General Biology II Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology II is an advanced exploration of key biological principles, building upon foundational concepts introduced in introductory biology. This course focuses on the diversity, structure, function, and evolution of plants, animals, and microorganisms. Topics include genetics, evolution, ecology, plant and animal physiology, and the interdependence of living organisms and their environments. Emphasis is placed on application through laboratory work, scientific investigation, and critical analysis, preparing students for further studies in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 4th Edition by Michael L. Cain LU;,SDK
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______ is a group of individuals belonging to the same species.
Answer: population
Q2) Which of the following ecological features would not be considered a component of an ecosystem?
A) an individual
B) a community
C) a population
D) a biome
Answer: D
Q3) Because the distinction between life and nonlife is an arbitrary one, not all biologists agree on what things should be considered living; one group, the _______, appears to be right at the boundary between life and nonlife.
Answer: viruses
Q4) Once supported by a predictable experimental outcome, a scientific hypothesis A) is never reexamined.
B) still cannot be considered to have been proven true.
C) can be used to predict the outcome of all future similar events. D) is elevated to the status of theory.
Answer: B
3
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Chapter 2: Organizing the Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria, protists, and fungi belong to the domain Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is a kingdom?
A) Bacteria
B) Eukarya
C) Plantae
D) Archaea
Answer: C
Q3) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya are the three biological domains.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Systematists can also be called _______.
Answer: taxonomists
Q5) One unique feature that supports the hypothesis that humans and chimpanzees are closely related is the _______.
Answer: opposable thumb
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Chapter 3: Major Groups of Living Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All bacteria have the same shape.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Protists may superficially resemble organisms in the other kingdoms; one exception is the kingdom _____, whose members do not resemble protists in any way.
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Plantae
D) Animalia.
Answer: A
Q3) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the _______. Answer: flower
Q4) Although seeming quite distinct, cotton, morphine, and flour are all obtained from flowering plants, otherwise known as __________
Answer: angiosperms
Q5) _______ is the most ancient group with the eukaryotic domain. Answer: Protista
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Chapter 4: Chemical Building Blocks
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Q1) We use soap to clean ourselves better than we could with water alone. Soaps contain phospholipids which are responsible for the cleansing action. Which of the following statements is the most likely explanation for how soaps work?
A) Phospholipids are ions and therefore mix with both the water and oily dirt.
B) Phospholipids are completely hydrophilic, and therefore oily dirt takes the place of the phospholipid molecules that would be dissolved in the rinse water.
C) The phospholipid tail attaches to the oily dirt while the phospholipid head interacts with the rinse water and carries the dirt (and soap) away with it.
D) The nonpolar fatty acid chains that make up the heads of the phospholipid are hydrophilic, and thus are repelled by the water.
Q2) An acid is a polar substance that dissolves in water and A) becomes nonpolar.
B) leaves behind an OH- ion.
C) accepts hydrogen ions.
D) loses hydrogen ions.
Q3) An atom that becomes charged due to the gain or loss of an electron is called an
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) When looking through a light microscope at a plant leaf, you notice small green organelles moving around in the cytoplasm of every cell. What organelle are you most likely seeing?
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) lysosomes
D) ribosomes
Q2) The __________includes the entire contents of a cell except for the nucleus.
Q3) Certain cells in your mouth produce large amounts of the enzyme amylase, a component of your saliva that breaks down carbohydrates. Which of the following organelles would you expect to be especially abundant in this cell type?
A) chloroplasts
B) mitochondria
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes
Q4) Organisms whose cells lack internal membrane-bound organelles are classified as
Q5) At the most basic level of life, organic compounds are organized into energy-dependent, self-replicating units known as _____.
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Chapter 6: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Signaling molecules can be "tagged" by attaching glow-in-the-dark molecules to them. After adding tagged signaling molecules to the fluid around several cells, you observe the cells with a microscope designed to see glow-in-the-dark molecules. After a few minutes, you notice that the plasma membranes of some of the cells begins to glow. This observation indicates that some cells
A) have more dense plasma membranes than others.
B) have receptors for the signaling molecule.
C) have no active carrier proteins for the signaling molecules.
D) block the signaling molecules by repelling them.
Q2) Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane that is not permeable to glucose. On one side of the membrane, solution A contains 10 percent glucose and on the other side, solution B contains 25 percent glucose. Which of the following is true?
