General Biology I Textbook Exam Questions - 2701 Verified Questions

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General Biology I Textbook Exam

Questions

Course Introduction

General Biology I provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of biology, emphasizing the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. This course explores the molecular and cellular basis of life, principles of inheritance, mechanisms of evolution, and the characteristics and classification of living organisms. Laboratory exercises reinforce theoretical concepts through hands-on experiments and observations, fostering critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills essential for advanced studies in biological sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 8th Edition by Jane B. Reece

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Chapter 1: Biology: Exploring Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is not an example of evolution that has resulted from human activity?

A)Many strains of bacteria are now resistant to some commonly used antibiotics.

B)Like certain other crops, domesticated strawberries are larger than wild strawberries.

C)Because of hunting, organisms such as bears and wolves are fewer in number.

D)Some insect species are now resistant to pesticides.

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following statements about ecosystems is false?

A)Bacteria and fungi recycle energy within an ecosystem.

B)Plants and other photosynthetic organisms are producers in ecosystems.

C)Chemical nutrients cycle within an ecosystem.

D)In the process of energy conversions within an ecosystem, some energy is converted to heat.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life

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Q1) An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass of 11.

How many electrons does boron have?

A)11

B)15

C)5

D)2

Answer: C

Q2) Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could

A)be positively charged.

B)be negatively charged.

C)have more protons than the usual nitrogen atom.

D)have more neutrons than the usual nitrogen atom.

Answer: D

Q3) If you could check the pH of the recommended tablets, you would expect it to be

A)higher than 7.

B)lower than 7.

C)exactly 7.

D)pH neutral.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: The Molecules of Cells

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Q1) Based on your understanding of enzyme structure, which of the following would you recommend that they also investigate?

A)the temperature of the liquid in the washing vat

B)the manufacturer of the fabric

C)how long the fabric has been in storage

D)the primary structure of the enzyme

Answer: A

Q2) A molecule with the formula C H O is probably a(n) A)oil.

B)steroid.

C)protein.

D)polysaccharide.

Answer: D

Q3) A phospholipid is composed of

A)one fatty acid molecule linked to three glycerol molecules.

B)one glycerol molecule linked to three phosphate groups.

C)one fatty acid molecule linked to one glycerol molecule and two phosphate groups.

D)one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acids.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) The function of the nucleolus is

A)to manufacture polypeptides.

B)to manufacture ribosomal RNA.

C)intracellular digestion.

D)to store chromatin.

Q2) Which of the following statements about lysosomes is false?

A)Lysosomes help to digest worn-out or damaged organelles.

B)Lysosomes synthesize proteins from the recycled amino acids.

C)Lysosomes fuse with food vacuoles to expose nutrients to lysosomal enzymes.

D)Lysosomes destroy harmful bacteria engulfed by white blood cells.

Q3) Which of the following statements about the functions of a plant cell central vacuole is false?

A)The central vacuole of a plant cell may help increase the size of cells by absorbing water.

B)The central vacuole of a plant cell may store waste products.

C)The central vacuole of a plant cell may digest chemicals for recycling.

D)The central vacuole of a plant cell may store poisons.

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Chapter 5: The Working Cell

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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding membrane function is false?

A)The plasma membrane forms a selective barrier around the cell.

B)The plasma membrane plays a role in transferring signals to the cell's interior.

C)The plasma membrane has receptors for chemical messages.

D)The plasma membrane is the control center of the cell.

Q2) Which characteristic promoted the utilization of lipids as the first cell membrane?

A)spontaneous degradation of the intracellular environment

B)self-assembly into a simple membrane

C)ability to form an impermeable membrane

D)formation of a semi-solid membrane

Q3) If you shut off the system and pressure was no longer applied to tank A, you would expect

A)the water to flow from tank A to tank B.

B)the water to reverse flow from tank B to tank A.

C)the water to flow in equal amounts in both directions.

D)the water to flow against the concentration gradient.

