unable to enter nontarget cells.
D) nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce any effect.
E) nontarget cells convert aldosterone to a hormone to which they do respond.
Q2) During a stressful interval
A) TSH stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete acetylcholine.
B) the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of the islets secrete glucagon.
C) ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla.
D) the posterior pituitary gland secretes more growth hormones.
E) the calcium levels in the blood are increased due to actions of two antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually reproducing ancestors includes
A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate.
B) the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation.
C) the observation that all of the offspring are haploid.
D) dependence on favorable weather conditions for ovulation to occur.
E) the persistence of a vestigial penis among some of the females.
Q2) For water fleas of the genus Daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with
A) environmental conditions becoming more favorable for offspring.
B) greater abundance of food resources for offspring.
C) periods of temperature or food stresses on adults.
D) completion of puberty.
E) exhaustion of an individual's supply of eggs.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by the
A) inner cell mass.
B) endoderm.
C) chorion.
D) mesoderm.
E) trophoblast.
Q2) Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like
A) placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine.
B) resting during halftime of a basketball game.
C) preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven.
D) walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch.
E) dropping a rock off a cliff and watching it land in the valley below.
Q3) The endoderm was probably stained with
A) red and yellow colors.
B) yellow and green colors.
C) green and purple colors.
D) blue and yellow colors.
E) purple and red colors.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Q2) Ionotropic receptors are found at synapses operated via
A) ligand-gated ion channels.
B) second-messenger-gated ion channels.
C) electrical synapses.
D) inhibitory, but not excitatory, synapses.
E) excitatory, but not inhibitory, synapses.
Q3) Temporal summation always involves
A) both inhibitory and excitatory inputs.
B) synapses at more than one site.
C) inputs that are not simultaneous.
D) electrical synapses.
E) multiple inputs at a single synapse.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure, which letter points to the hypothalamus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect A) olfaction.
B) vision.
C) speech.
D) memory.
E) hearing.
Q3) Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased activity in the A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) spinal cord.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensillae are
A) smell receptors in animals with hydrostatic skeletons.
B) mechanoreceptors that help birds remain oriented during flight.
C) a specific type of hair cell in the human ear.
D) insect taste receptors found on feet and mouthparts.
E) olfactory hairs located on insect antennae.
Q2) The structure diagrammed in the figure is the
A) neuromast.
B) statocyst.
C) taste bud.
D) ommatidium.
E) olfactory bulb.
Q3) Chitin is a major component of
A) the skeleton of mammals.
B) the hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms.
C) the exoskeleton of insects.
D) the body hairs of mammals.
E) the skeleton in birds.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?
A) monogamy
B) polygyny
C) polyandry
D) promiscuity
E) certainty of paternity
Q2) Learning in which an associated stimulus may be used to elicit the same behavioral response as the original sign stimulus is called
A) concept formation.
B) trial and error.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) cognition.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Deserts typically occur in a band at 20 degrees north and south latitude because
A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry.
B) trade winds have a little moisture.
C) moisture-laden air is heavier than dry air and is not carried to these latitudes.
D) ascending air tends to be moist.
E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth.
Q2) Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?
A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients.
D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A population's carrying capacity
A) may change as environmental conditions change.
B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.
C) generally remains constant over time.
D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases.
E) can never be exceeded.
Q2) What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above?
A) Developed countries have lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries.
B) Developed countries have higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries.
C) Developed countries have lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries.
D) Developed countries have higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries.
E) Developed countries have a life expectancy that is about 42 years more than life expectancy in developing countries.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n)
A) pathogen.
B) keystone species.
C) herbivore.
D) resource partitioner.
E) mutualistic organism.
Q2) Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat?
A) More pathogens tend to immigrate into newer habitats.
B) Intermediate host species are more motile and transport pathogens to new areas.
C) Pathogens evolve more efficient forms of reproduction in new environments.
D) Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the pathogen through natural selection.
E) New environments are almost always smaller in area so that transmission of pathogens is easily accomplished between hosts.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which pair of species could be omnivores?
A) A and B
B) A and D
C) B and C
D) C and D
E) C and E
Q2) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?
A) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
B) the depletion of the ozone layer
C) overexploitation of selected species
D) habitat destruction
E) zoned reserves
Q2) Which of the following species was driven to extinction by overexploitation by hunters/fishermen?
A) African elephant
B) the great auk
C) North American bluefin tuna
D) flying foxes
E) American bison
Q3) Modern conservation biology increasingly aims at
A) protecting federally listed endangered species.
B) lobbying for strict enforcement of the U.S. Endangered Species Act.
C) sustaining biodiversity of entire ecosystems and communities.
D) maintaining genetic diversity in all species.
E) saving as much habitat as possible from development and exploitation.
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Page 58