A) Solution A is hypertonic.
B) The solutions are isotonic.
C) Water would move from solution A to solution B.
D) Glucose would move from solution B to solution A.
Q3) The viscous coating found around most animal cells is called the extracellular
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Chapter 7: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposing many proteins to high heat causes their three-dimensional shape to change. How might heat affect the function of an enzyme?
Q2) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A calorie represents
A) the number of grams of fat in a food product.
B) the number of times an enzyme can be reused before it must be replaced.
C) the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of one liter of water by one degree Celsius.
D) the temperature at which a gram of food is completely converted into carbon dioxide.
Q4) In the reaction H O + CO + carbonic anhydrase HCO - + H + carbonic anhydrase, carbonic anhydrase is a(n)
A) reactant.
B) product.
C) enzyme.
D) active site.
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The conversion of inorganic carbon from air into the carbon atoms found in all living organisms is known as carbon _______.
Q2) Energy is used to force protons from the thylakoid space back into the stroma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The burning pain in your muscles during strenuous exercise is a result of
A) the build up of lactic acid during fermentation.
B) signals sent to the nervous system by O -starved cells.
C) the accumulation of pyruvate in the absence of oxidative phosphorylation.
D) the lack of ATP needed to regulate the pain receptors in your muscle cells.
Q4) During the process of photosynthesis, plants capture light energy and store it in the form of
A) pyruvate.
B) stroma.
C) chemical bonds.
D) thylakoid disks.
Q5) You have been shrunk to molecular size and find yourself in a mitochondrial chamber where protons are being pumped out across a membrane into another chamber. You are in the mitochondrion's __________.
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Chapter 9: Cell Division
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the chromosomes in a homologous pair?
A) They both came from the organism's mother.
B) They both came from the organism's father.
C) One chromosome came from each of the organism's parents.
D) Neither chromosome came from the organism's parents.
Q2) The G phase of the cell cycle is distinguished by
A) an active preparation for DNA synthesis.
B) a doubling of chromosomes.
C) an absence of preparation for DNA synthesis.
D) the appearance of a metaphase plate.
Q3) Microtubules attach to plaques of protein called ______________ on chromosomes.
Q4) As the _____________ separate during prophase, they determine opposite ends, or spindle poles, of a cell that is beginning mitosis.
Q5) The mitotic spindle guides the movement of chromosomes during certain stages of mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Unlike mitosis, the nuclear membrane doesn't break down in meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Suppose D were dominant and d were recessive, and you could label the D allele in the P generation with a radioactive atom or substance. You create hybrids by mating your radioactive DD individuals to dd individuals. Finally, you cross two Dd individuals. In 1,000 offspring, how many would you predict would be radioactive?
A) about 250
B) about 500
C) about 750
D) about 1,000
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Two organisms with the same genotype are homozygous.
B) Two organisms with the same phenotype may have different genotypes.
C) A heterozygous organism may have the same phenotype as a homozygous organism.
D) A heterozygous organism has the same number of copies of a given gene as a homozygous organism.
Q3) A recessive allele can only appear in the phenotype of an individual
A) in the F1 generation.
B) exposed to certain environmental conditions.
C) who carries the mutation in his or her gametes.
D) who is homozygous for the mutation.
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Chapter 11: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) We now know that the gene for flower color and the gene for seed color are both on chromosome 1 of the pea plants once studied by Mendel. According to Mendel's results, flower color and seed color undergo independent assortment. Which of the following explanations is most likely?
A) Nonhomologous chromosomes containing the two genes underwent crossing over to create a new "hybrid" chromosome containing both genes.
B) During a round of meiosis, the female part of a flower failed to separate a homologous pair forcing the seed color gene to pair up with the flower color gene.
C) Between the time that Mendel studied peas and modern times, one of the genes was translocated onto chromosome 1 so that in modern times two genes that were once on separate chromosomes are now linked.
D) These genes are so far apart on chromosome 1 that they undergo independent assortment.
Q2) Chromosomes that are not involved in determining gender are known as A) autosomes.
B) sex chromosomes.
C) homologous.
D) linked.
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Chapter 12: DNA
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Questions
Q1) The adenine bases in a DNA molecule are radioactively labeled. Once this DNA molecule had replicated twice to form four new DNA molecules with no other labeled adenine bases present, you would find the labeled adenine A) in each of the eight strands. B) in two of the eight strands.