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Chapter 6: How Cells Harvest Chemical Energy

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Q1) Wood frogs freeze solid during the winter and then thaw in the spring. As the freezing progresses, blood circulation stops. How would you expect cells not being served by the circulatory system to produce ATP during this time, and what by-product would you expect to build up in the cells?

A)aerobic respiration and CO

B)fermentation and lactate

C)fermentation and alcohol

D)photosynthesis and O

Q2) If you consume 1 g of each of the following, which will yield the most ATP?

A)fat

B)glucose

C)protein

D)starch

Q3) A culture of bacteria is fed glucose containing radioactive carbon and is then examined. As the bacteria metabolize the glucose, the radioactive carbon will appear first in

A)carbon dioxide.

B)glucose-6-phosphate.

C)pyruvate.

D)ATP.

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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is part of the light reaction?

A)carbon fixation

B)reduction of carbon

C)regeneration of NADP

D)formation of waste products in the form of O

Q2) A redox reaction involves the transfer of A)oxygen.

B)water.

C)an electron.

D)carbon dioxide.

Q3) What is the main adaptive advantage of the C and CAM photosynthesis strategies over the C strategy?

A)They help the plant synthesize glucose efficiently under dry conditions.

B)They allow the plant to fix carbon under conditions of low CO .

C)They allow the plant to fix carbon in cool conditions.

D)They make it possible for the plant to use the Calvin cycle at night.

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Chapter 8: The Cellular Basis of Reproduction and Inheritance

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Q1) Without crossing over,

A)cells could not complete meiosis.

B)meiosis could not produce haploid gametes.

C)only a small number of unique gametes could be produced by a single individual.

D)genetic recombination could not occur.

Q2) You are a medical student and are reviewing a case study about a past patient. The patient was 4 feet 8 inches tall at age 38, was unable to have children, and had an above-average intelligence. The patient also had an irregular number of chromosomes. What diagnosis would you give the patient?

A)Turner syndrome

B)Down syndrome

C)Klinefelter syndrome

D)chronic myelogenous leukemia

Q3) Karyotyping

A)shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II.

B)can reveal alterations in chromosome number.

C)examines points of crossing over.

D)reveals the presence of cancerous genes.

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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the cross AaBb × AaBb?

A)16:0:0:0

B)8:4:2:2

C)1:1:1:1

D)9:3:3:1

Q2) Along with having a variable number of toes, some kittens from Jake and Lucy's litter had a white spot on their nose. In fact, out of the 16 kittens, all 10 males had the white spot, but none of the 6 females had the white spot. Jake has a white spot on his nose, but Lucy does not. What can you conclude from this information?

A)A sex-linked gene that controls the expression of the white spot is found on the Y chromosome.

B)A sex-linked gene that controls the expression of the white spot is found on the X chromosome.

C)The genes for the white spot and for polydactyly are linked.

D)The genes for the white spot and for polydactyly are not linked.

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Chapter 10: Molecular Biology of the Gene

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements regarding viral diseases is false?

A)RNA viruses tend to have an unusually high rate of mutation because their RNA genomes cannot be corrected by proofreading.

B)New viral diseases often emerge when a virus infects a new host species.

C)Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great.

D)AIDS was around for decades before becoming a widespread epidemic.

Q2) Which of the following is a function of a tRNA molecule?

A)recognizing the appropriate anticodons in mRNA

B)transferring nucleotides to rRNA

C)helping to translate codons into nucleic acids

D)joining to only one specific type of amino acid

Q3) DNA replication

A)occurs through the addition of nucleotides to the end of the parental DNA molecule.

B)results in the formation of four new DNA strands.

C)uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.

D)begins when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments.

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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled

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Sample Questions

Q1) The basis of cellular differentiation is

A)the operon.

B)selective gene expression.

C)cloning.

D)mutation.

Q2) There is a mutation in the operator of the trp operon in a cell such that the trp repressor is unable to bind to the operator. If tryptophan is added to the cell, what will happen?

A)Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.

B)Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will not be produced.

C)Tryptophan will not bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.

D)Tryptophan will bind to the operator, and trp enzymes will be produced.

Q3) Proteins that bind to DNA and turn on operons by making it easier for RNA polymerase to bind to a promoter are called A)regulators.

B)operators.

C)activators.

D)repressors.

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Chapter 12: DNA Technology and Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to match the pilot's remains to the correct family using DNA profiling,

A)the majority of the STR bands must match.

B)each of the 13 STR bands must match.

C)the bands for site 13 must match.

D)bands 5 and 7 must match.

Q2) Golden Rice is golden in color because it is rich in

A)vitamin A.

B)vitamin C.

C)beta-carotene.

D)chromium picolinate.

Q3) A cDNA library differs from a genomic library in that

A)the cDNA was constructed from introns only.

B)genomic libraries are only stored in bacterial cells.

C)cDNA libraries are more stable.

D)cDNA libraries only contain information from genes that have been transcribed.

Q4) Which of the following is an example of a transgenic organism?

A)a fern grown from a single fern root cell

B)a rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes

C)a cow that has been fed pig growth hormone in its food

D)a human given a corrected human blood-clotting gene

Page 14

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Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the 1950s, a scientist named Lysenko tried to solve the food shortages in the Soviet Union by breeding wheat that could grow in Siberia. He theorized that if individual wheat plants were exposed to cold, they would develop additional cold tolerance and pass it to their offspring. Based on the ideas of artificial and natural selection, do you think this project worked as planned?

A)Yes; the wheat probably evolved better cold tolerance over time through inheritance of acquired characteristics.

B)No, because Lysenko took his wheat seeds straight to Siberia instead of exposing them incrementally to cold.

C)No, because there was no process of selection based on inherited traits. Lysenko assumed that exposure could induce a plant to develop additional cold tolerance and that this tolerance would be passed to the plant's offspring.

D)Yes, because this is generally the method used by plant breeders to develop new crops.

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Chapter 14: The Origin of Species

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following descriptions best represents the gradual model of speciation?

A)Speciation occurs regularly as a result of the accumulation of many small changes.

B)An isolated population differentiates quickly from its parent stock as it adapts to its local environment.

C)Speciation occurs under unusual circumstances and therefore transitional fossils are hard to find.

D)Species undergo little change over long periods interrupted only by short periods of rapid change.

Q2) The ________ suggests that speciation occurs in brief spurts.

A)adaptive model of the origin of species

B)allopatric speciation model

C)gradual model of the origin of species

D)punctuated equilibrium model

Q3) A new plant species may arise in a single generation by A)errors in meiosis leading to polyploidy.

B)a sudden geological disruption causing separation of two populations.

C)mutations in genes for flower color.

D)changes in the pollinator species.

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Chapter 15: Tracing Evolutionary History

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Sample Questions

Q1) The earliest discovered fossils are of ________ dating back to ________ years ago.

A)single-celled eukaryotes; 4.5 billion

B)prokaryotes; 3.5 billion

C)algae; 1 billion

D)fish; 600 million

Q2) You compare homologous nucleotide sequences among several pairs of species with known divergence times. A pair of species that diverged 1 million years ago has two nucleotide differences, a pair that diverged 2 million years ago has four nucleotide differences, and a pair that diverged 3 million years ago has six nucleotide differences. You have sequence data for another pair of species for which the divergence time is unknown. There are five nucleotide differences between them. Based on your clock, when did their line of ancestry diverge?

A)3)5 million years ago

B)3 million years ago

C)2)5 million years ago

D)2 million years ago

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Chapter 16: Microbial Life: Prokaryotes and Protists

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Q1) Kelp, a seaweed that is anchored to the seafloor by rootlike structures and can grow to heights of 60 m, is a kind of

A)water mold.

B)brown alga.

C)green alga.

D)diatoms.

Q2) In 2012, scientists discovered that colonies of single-celled organisms can be found in high numbers in the human gut. Scientists are particularly concerned with the colonies that produce methane, as methane in the human gut can be linked to constipation and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The scientists can classify these colonies as belonging to the domain

A)Archaea.

B)Bacteria.

C)Eukarya.

D)Protista.

Q3) Mitochondria and then chloroplasts evolved through primary endosymbiosis.