C) in all but one strand.
D) in six of the eight strands.
Q2) During DNA replication the enzyme ___________ _____________ builds a new strand of DNA while using the old strand of DNA as a template
Q3) The early hypothesis that protein was the genetic material was based in part on the A) knowledge that chromosomes were composed of both DNA and protein. B) fact that proteins are small molecules and therefore easily copied.
C) fact that protein molecules are large and could carry a lot of information.
D) the idea that DNA molecules varied too much within cells of the same organism.
Q4) Enzymes proofread base-pairing during DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The position of the start codon is important because every molecule of mRNA can be read by a ribosome in three different ways.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the genetic code, an amino acid is specified by
A) a stop codon.
B) rRNA.
C) a series of four introns.
D) a sequence of three mRNA bases.
Q3) Which of the following would you be most likely to find in an athlete who has won Olympic gold in the 100 meter sprint?
A) at least one copy of the R allele for ACTN3
B) at least one copy of the X allele for ACTN3
C) two copies of the X allele for ACTN3
D) two knocked-out copies of the R allele
Q4) The stop codon is the sequence of bases at which transcription ends.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most molecules of RNA are _______-stranded.
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Chapter 14: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following can be described as housekeeper genes?
A) genes that code for processing arabinose in E. coli
B) genes that code for producing chemicals that transmit nerve signals
C) genes that code for making muscle proteins
D) genes that code for making rRNA
Q2) In plants, transposons are often the cause of variegation (the formation of white stripes of cells on a green leaf). Which of the following explains why a transposon might have this effect?
A) The white cells are dead cells. When a transposon moves from one chromosome to another, it kills its host cell.
B) When a bacterium infects a plant cell, the plant cell begins producing bacterial proteins rather than plant proteins.
C) When a transposon "jumps" into the gene involved in the production of the green pigment in a plant, the gene no longer functions so the cells are all white.
D) When a transposon enters a cell, it inhibits the translation of all proteins.
Q3) DNA is _______ [more or less?] tightly packaged during interphase when most gene expression occurs.
Q4) Why is regulating transcription the main way the cells control gene expression?
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Chapter 15: DNA Technology
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Q1) In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the two strands of the DNA being amplified must be separated by exposing the DNA to high _______.
Q2) After electrophoresis has been performed, the stripes in one lane of a gel are
A) different-sized DNA molecules.
B) the digested restriction enzyme.
C) RNA from different cells.
D) DNA hybridization sites.
Q3) Gel electrophoresis is used to
A) connect two DNA fragments to each other.
B) snip DNA into smaller molecules.
C) separate DNA molecules by size.
D) determine the exact base sequence of a DNA molecule.
Q4) The use of DNA analysis to identify individuals is known as A) PCR testing.
B) DNA fingerprinting.
C) genetic modification.
D) cloning.
Q5) Genetic engineering has been used to mass-produce insulin for diabetics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Humans bred cows specialized for milk production by allowing female cows that produce large quantities of milk to mate only with male cows with mothers that also produced large quantities of milk, an example of _____________ selection.
Q2) Evolution can be described as
A) predesigned change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time.
B) sudden shifts in the genetic characteristics of an individual in a population.
C) a change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time.
D) isolation of populations due to geologic forces.
Q3) Two hundred million years ago all of the continents were part of a single giant land mass called ______.
Q4) Heritable differences among individuals are generated by _______.
Q5) Scientists who believe in evolution are never religious.
A)True B)False
Q6) Evolutionary changes on a large scale are called ______________.
Q7) Continental drift is the _______ of Earth's land masses through geologic time.
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) A new allele spreads from one large population to another as a result of genetic flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genetic drift has a greater effect on
A) moths than on birds.
B) individuals than on populations.
C) small populations than on large populations.
D) natural selection than on gene flow.
Q3) A gene has two alleles, D and d.The frequency of the D allele is 0.2. What is the frequency of the d allele? Show your work.
Q4) Which of the following processes does not lead to an increase in recombination?
A) fertilization
B) crossing over
C) independent assortment of chromosomes
D) DNA repair
Q5) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, _______ represents the predicted frequency of the heterozygous genotype.
Q6) _______ are the original source of genetic variation within a population.
Q7) Genetic drift causes random changes in _______ frequency.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Adaptation and Speciation
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Q1) Some species of orchids attract insects to assist them in reproduction by producing flowers that look like female bees. The flowers fool male bees into attempting to mate with them. This example shows adaptive evolution by
A) the orchids.
B) the bees.
C) all flowering plants.
D) ancestral bees.
Q2) Populations of weaver ants work together to "sew" leaves into a living nest. The nest building behavior of weaver ants
A) illustrates that the ants can consciously plan their nests.
B) represents a complex behavioral adaptation.
C) shows that these ants can get along without interacting with other species.
D) illustrates that adaptive evolution is goal-oriented.
Q3) Which of the following is not true?
A) Adaptations are complex and always predesigned.
B) Some adaptations are so complex that they may appear to be predesigned.
C) Adaptations often involve more than a single characteristic of organisms.
D) Some adaptations help organisms defend against predators.
Q4) An organism is polyploid if it has more than two complete sets of ________.
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Chapter 19: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not a key step in the evolutionary transition from reptiles to mammals?
A) the development of an opening in the bones behind the eyes
B) the development of a larger hole behind the eyes and some specialization of teeth
C) changes in the jaw hinge
D) the development of bones in the reptilian inner ear
Q2) The first group of vertebrates that could complete their life cycle without returning to water were
A) amphibians.
B) reptiles.
C) mammals.
D) birds.
Q3) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 _______ years ago.
Q4) The first mammals
A) were probably most active during the day.
B) were the size of modern horses and elephants.
C) had large eye sockets.
D) underwent rapid adaptive radiation during the "reign" of the dinosaurs.
Q5) Descendants of _______ were among the first organisms to colonize land.
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Chapter 20: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) A breeze cools a hot, dry surface by A) conduction.
B) convection.
C) radiation.
D) evaporation.
Q2) Ammonia is produced by the metabolism of A) fatty acids.
B) glucose.
C) proteins.
D) carbohydrates.
Q3) Negative feedback
A) stops a process, before it reaches its set point.
B) determines what the set point of a process should be.
C) slows down or shuts off a process when a set point is reached.
D) prevents positive feedback.
Q4) Heatstroke results primarily from
A) a loss of conductive cooling.
B) a loss of evaporative cooling.
C) a loss of radiative cooling.
D) a loss of convective cooling.
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Chapter 21: Animal Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Since vitamins are so important to metabolism, it is important to ingest large amounts of them in the form of vitamin supplements.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The liver secretes bile to
A) the pancreas.
B) the small intestine.
C) the gallbladder.
D) the large intestine.
Q3) Which amino acids are humans unable to synthesize?
A) all amino acids
B) most of the essential amino acids
C) the unnecessary amino acids
D) essential amino acids
Q4) The _______ is the organ that contracts to mix food particles with acid and enzymes, and also holds food until it can pass farther along for continued digestion.
Q5) The nutrients in food enter our body by crossing through the epithelial cells lining the _____ intestine.
Q6) Vitamins are either water-soluble or ___-soluble.
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Chapter 22: Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which of the following statements about gas concentrations in air and water is true?
A) Carbon dioxide is not found in water.
B) Carbon dioxide occurs in similar concentrations in air and water.
C) Oxygen occurs in similar concentrations in air and water.
D) Oxygen occurs in higher concentrations in air than in water.
Q2) While observing your goldfish, you notice that its gill flaps move up and down in a constant rhythm. This movement
A) helps the fish take in small gulps of air and store them in lung-like sacs.
B) requires less energy than moving air over the gills.
C) is unnecessary when the fish is swimming constantly.
D) ensures that the fish's gas exchange organs are surrounded by oxygen-rich water.
Q3) Human red blood cells contain the red pigment __________.
Q4) In humans, the equivalent of an insect's tracheoles in terms of size would be ___________.
Q5) The process of inhalation requires more energy than the process of exhalation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) More gas will diffuse through a _____ surface area than a _____ surface area.
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Chapter 23: The Circulatory System
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Q1) Arteries and veins, which transport materials over large distances within humans, are relatively large in diameter so that
A) their surface area-to-volume ratio is large.
B) their walls are less muscular.
C) the friction drag of the blood is reduced.
D) they are well suited to gas exchange.
Q2) The open circulatory systems of insects
A) lack one-way valves.