Q4) Mitochondria evolved through primary endosymbiosis

Q5) Choose two of the following events in protist evolution and then put them in the correct order in which they occur according to current science.

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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Plant and Fungal Diversity

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Q1) Threadlike fungal filaments are called A)mycelia.

B)hyphae.

C)vascular bundles.

D)mold.

Q2) Which of the following plants has a dominant sporophyte generation and a seed, but no fruit?

A)fern

B)pine tree

C)tulip

D)moss

Q3) A cocklebur is dispersed by ________, whereas most fleshy, edible fruits are eaten by animals that ________.

A)wind; fully digest the fruits, including the seeds, which are killed

B)water currents; defecate the intact seeds

C)hitching rides on animals; fully digest the fruits, including the seeds, which are killed

D)hitching rides on animals; defecate the intact seeds

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Chapter 18: The Evolution of Invertebrate Diversity

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Q1) While wading in the ocean, you look down into the water and notice an umbrella-shaped, translucent animal. It swims by pulsing its body, and long tentacles trail behind it. One of them brushes your leg. Ouch! You feel a burning sensation where it touched you. To what phylum does this creature probably belong?

A)Porifera

B)Cnidaria

C)Platyhelminthes

D)Mollusca

Q2) In protostomes,

A)the opening formed during gastrulation becomes the mouth.

B)the opening formed during gastrulation becomes the anus.

C)there is no body cavity.

D)there is no endoderm.

Q3) Which of the following animals displays radial symmetry?

A)a worm

B)a sea anemone

C)a fish

D)a lobster

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20

Chapter 19: The Evolution of Vertebrate Diversity

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Q1) The last common ancestor shared by humans and chimpanzees lived about

A)6,000-8,000 years ago.

B)5-7 million years ago.

C)25-40 million years ago.

D)1)5-2.5 billion years ago.

Q2) Which of the following statements is true?

A)A line of lobe-finned fishes gave rise to tetrapods, and a line of tetrapods gave rise to modern amphibians.

B)A line of tetrapods gave rise to chordates, and a line of lobe-finned fishes gave rise to tetrapods.

C)A line of amphibians gave rise to tetrapods, and a line of lobe-finned fishes gave rise to modern amphibians.

D)Tetrapods and amphibians evolved at approximately the same time, while lobe-finned fishes evolved 2 million years later.

Q3) By far the largest number of extant fish species on Earth have

A)a cartilaginous skeleton.

B)rasping tongues to enhance their parasitic behavior.

C)an operculum and swim bladder.

D)high economic importance for their skin, which can be made into faux leather.

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Chapter 20: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function

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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of negative feedback?

A)After eating a meal containing high glucose levels, the pancreas secretes more insulin, a hormone that lowers blood glucose levels.

B)After cutting your finger, the injured tissue releases chemicals that activate platelets in the blood. These activated platelets release chemicals to activate more platelets, leading to the formation of a blood clot.

C)An elevation in blood pressure causes heart rate to decrease, thereby causing blood pressure to decrease.

D)The secretion of the hormone TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine. Thyroxine, in turn, inhibits the secretion of TSH.

Q2) Fingernails are a component of the ________ system.

A)respiratory

B)integumentary

C)muscular

D)skeletal

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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Digestion

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Q1) Regulation of the passage of food from the stomach is accomplished by A)peristalsis.

B)nutrient absorption. C)sphincters.

D)the stomach lining.

Q2) A person who is 5' 7" and weighs 170 pounds would be considered A)normal.

B)overweight. C)obese.

D)extremely obese.

Q3) Xerostomia is the scientific name for "dry mouth." Dry mouth can be a medical concern because chronic dry mouth can lead to dental problems as well as problems tasting, chewing, and swallowing. Dry mouth is likely due to an inadequate production of

A)saliva

B)chyme

C)amylase

D)bile

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Chapter 22: Gas Exchange

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Q1) Why do cigarette smokers cough more than nonsmokers?

A)The tar in cigarette smoke tends to make alveoli stick together, and coughing separates them.