B) carry oxygen more efficiently than closed circulatory systems.
C) use a blood-like liquid to distribute nutrients.
D) play a role in gas exchange.
Q3) The drop in blood pressure as the blood progresses through the circulatory system is due to the effect of _______ between flowing blood and the blood vessel walls.
Q4) Aneurysms cause high blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pressure in the arteries is highest while the heart is contracting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Animal Hormones
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Q1) In human females, the release of an egg from its follicle is called _________.
Q2) Which of the following statements about gonadotropins is false?
A) They maintain the function of reproductive organs and glands.
B) Their activity becomes important during puberty.
C) They are found only in females.
D) They are produced by the pituitary gland.
Q3) The lining of the uterus is thickened and prepared to receive a fertilized egg by
A) follicle-stimulating hormone.
B) progesterone and estrogen.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) androgens.
Q4) Which of the following would be least affected by gonadotropins?
A) development of facial hair in human males
B) development of pubic hair
C) development of the thyroid gland
D) development of breasts in human females
Q5) In a human female, the hormone _______ controls the development of female reproductive structures.
Q6) A _______ is a specialized organ in which hormones are produced.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a reflex arc?
A) After reading all the possible answers to this question, you choose answer A.
B) The pupils of your eyes increase in diameter when you walk into a dark room.
C) A cell in your body releases insulin in response to the intake of food.
D) On a hot day, your body releases sweat. As the sweat evaporates, your body cools.
Q2) High levels of thyroid hormones in the blood result in
A) production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus
B) decreased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood.
C) release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland.
D) activation of the adrenal glands by the nervous system.
Q3) The largest, most visible part of the human brain is the A) hippocampus.
B) cerebrum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) thalamus.
Q4) The cerebrum has four major lobes, the parietal lobe, the frontal lobe, the temporal lobe, and the _________ lobe.
Q5) When a signal causes sodium ions to flow into a neuron it becomes ___________.
Q6) Nodes of Ranvier are found only in ___________ neurons.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sensing the Environment
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Q1) As you read this question, your eyes are moving to project the image of each word on your
A) pupil.
B) lens.
C) rods.
D) fovea.
Q2) The vestibular apparatus also contains three fluid-filled ____________ canals oriented at right angles to one another.
Q3) In addition to the receptors in the mouth, chemical receptors in the _______ passages provide sensory information that contributes to a human's sense of taste.
Q4) The light-sensitive cells in our eyes are the rods and the _____.
Q5) Pain and temperature are detected by nerve endings.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Rods and cones pass their signals directly to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q7) We perceive pressure waves in air as _____.
Q8) Why are sensory organs commonly located on the head of an organism?
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Chapter 27: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) In humans, red and white blood cells are made in
A) compact bone.
B) cartilage.
C) tendons.
D) bone marrow.
Q2) Which of the following animals has a skeleton made of carbohydrates linked with proteins?
A) mouse
B) housefly
C) shark
D) swallow
Q3) Which animal below has a skeleton that is a hydrostat?
A) grasshopper
B) octopus
C) bluebird
D) catfish
Q4) A single muscle fiber from a flea can lift about the same weight as a single muscle fiber from a human.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Defenses against Disease
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Q1) The ______ ______ is a coordinated combination of specialized cells and molecules that give us the ability to resist specific pathogens.
Q2) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a bacterial strain commonly spread in hospitals. If MRSA entered the surgical site of a patient, what is the first level of the immune system it would have to defeat to cause an infection?
A) innate immune system
B) humoral immunity
C) cell-mediated immunity
D) autoimmune system
Q3) Which of the following statements about fighting invasions of disease-causing agents in humans is false?
A) The organism must be able to distinguish between itself and foreign invaders.
B) Antibodies are produced.
C) Antibodies result in the production of antigens.
D) Cells engulf some of the invaders.
Q4) Our first exposure to a particular antigen brings on a _______ immune response.
Q5) Why does an area with tissue damage become warm and red during the inflammatory response?
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Latex condoms prevent the spread of all types of sexually transmitted diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In humans, the yolk sac
A) does not contain yolk.
B) produces blood cells.
C) contains cells that will eventually produce gametes.
D) all of the above
Q3) In mammals, the trophoblast layer in a blastocyst will become part of the A) uterus.
B) primary oocyte.
C) oviduct.
D) placenta.
Q4) In mammals, the blastocyst consists of the trophoblast and the A) placenta.
B) inner cell mass.
C) zygote.
D) embryo.
Q5) Organisms that have both functional testes and functional ovaries are known as
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Chapter 30: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Fruit flies are either "rovers" that move rapidly over a surface looking for food or "sitters" that move slowly over a surface. When a rover and a sitter are mated, all of the offspring are rovers. When two of these offspring are mated, 75 percent of the offspring are rovers and 25 percent of the offspring are sitters. This suggests that
A) fruit flies are very efficient at learning how to forage food from their parents.
B) food foraging behavior in fruit flies is regulated by a gene.
C) food foraging is an imprinted behavior.
D) food foraging is a form of communication.
Q2) Fixed behaviors allow a more flexible response to a given situation than learned behaviors do.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about behaviors is true?
A) All fixed behaviors are more useful than learned behaviors.
B) All learned behaviors are more useful than fixed behaviors.
C) Learned behaviors occur only in humans.
D) Many animals use both fixed and learned behaviors.
Q4) In _______ behaviors, the response to a stimulus depends on past experiences.
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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Organic fertilizers
A) supply energy to plant roots.
B) provide large quantities of potassium.
C) help soil hold water.
D) help rid soil of harmful minerals.
Q2) Approximately 90 percent of all plants are angiosperms. What unique feature(s) could account for their tremendous success?
A) flowers and fruit
B) the ability to produce seeds
C) vascular tissue
D) the ability to withstand cold
Q3) Fibrous root systems have one predominant root and many smaller roots near the top of the main root.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The outer waxy covering on plants is called
A) dermal tissue.
B) the trichome layer.
C) the guard cell layer.
D) the cuticle.
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Chapter 32: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) During pollination pollen is moved from
A) stigmas to sepals.
B) anthers to stigmas.
C) ovules to anthers.
D) carpels to stamens.
Q2) Apical dominance develops when the shoot apex produces ______, a hormone that suppress the outgrowth of lateral buds.
Q3) How might the observation that the percentage of plant species with red foliage is greatest among high elevation plants be explained?
A) Atmospheric composition at high elevation reduces the strength of the wavelengths that normally support photosynthesis.
B) High-elevation soils have above-average concentrations of iron, which accumulated to produce iron oxide within the foliage.
C) The red wavelengths exacerbate dehydration at high elevation, so mountain plants reflect it from their surfaces.
D) Red pigments absorb ultraviolet radiation,which is more intense at high elevation.
Q4) The growth of a plant zygote into an embryo occurs within the ____.
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Chapter 33: The Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following factors has the least effect on aquatic biomes?
A) human actions
B) the number of rain shadows
C) climate
D) local terrestrial biomes
Q2) Climate is more predictable than weather.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _______ consists of all life and its surroundings.
Q4) Plants are able to use nitrogen in only two forms, nitrate and _______.
Q5) The intertidal zone is somewhat unusual in comparison to the other aquatic biomes because
A) its primary production depends extensively on the photosynthetic output of mutualistic algae.
B) sand is one of the few aquatic substrates that regularly moves.
C) it experiences periodic submersion and exposure during the tidal cycle.
D) the mixing of salt and fresh water moderates the temperature more so than any other aquatic habitat.
Q6) The Earth's tropical areas are found at _______ latitudes than temperate areas.
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Q7) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living) and _______ (nonliving) factors.
Chapter 34: Growth of Populations
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Q1) A population of 100 individuals has a doubling time of 25 years. What size will this population be in 100 years?
A) 100
B) 400
C) 800
D) 1,600
Q2) Which of the following populations would be most likely to experience an S-shaped growth pattern?
A) all of the animals in the San Diego Zoo
B) Gause's paramecia without a constant food supply
C) a founding colony of rats on a small island with abundant resources
D) a beehive infected mid-summer with a deadly bacterial disease
Q3) Food shortages and communicable disease are examples of factors that would _______ a population's growth rate.
Q4) What was the effect of the pesticide DDT on bald eagles?
A) They lost the ability to fly.
B) The animals they ate as prey were killed by the DDT.
C) Their eggs were fragile, breaking before the chicks could develop fully.
D) The trees they lived in were killed by the DDT.
Q5) Overall, when there are more individuals in a population, birth rates _______.