B)Cigarette smoke harms the cilia that normally move debris out of the lungs, and coughing is the remaining way to clean the lungs.

C)Cigarette smoking partially paralyzes the muscles in the lungs, resulting in an increased residual volume, and coughing exchanges this "dead air."

D)By raising the pressure in the lungs, coughing forces more oxygen into the blood.

Q2) Oxygen is mostly transported through the body in which of the following forms?

A)dissolved in the blood

B)dissolved in red blood cells

C)bound to hemoglobin

D)bound to dissolved iron

Q3) Gills are unsuitable for animals living on land because

A)the large surface area of gills would allow dehydration of the animal.

B)air cannot diffuse across the gill surface.

C)there is no way to get air into the gills.

D)gills require high blood pressure.

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24

Chapter 23: Circulation

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Q1) Which of the following cells are phagocytes?

A)monocytes and neutrophils

B)basophils and eosinophils

C)lymphocytes only

D)lymphocytes, basophils, and eosinophils

Q2) Which of the following can contribute to high blood pressure?

A)regular exercise

B)eating a heart-healthy diet

C)smoking

D)maintaining proper weight

Q3) In which of the following human blood vessels is the blood pressure lowest?

A)arteries in the head

B)arterioles in the legs

C)capillaries in the feet

D)veins in the head

Q4) The largest blood vessel in the human body is the

A)superior vena cava.

B)pulmonary vein.

C)aorta.

D)pulmonary artery.

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Chapter 24: the Immune System

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Q1) Some complement proteins

A)induce antibody formation by phagocytic cells.

B)help trigger the inflammatory response.

C)are released by natural killer cells to attack cancer and virus-infected cells.

D)replace T cells in the cell-mediated response.

Q2) ________ rely completely on innate immunity.

A)Giraffes

B)Dogs

C)Humans

D)Beetles

Q3) Which of the following compounds is produced and secreted by mast cells during an allergic reaction?

A)interferon

B)allergens

C)histamine

D)perforin

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Chapter 25: Control of Body Temperature and Water Balance

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Q1) What conclusion did scientists likely draw from this study?

A)Rainy conditions may not be enough to dilute road salts that have high salt concentrations. Therefore, salamander clutches will experience minimal physiological damage.

B)Rainy conditions are enough to completely dilute road salts that have high salt concentrations. Therefore, salamander clutches will not experience any permanent physiological damage.

C)Rainy conditions are enough to completely dilute road salts that have high salt concentrations. Therefore, salamander clutches will experience minimal physiological damage.

D)Rainy conditions may not be enough to dilute road salts that have high salt concentrations. Therefore, salamander clutches will face irreversible physiological damage.

Q2) This study is considering the salamander clutches' ability to maintain the process of A)osmoregulation.

B)thermoregulation.

C)concurrent heat exchange. D)diffusion.

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Chapter 26: Hormones and the Endocrine System

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Q1) The two main classes of molecules that function as hormones are steroid hormones and hormones that are derived from A)amino acids.

B)cholesterol.

C)nucleic acids.

D)long-chain fatty acids.

Q2) Which of the following is one of the three major categories of sex hormones?

A)glucocorticoids

B)estrogens

C)glucagons

D)prolactins

Q3) When environmental estrogens trigger premature puberty in girls, the main organs affected are the

A)ovaries and uterus.

B)thyroid gland and pituitary gland.

C)adrenal cortex.

D)pituitary gland and parathyroid glands.

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Chapter 27: Reproduction and Embryonic Development

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Q1) You are observing a developing embryo under a microscope and see that it has a space in the middle of the endoderm, but no features of a notochord are present. In which stage of development is this embryo?

A)zygote

B)blastula

C)gastrula

D)fetus

Q2) Coral reefs are made up of genetically identical coral polyps. New polyps develop as offshoots from the parental polyp. What type of reproduction do coral polyps use?

A)budding

B)fission

C)fragmentation

D)sexual reproduction

Q3) Which of the following results from cleavage?

A)formation of the nervous system

B)formation of the notochord

C)formation of more cells

D)segmentation

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Chapter 28: Nervous Systems

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Q1) The gap between the transmitting and receiving neurons in a chemical synapse is known as the

A)synaptic vesicle.