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Chapter 35: Interactions among Organisms
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Q1) Which example best illustrates interference competition?
A) Soil levels of potassium are gradually reduced by the hemlocks and cedars in a climax forest.
B) The growth of starling populations usually coincides with declines in song birds since both use abandoned cavities for nesting.
C) When larger animals become scarce, wolves often prey on mice, reducing their availability to coyotes.
D) Rough-skinned newts contain enough toxin in their skin glands to kill almost any predator.
Q2) Beech drops are plants that no longer photosynthesize. They obtain nutrition by extending their roots into a beech tree and intercepting the flow of sap. Beech drops would be considered a _______ of beech trees.
A) parasite
B) predator
C) host
D) mutual partner
Q3) Interactions among organisms are always mutually beneficial.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Why is the existence of food webs important even though food chains also exist?
A) Food webs address the activities of consumers, whereas food chains address the activities of producers.
B) Food chains describe all aspects of interactions within a community, whereas food webs tell us what organisms eat and which are eaten by other organisms.
C) Food webs are smaller groupings than food chains. Food chains allow us to look at the overall picture, whereas food webs provide specific directional information.
D) Food webs tie together many more organisms than a food chain does. If one organism in a food chain disappears, a food web may allow the organisms in the chain to survive based on their interactions with other organisms.
Q2) By definition, primary consumers feed on secondary consumers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The only source of energy for life on Earth is the sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ consumers feed on primary consumers as part or all of their diet.
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Chapter 37: Ecosystems
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Q1) Each level of an energy pyramid corresponds to a step in a food chain and is called a _______ level.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the impact of human activities on the cycling of nutrients in natural systems?
A) Human activities are essentially benign and have little lasting impact on either atmospheric or sedimentary nutrient cycling.
B) Human activities have profoundly impacted nutrient cycling, particularly with those nutrients that cycle within the atmosphere.
C) Human activities like mining, construction, and road building disrupt the Earth's surface and greatly increase those nutrients with sedimentary cycling pathways.
D) Human activities in general significantly enhance nutrient availability and are almost always associated with ecosystem improvements.
Q3) Almost all life on Earth is directly or indirectly dependent on A) predation
B) solar energy.
C) physical productivity.
D) human civilization.
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Chapter 38: Global Change
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Q1) The organisms responsible for most of the conversion of atmospheric molecular nitrogen (N ) to the nitrate or ammonium that can be used by most other organisms are
A) photosynthetic plants.
B) bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) mammals.
Q2) Since 1950 the commercial fishing industry has applied continuously improving technologies for harvesting marine fish. What has been the effect of improved fishing efficiencies on ocean communities?
A) No substantial change has occurred; the oceans are simply too big for humans to have much of an impact.
B) Generally beneficial; as top predatory fish have been removed the biodiversity of many oceanic communities has actually expanded.
C) Quite disruptive; fishing has significantly altered the food webs of many ocean communities.
D) Generally beneficial; the selective removal of certain large carnivorous fish has led to an increase in the number of harvestable fish.
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Chapter 39: Biodiversity and People
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Q1) Although many groups continue to contain undescribed members, scientists have finally completed the classification of all fishes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the past 30 years amphibians have declined at an alarming rate. Some scientists believe the decline is occurring because amphibians are A) running out of food.
B) highly sensitive to environmental deterioration and have simply responded more quickly than other animals.
C) less highly evolved than other animals and lack the capacities to resist habitat change.
D) moving to more obscure locations to escape the impact of pollution.
Q3) Researchers have observed a direct proportional relationship between the _______ of an ecosystem (the annual growth of plant matter) and its biodiversity.
Q4) Those organisms whose distinctive features are primarily microscopic are challenging to study; thus, the most poorly known kingdoms are the Fungi, the Bacteria, and the __________ .
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Chapter 40: Cancer: Cell Division Out of Control
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Q1) A tumor that has gained the ability to spread throughout the body, generally with life-threatening consequences, is known as a _______ tumor.
A) benign
B) polyp
C) malignant
D) growth-promoting
Q2) Studies of retinoblastoma indicated that this type of cancer is caused by A) a virus.
B) Rous's bacteria.
C) growth factors.
D) a missing gene.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of cancer?
A) Cancer involves cell proliferation.
B) Cancer can be caused by viruses.
C) Cancer results from a balanced production of positive and negative growth regulators.