B)ion channel.

C)gap junction.

D)synaptic cleft.

Q2) Why did the insecticide cause uncontrollable twitching in the roaches?

A)Acetylcholine was released, but the insecticide prevented it from diffusing across the synapse.

B)Acetylcholine was released, but the insecticide prevented it from binding to the receptor sites of the postsynaptic neurons.

C)The insecticide caused continuous stimulation of the muscles.

D)The insecticide prevented acetylcholinesterase from being removed from the synapse.

Q3) Action potentials normally travel along an axon

A)toward the cell body.

B)away from the cell body.

C)either toward or away from the cell body.

D)away from the synapse.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: the Senses

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Q1) Where is the organ of Corti?

A)in the pinna

B)in the inner ear

C)in the middle canal

D)in the Eustachian tube

Q2) Which of the following components of the human eye forms the iris?

A)sclera

B)choroid

C)retina

D)pupil

Q3) The retina of the eye is similar to what part of a camera?

A)lens

B)aperture (light opener)

C)film

D)flash

Q4) A person who cannot focus on distant objects has

A)hyperopia.

B)myopia.

C)astigmatism.

D)presbyopia.

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Chapter 30: How Animals Move

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Q1) Mutations in the gene for troponin can result in the production of the troponin protein, which has varying affinities for Ca² ions. Suppose that in a muscle cell a mutant troponin is expressed that has such a high affinity for Ca² ions that once they bind to troponin they cannot unbind. What will likely happen in this muscle cell?

A)Myosin heads will not bind to actin after action potentials stop being received.

B)Myosin heads will bind to actin after action potentials stop being received.

C)Tropomyosin will not move to expose myosin binding sites.

D)Cross-bridges will form between myosin and tropomyosin.

Q2) As a physician caring for a nursing woman who has chosen to dress in a way that covers her skin but who is concerned about rickets developing in her baby, you might advise her to

A)exercise more.

B)eats lots of meat and potatoes.

C)take vitamin D and calcium supplements.

D)give up smoking.

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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Growth, and Reproduction

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Q1) What event that occurred around 10,000 years ago led to genetic changes in many of the plants we are most familiar with?

A)the beginning of agriculture

B)the domestication of animals

C)the invention of genetic engineering

D)the mass extinction of herbivores

Q2) Which of the following is a function of tracheids?

A)food storage

B)photosynthesis

C)production of sex cells

D)water conduction

Q3) How many layers of vascular cambium will there be in the trunk of a 10-year-old tree?

A)one

B)two

C)ten

D)thousands

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Plant Nutrition and Transport

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Q1) A small seed may grow into a very large tree. As the tree grows, it adds a great deal of mass. Where does most of this mass come from?

A)something in the air

B)something in the soil

C)something in the water

D)sunlight

Q2) Which of the following is a question you should ask Acme about conclusions to be drawn from these data?

A)What unit of measurement was used to determine how much metal was in the soil?

B)What species of plants did you use for your remediation?

C)Since even the control plots lost metals, do I really need to remediate?

D)Since lead (Pb)is not a micronutrient for plants, how do the plants remove it?

Q3) Why was drip irrigation developed?

A)Drip irrigation uses less water than traditional methods.

B)Drip irrigation increases soil erosion.

C)Drip irrigation increases soil salinity.

D)Drip irrigation increases evaporation and drainage.

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Chapter 33: Control Systems in Plants

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Q1) Which of the following is the factor that initiates flowering in long-day plants?

A)nights shorter than a critical length

B)nights longer than a critical length

C)days longer than the intervening nights

D)days shorter than a critical length

Q2) Fall is coming, with the prospect of frost, so you decide to pick the last tomatoes on the vine even though they are still green. If you wanted to ripen these tomatoes, which method would be most effective?

A)Put all the green tomatoes in a closed paper bag.

B)Put the green tomatoes in a dark closet, but with a flash of light about every 4 hours.

C)Put the green tomatoes in a plastic bag with an overripe apple.