D) Cancer involves the loss of a cell's ability to control cell division.
Q4) Cancer cells cause tumors in other parts of the body by traveling through the _______.
Q5) Positive growth regulators increase the rate of _____________.
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Chapter 41: Harnessing the Human Genome
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Q1) The gene whose mutated form is associated with a person's risk of developing Alzheimer's disease normally produces a protein that
A) plays a role in delivering cholesterol to cells.
B) encourages plaques to develop in the brain.
C) is known as Alzheimer's protein type B.
D) has no known uses.
Q2) James Watson and Francis Crick
A) created artificial DNA in the laboratory.
B) discovered that DNA was the genetic material.
C) discovered the structure of DNA.
D) sequenced the genome of a nematode worm.
Q3) The pea aphid is a subject of investigation by comparative geneticists because
A) it has large nerve cells that can be used as a model for memory loss.
B) it can be a model for studying multiple sclerosis.
C) it destroys large areas of rain forests.
D) it is pesticide-resistant and a serious pest of corn.
Q4) The sciences of genetics and genomics are the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) SNP stands for single nucleotide _____________.
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Chapter 42: Humans and Evolution
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Q1) What potential effect might the current amount of gene flow among human populations have on these populations?
A) It could cause different populations to become increasingly more different until they are reproductively isolated.
B) It could significantly reduce the amount of variation between different human populations.
C) None, because isolated groups of humans are actually separate species.
D) Gene flow does not occur between human populations.
Q2) Improved night vision has been an evolutionary trend in primates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There is no evidence that genetic drift has ever played a role in causing genetic differences among human populations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Those involved in the ___________ movement strive to breed better humans by discouraging people with "bad" genes from breeding.
Q5) The first members of the genus Homo originated on the continent of ______.
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Chapter 43: Smoking--Beyond Lung Cancer
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Q1) When fluid collects in alveoli as a result of smoking, gas exchange is slower because
A) gases are unable to dissolve in fluids.
B) the fluid blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries in the lungs.
C) the fluid increases the amount of surface area available for diffusion.
D) gases diffuse more slowly over the longer distance created by the fluid.
Q2) Where would you expect the effects of nicotine to occur at the level of a series of interconnected neurons?
A) on their myelin sheaths
B) at nodes of Ranvier
C) on the cell bodies of neurons
D) in synaptic clefts
Q3) Smoking can increase levels of low density lipoproteins (LDLs) in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true?
A) Cilia in the lungs are paralyzed by tobacco smoke.
B) Bronchioles in the lungs prevent tobacco smoke from reaching alveoli.
C) Alveoli are the least vulnerable parts of the human respiratory system.
D) Tobacco smoke reaches the trachea after passing through the bronchi.
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Chapter 44: Feeding a Hungry Planet
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Q1) The process of inserting a gene unique to one species into a different species is called___________________.
Q2) Although an individual may consume enough calories, without the proper mineral nutrients malnutrition can still exist. The best solution for mineral malnutrition is to
A) increase the amount of animal protein in people's diets.
B) increase the amount of marine fish and shellfish in people's diets.
C) develop and distribute crops that provide better mineral nutrition than those currently used.
D) increase the amount of synthetic vitamins in people's diets.
Q3) Plant breeding techniques use artificial _________ to improve crops.
Q4) Soil erosion and nutrient loss always occur together.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One downside of grass pea as a food is
A) its horrid taste.
B) it is poisonous.
C) it is too fibrous to chew.
D) it can't grow in dry climates.
Q6) Soil erosion is typically caused by water and ____.
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Chapter 45: Building a Sustainable Society
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Q1) The green roof projects undertaken in Japan, Europe, and North America
A) have been for the most part unsuccessful; most have been removed.
B) work well in theory, but often cause structural damage to the building where they are installed.
C) represent reclaimed cropland and have made modest contributions to food production.
D) provide a number of environmental and practical benefits including decreased heating and cooling cost.
Q2) Old-growth forests have supplied most of the timber harvested in the United States but at a cost; in terms of area which region has experienced the greatest loss of old-growth forest?
A) the East
B) the Southwest
C) the Pacific Northwest
D) the northern California coast
Q3) Overuse of aquifers can cause cities to subside as it has done in Mexico City.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How can awareness and education affect our ability to build a sustainable society?
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