D)Store each green tomato in a separate plastic bag and put them in the dark.

Q3) The most reliable way to stimulate branching in a plant is to

A)apply auxin to the axillary buds.

B)remove the terminal bud.

C)give short-day light treatments.

D)add extra fertilizer.

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Chapter 34: the Biosphere: an Introduction to Earths

Diverse Environments

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Q1) Which of the following statements about coniferous forests is true?

A)Coniferous forests are the smallest terrestrial biome.

B)Coniferous forests are characterized by long but mild winters and short, dry summers that are sometimes warm.

C)Coniferous forests usually have nutrient-rich soils.

D)Coniferous forests may experience considerable precipitation, usually in the form of snow.

Q2) When people speak of the "rain shadow" of the Himalayan mountains, where the Gobi desert is, they are referring to the

A)shadow cast by the mist and clouds that hover above the crest of the range.

B)forested condition of the eastern flank of the range compared to the western flank.

C)scarcity of rain on the eastern flank and adjacent lowlands compared to the western flank.

D)dark-colored chaparral vegetation that grows on the eastern flank.

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Chapter 35: Behavioral Adaptations to the Environment

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Q1) Based on von Frisch's work on honeybee communication, which of the following types of information is communicated to other workers by a honeybee's "dance"?

A)the direction of the nectar source

B)the distance of the nectar source from the nearest water

C)the color of the flowers producing the nectar

D)the quality of the nectar

Q2) Organisms that are nocturnal are more likely to communicate using A)sight and sound.

B)sight and smell.

C)smell and sound.

D)touch and taste.

Q3) From a sociobiological perspective, altruism is a behavior that A)does not have a genetic basis.

B)has the potential to enhance the altruist's fitness at a later point in time.

C)will always be selected against.

D)occurs only in the social insects.

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Chapter 36: Population Ecology

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Q1) Which of the following activities would result in a decrease in your ecological footprint?

A)flying across the United States once a month

B)driving your car to and from school every day

C)leaving the water running while you brush your teeth

D)taking a city bus instead of driving to work

Q2) The age structure of the United States in 2010 shows

A)a broad base, suggesting a high birth rate.

B)a broad base, suggesting a low birth rate.

C)that a greater proportion of the population is elderly now than in earlier decades.

D)that the United States has not yet gone through a demographic transition.

Q3) The density of Douglas firs in an old-growth forest is estimated by counting the Douglas firs in four sample plots of 1 hectare each. The number of fir trees in the plots is 10, 12, 7, and 11, respectively. What is the estimated density of firs in the forest?

A)5 trees per hectare

B)10 trees per hectare

C)20 trees per hectare

D)25 trees per hectare

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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems

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Q1) When two different populations in a community benefit from their relationship with each other, the result is called A)herbivory.

B)mutualism.

C)parasitism.

D)competition.

Q2) Which of the following processes does not occur in ecosystems?

A)Energy flows through the system.

B)Carbon is cycled between biotic and abiotic forms.

C)Producers convert light energy to chemical energy.

D)The energy source that powers the system is used by consumers to make organic compounds.

Q3) When a New England farm is abandoned, its formerly plowed fields first become weedy meadows, then shrubby areas, and finally forest. This sequence of plant communities is an example of A)evolution.

B)a trophic chain.

C)secondary succession.

D)primary succession.

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Page 39

Chapter 38: Conservation Biology

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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of using managed relocation?

A)Scientists will be able to accurately predict how many members of a species will survive the relocation because they can start the process with a definite number of members being moved.

B)Purposefully moving species will allow scientists to put specific numbers of organisms in different areas so that the species population always maintains an even distribution of organisms across the area.

C)All species moved will be saved from extinction.

D)Governments will not face the large costs of maintaining conserved areas for corridors.

Q2) Captive breeding

A)has allowed for the reintroduction of many species to areas from which they had disappeared.

B)has advanced to the point where biologists believe it can be used to save most endangered species.

C)can work for animals but is generally not used for endangered plants.

D)is the main conservation technique used to try to save endangered species from extinction.

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